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Parasit Exam 2 Part 1 (Enoplids - half of Spirurids)

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Enoplids adults are unique for their

a)

tail

b)

no tail

c)

caudal alae

d)

cervical alae

2.

Trichinelloidea worms have this characteristic body differences

a)

narrow anterior, wide posterior

b)

narrow posterior, wide anterior

c)

narrow posterior and anterior

d)

wide posterior and anterior

3.

General characteristic of Trichinelloidea eggs include

a)

thin shell

b)

rough surface

c)

bipolar opercula

d)

football shape

4.

Which species will whipworms not infect?

a)

horse

b)

dog

c)

raccoon

d)

ruminants

5.

What is unique about Trichuris spp. eggs?

a)

larvae

b)

equal symmetrical halves

c)

thin shell

d)

clear/see through

6.

Clinical signs of whip worms include

a)

asymptomatic

b)

fresh blood in feces

c)

less fecal output

d)

melena

e)

anemia

7.

Treatment for whipworms

a)

Benzimidazoles

b)

Macrocyclic Lactones

c)

Nicotinic Antagonists

8.

Is reinfection possible with Trichuris?

a)

yes, eggs are resistant to environment

b)

no, the eggs die quickly in the environment

9.

Which lifecycle stage of Trichuris is infective?

a)

L1

b)

L2

c)

L3

d)

egg

10.

What is the difference between Tricuris and Capillaria adults?

a)

Capillaria have small uniform body width throughout

b)

Trichuris have small uniform body width throughout

c)

Capillaria have bull whip shape

d)

Trichuris have bull whip shape

11.

Where can Capillaria eggs be detected?

a)

feces

b)

urine

c)

vomit

d)

peritoneal fluid

12.

Capillaria are symptomatic in what species?

a)

Cat

b)

Horse

c)

Dog

d)

Avian

13.

Which species is the fox lungworm?

a)

Eucoleus aerophilus

b)

Capillaria

c)

Trichuris

d)

Rhabditids

14.

How do you differentiate Eucoleus eggs?

a)

asymmetrical halves

b)

bipolar opercula

c)

larvae

d)

symmetrical halves

15.

Eucoleus requires an intermediate host

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Eucoleus eggs are found in

a)

feces

b)

spit

c)

urine

d)

vomit

17.

Which species is this egg?

a)

Eucoleus

b)

Trichuris

c)

Pearsonema

d)

Dictophyma renale

18.

What species does Eucoleus bohemi infect?

a)

Dogs

b)

Cats

c)

Ruminants

d)

Aquatic animals

19.

Which species are found in the urinary system?

a)

Pearsonema plica

b)

Pearsonema feliscati

c)

Dioctophyma renale

d)

Capillaria

20.

Pearsonemia spp intermediate host is..

a)

earthworm

b)

coprophagic beetles

c)

small aquatic animals

d)

arthropods

21.

Trichinella eggs contain..

a)

they contain larvae

b)

they contain 2 cell morula

c)

they contain pre-larvae

d)

they don't lay eggs

22.

Trichinella are capable of reinfection in the same host

a)

true

b)

false

23.

What is true of Trichinella host 2?

a)

must eat feces of host 1

b)

must eat IH of host 1

c)

must eat skeletal muscle of host 1

d)

must come into contact with host 1

24.

Which are common Trichinella host 1?

a)

swine

b)

rat

c)

ruminant

d)

bear

25.

Which describes the Trichinella reservoir host in wildlife?

a)

sylvatic cycle

b)

urban cycle

c)

bubonic cycle

26.

Trichinella spiralis is public health importance, what is the most common clinical sign?

a)

flu-like

b)

nausea, abdominal pain

c)

headache, myalgia

d)

asymptomatic

27.

What genus is this?

a)

Trichinella

b)

Thelazia

c)

Trichuris

28.

Two features of USDA National Trichinae Certification program..

a)

Pre-harvest pork safety

b)

On-farm certification

c)

Nutrition consulting

d)

Feeding hogs garbage

29.

How do you prevent Trichinella spread to humans?

a)

Eat medium-rare meat

b)

Cook meat fully to 137

c)

Eat meat from carnivores

d)

Freeze meat for 10 days

30.

What predisposes dogs to Dioctophyma renale?

a)

playing in waterways

b)

playing in waterways where mink live

c)

catching and eating mink

d)

eating mink poop

31.

Dioctophyma renale adult worms do not have..

a)

bright red color

b)

3 feet long

c)

bell shape copulatory bursa

d)

three lips

32.

Which features describe Dioctophyma renale eggs?

a)

non-embryoneated

b)

develop in water

c)

environmentally resistant

d)

bipolar opercula

33.

Dioctophyma renale is infective at..

a)

L1

b)

L2

c)

L3

d)

pre-larvae

34.

Dioctophyma renale has an intermediate host

a)

yes, snails

b)

yes, mud worm

c)

no

d)

yes, earth worms

35.

Dioctophyma renale always shows clinical signs

a)

True, dehydration, kidney enlargment, hematuria

b)

False

36.

Treat Dioctophyma renale with

a)

surgery

b)

macrocyclic lactones

c)

benzimidazoles

d)

nicotinic agonists

37.

Rhabditids have which unique organ system?

a)

digestive

b)

urinary

c)

reproductive

d)

blood

38.

Pelodera strongyloides infect which body system?

a)

skin

b)

digestive

c)

urinary

d)

respiratory

39.

How do you treate Pelodera strongyloides?

a)

clean dry bedding

b)

let it go

c)

big 3

d)

surgery

40.

Halicephalobus gingivalis is found occasionally in which species?

a)

horse

b)

ruminants

c)

pigs

d)

dogs and cats

41.

Strongyloides spp adults are..

a)

parasitic females

b)

parthenogenesis

c)

live in large intestine

d)

shed eggs in feces

42.

Strongyloides spp. eggs are..

a)

contain L1

b)

oval

c)

thick shelled

d)

have bipolar opercula

43.

Strongyloides spp are free living and

a)

undergo sexual reproduction

b)

undergo asexual reproduction

c)

both

44.

What ways does Strongyloides spp L3 infect a new host?

a)

skin penetration

b)

ingestion of egg in water

c)

transmammary

d)

transplacental

45.

Strongyloides spp L3 are only infective if they are produced by parasitic females.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Strongyloides stercoralis eggs hatch in the intestine.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

This unique feature is called..

a)

filariform esophagous

b)

rhabditiform esophagous

c)

esophagous

d)

adult esophagus

48.

Which species infective L3 has notched or forked tail?

a)

Strongyloides

b)

Pelodera

c)

Trichuris

d)

Capillaria

49.

Where is Strongyloides stercoralis found?

a)

warm climate

b)

dry climate

c)

wet climate

d)

cold climate

50.

What species is Strongyloides westeri found in?

a)

horse

b)

ruminant

c)

pig

d)

dog and cat

51.

How do you treat Strongyloides westeri in foals?

a)

Benzimidazoles

b)

Nicotinic Antagonists

c)

Surgery

d)

Age related immunity

52.

Where is Strongyloides ransomi found?

a)

pigs in SE

b)

horses in SE

c)

dogs in midwest

d)

pigs in midwest

53.

Strongyloides papillosus is found in which species?

a)

horse

b)

ruminants

c)

dogs and cats

d)

dogs only

54.

Strongyloides tumefacines is common in the SE US.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Which species is found in water troughs and puddles?

a)

Nematophora

b)

Filarial worms

c)

Strongyloides

d)

Rhabditids

56.

What is the IH for filarial worms?

a)

blood sucking insects

b)

earth worms

c)

coprophagic beetles

d)

snails

57.

What is the common name for Dirofilaria immitis?

a)

heart worm

b)

lung worm

c)

liver fluke

d)

intestinal worm

58.

What is the function of Wolbachia on Dirofilaria immitis?

a)

stimulate embryogenesis

b)

protect from host antibodies

c)

increase pathogenesis

59.

Dirofilaria immitis is

a)

viviparous

b)

oviparous

c)

ovoviparous

60.

What environmental factor influences L1-L3 development of Dirofilaria immitis?

a)

temperature

b)

sunlight

c)

rain

d)

atmospheric pressure

61.

Where does L5 of dirofilaria immitis develop?

a)

skeletal muscle

b)

large pulmonary artery

c)

lung

d)

small pulmonary artery

62.

Which time of year is Dirofilaria immitis spread in the SE?

a)

year round

b)

July-August

c)

September-December

d)

January-June

63.

Microclimates are important in heartworm development.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Which pathology predisposes for pulmonary hypertension in Dirofilaria immitis infection?

a)

serum leakage

b)

arterial fibrosis

c)

proliferation of arterial intima

d)

right ventricular dilation

65.

What predisposes a dog for complications in heart worm infection?

a)

worm burden

b)

dog activity

c)

mircofilaria burden

d)

pneumonia

66.

What is a side effect of Wolbachia in treatment of Dirofilaria immitis?

a)

inflammation

b)

arteritis

c)

pneumonia

d)

right sided heart failure

67.

What system are the first clinical signs of Dirofilaria immitis seen in?

a)

pulmonary

b)

cardiac

c)

digestive

d)

urinary

68.

Which of the following are signs of Dirofilaria immitis infection?

a)

live failure syndrome

b)

dyspnea

c)

exercise intolerance

d)

fever

69.

Which diagnostic method attempts to quantify the number of heartworm in a dog?

a)

echocardiogram

b)

snap test

c)

microfilaria blood smear

d)

fecal float

70.

Which is a common aberrant location for Dirofilaria immitis?

a)

eye

b)

liver

c)

intestine

d)

kidney

71.

Occult infection with heart worm is..

a)

antigen positive, microfilaria negative

b)

antigen negative, microfilaria negative

c)

antigen positive, microfilaria positive

d)

none

72.

Where is it best to detect microfilaria?

a)

buffy coat

b)

blood smear

c)

knotts test

d)

blood we mount

e)

idk he didn't say so any of them

73.

Which of the following is not a reasons for an occult infection?

a)

immune mediated clearance of microfilaria

b)

low worm burden

c)

female only infection

d)

drug sterility of adult worms

74.

What are reasons for unconventional occult?

a)

all male infection

b)

immature females

c)

ancillary test

d)

effective presentation with ML

75.

How do you kill microfilaria before killing adult Dirofilaria immitis?

a)

melarsomine

b)

macrocyclic lactones

c)

benzimidizoles

d)

nicotinic antagonists

76.

What is the purpose of doxycycline in Dirofilaria immits treatment?

a)

kill Wolbachia

b)

kill microfilaria

c)

kill adults

d)

none

77.

Killing of microfilaria in heart worm infection has no side effects.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Which days (post diagnosis) do you give melarsomine injections?

a)

15

b)

60

c)

61

d)

90

79.

How long is rest after melarsomine treatment for heart worm?

a)

7-10 days

b)

2-4 weeks

c)

6-8 weeks

d)

6 months

80.

After treatment for heart worm, when should a dog test negative?

a)

6-8 weeks

b)

4 months

c)

6 months

d)

9 months

81.

It takes 6 months for monthly macrocyclic lactone preventatives to kill Dirofilaria immitis adults.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

At what age should heartworm preventative be started?

a)

8 weeks

b)

6 months

c)

2 weeks

d)

1 year

83.

Why are cats more resistant to Dirofilaria immitis than dogs?

a)

slower maturation

b)

immune-mediated clearance

c)

fewer number of adult worms

d)

shorter lifespan of worms

84.

Cat Dirofilaria immitis infection include..

a)

single sex infection

b)

aberrant migration

c)

asymptomatic

d)

extensive arteritis

85.

Which are related to HARD (heartworm associated respiratory disease) in cats?

a)

mimics asthma

b)

occlusive hypertrophy of small pulmonary arteries

c)

resolves as worms mature

d)

treated with melarsomine

86.

What are signs of death of mature worms in heartworm treatment?

a)

acute pulmonary inflammation and thromboembolism

b)

dyspnea

c)

persistent tacypnea

d)

coughing

87.

Antigen tests work for diagnosing Dirofilaria immitis in all species.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

Antigen testing in Dirofilaria immitis infections detects all life stages.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Cats clear heartworm infections without treatment.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

Surgical removal of Dirofilaria immitis is the best treatment for cats.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Ferrets are just as resistant to heartworm as cats are.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

How do you prevent heartworm infection in ferrets?

a)

limit exposure to vectors

b)

monthly macrocyclic lactone

c)

melarsomine treatment

d)

none

93.

Dirofilaria immitis in humans is seen in what organ system?

a)

eye

b)

lung

c)

heart

d)

gastrointestinal

94.

Where is Acanthocheilonema reconditum found?

a)

SE

b)

East

c)

Midwest

d)

West

e)

SW

95.

Infection with Acanthocheilonema reconditum means what other infection is occuring?

a)

Dirofilaria immitis

b)

Onchocerca

c)

fleas or lice

96.

Acanthocheilonema reconditum L3 develops in what IH?

a)

flea

b)

mosquito

c)

tick

d)

earthworm

97.

The arrow is pointing to what?

a)

Dirofilaria immitis microfilaria

b)

Dirofilaria immitis adult

c)

Acanthocheilonema reconditum microfilaria

d)

Acanthocheilonema reconditum adult

98.

Where is Setaria spp found?

a)

abdomen/peritoneum

b)

thorax

c)

feces

d)

kidneys

99.

Setaria equina is found in the midwest.

a)

True

b)

False

100.

The IH for Setaria equina is..

a)

mosquito

b)

snail

c)

tick

d)

earthworm

101.

Setaria equina causes which clinical signs?

a)

asymptomatic

b)

diarrhea

c)

peritonitis

d)

colic

102.

Setaria equina needs to be treated ASAP.

a)

True

b)

False

103.

Stephanofilaria stilesi is found where?

a)

cattle W/SW

b)

cattle N/MW

c)

horses W/SW

d)

horses N/MW

104.

Stephanofilaria stilesi microfilaria are found where?

a)

blood

b)

subcutaneous tissue

c)

dermal lymphatics

d)

peritoneum

105.

The IH for Stephanofilaria stilesi is..

a)

mosquito

b)

face fly

c)

biting fly

d)

lice

106.

Clinical signs of Stephanofilaria stilesi include

a)

alopecia

b)

skin thickening

c)

itching

d)

pustules

107.

Treating Stephanofilaria stilesi is done by..

a)

topical macrocyclic lactones

b)

benzimidizoles

c)

nicotinic antagonists

d)

surgery

108.

Onchocerca spp is found where in the host?

a)

nuchal ligament

b)

dermal lymphatics

c)

eye

d)

GI

109.

Onchocerca are always asymptomatic infections.

a)

True

b)

False

110.

Onchocerca micrilarial allergic dermitits sings do not include..

a)

alopecia

b)

hives

c)

puritus including edema and crusts

d)

keratitis and conjunctivitis