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Psychology Midterm Review (1-7)

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 2hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The psychological perspective that is associated with William James is:

a)

functionalism

b)

psychoanalysis

c)

conflict

d)

structuralism

2.

Because psychologists want to be precise and measure as carefully as they can, they use _____ to study psychology.

a)

mental processes

b)

the scientific method

c)

introspection

d)

functionalism and structuralism

3.

Mary is a psychologist who focuses on the role of the conscious and unconscious minds. To which perspective does Mary ascribe?

a)

behavioral

b)

cognitive

c)

humanistic

d)

psychodynamic

4.

Freud believed that personality was formed:

a)

around puberty when the sex organs develop

b)

in the first years of life

c)

after a traumatizing event

d)

in the first 6 years of life

5.

What did Watson believe about behavior?

a)

That it stems from unconscious motivation

b)

that it is learned

c)

that it and personality form in the first 8 years of life

d)

that it is related to repressed conflict

6.

______ focuses on how people think, remember, store, and use information.

a)

Structuralism

b)

Behaviorism

c)

Objective introspection

d)

Cognitive psychology

7.

Addison is 45 years old and is suffering from hot flashes and extreme moodiness. From an ______ perspective, Addison's symptoms can be attributed to menopause

a)

cognitive

b)

analytical

c)

psychodynamic

d)

biopsychological

8.

A ______ has a medical degree and is a medical doctor who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders.

a)

pschoanalyst

b)

psychiatric social worker

c)

psychiatrist

d)

psychologist

9.

Researchers use ___ for reducing bias and error in the measurement of data.

a)

naturalistic observation

b)

case studies

c)

the scientific method

d)

the descriptive methods

10.

Teri sat in the preschool classroom and watched the children play, writing down how well they interacted with each other. The children could see that Sasha was watching them, so they made an attempt to be extra well-behaved for her. Teri's research will be impacted by

a)

the observer effect

b)

an inability to replicate the results

c)

participant observation

d)

observer bias

11.

A researcher wants to describe children's normal behavior on the playground. The best method for this research is to use

a)

a survey

b)

naturalistic observation

c)

a case study

d)

an experiment

12.

When Donna took the survey in the mall, she noticed that the interviewer was wearing an Obama button. She answered the questions more favorably toward Obama that she might otherwise have, probably because..

a)

of observer bias

b)

she misunderstand the purpose of the survey

c)

of courtesy bias

d)

the survey questions were biased

13.

Experimenters control the effects of extraneous or confounding variables upon members of experimental and control groups by using

a)

independent observers

b)

random assignment

c)

placebos

d)

double-blind studies

14.

Mrs. Minor participated in a study in which she was given no treatment for her condition. Mrs. Minor was in the ____ group

a)

observed

b)

experimental

c)

hazard

d)

control

15.

Mrs. Puckett participated in a study in which she was told she would try our a new allergy medicine. She was in the group that received a sugar pill, but she believed that the pill did indeed help control her allergy symptoms. This phenomenon is known as

a)

the placebo effect

b)

a successful experiment

c)

the experimenter effect

d)

the mind-over matter effect

16.

A drug company is determining the effects of a treatment for depression. Neither the researcher nor the participants know who is getting the treatment and who is given a sugar pill. This type of study is

a)

double-blind

b)

single-blind

c)

an institutional review

d)

quasi-experimental

17.

Dr. Evans wants to show a casual relationship between tobacco smoking and cancer. Dr. Edwards should

a)

observe people smoking

b)

conduct a telephone survey asking smokers about their health

c)

find a correlation between smoking and the rates of cancer

d)

conduct an experiment using animal participants

18.

If a correlation coefficient is positive

a)

only 9one of the variables goes up

b)

the two variables have an inverse relationship

c)

the number is represented by the letter p

d)

the two variables increase in the same direction

19.

Correlation will tell researchers all of the following EXCEPT ___ between variables

a)

if there is causation

b)

if there is a relationsihp

c)

in what direction the relationship goes

d)

how strong the relationship is

20.

Which of the following is a guideline for doing research with people?

a)

Participants must be allowed to make an informed decision about participation

b)

deception is never justified

c)

participants must understand that confidentially is not guaranteed

d)

participants cannot just quit without a valid, logical reason

21.

The ___ is a network of cells that carries information to and from all parts of the body

a)

nervous system

b)

neuron

c)

brain

d)

spinal cord

22.

A branch of the life sciences that deals with the structure and functioning of the nervous system is called

a)

biopsychology

b)

neuroscience

c)

bioscience

d)

psychology

23.

Special types of glial cells generate a protective fatty substance called

a)

axons

b)

dendrites

c)

myelin

d)

cholesterol

24.

Neurons fire

a)

either full strength or not at all

b)

partially when there is a strong stimulus

c)

partially when there is a weak stimulus

d)

stronger when there is a strong stimulus

25.

When the action potential gets to the end of the axon

a)

the message is received by the brain

b)

the message gets transmitted to another cell

c)

the cell dies

d)

the cell does not return to its resting state

26.

The sac-like structures that are found at the end of the neurons axon and that contain transmitters are called

a)

dendrites

b)

synaptic vesicles

c)

synaptic knobs

d)

axon terminals

27.

The venom of a black widow spider is an example of an ____, which mimics or enhances the effects of neurotransmitters

a)

antagonist

b)

agonist

c)

endorphin

d)

beta blocker

28.

The ____ is composed of the brain and the spinal cord

a)

autonomic nervous system

b)

somatic nervous system

c)

peripheral nervous system

d)

central nervous system

29.

Neuroplasticity is

a)

the brains ability to change both the structure and function of many cells in response to experience and trauma

b)

the research and study of stem cells

c)

the most advanced form of brain surgery

d)

the process by which the neurotransmitters are taken back into the synaptic vesicules

30.

According to the textbook, scientists are investigating the use of stem cells to

a)

treat cancer

b)

cure birth defects

c)

alleviate depression

d)

repair damaged or diseased brain tissue

31.

When people are walking, raising their hands in class, or smelling a flower, they are using the

a)

skeletal nervous system

b)

autonomic nervous system

c)

somatic nervous system

d)

central nervous system

32.

The job of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is to

a)

get the body ready to deal with stress

b)

control voluntary muscles

c)

stabilize emotions such as happiness and sadness

d)

provide feelings such as empathy and sympathy

33.

The part of the autonomic nervous system known as the "eat-drink-and-rest" system is the

a)

motor pathway

b)

parasymphathetic division

c)

sympathetic division

d)

sensory pathway

34.

The "master gland" that controls or influences all of the other endocrine glands is the

a)

adrenal gland

b)

pineal gland

c)

thyroid gland

d)

pituitary gland

35.

The adrenal glands are located right on top of

a)

each lung

b)

the pancreas

c)

each kidney

d)

the liver

36.

An ____ is used to record the activity of the cortex just below the skull

a)

electroencephalograph

b)

computed tomography (CT) scan

c)

positron emission tomography (PET) scan

d)

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan

37.

The part of the brain that controls life sustaining functions, such as heartbeat, breathing, and swallowing, is the

a)

cerebellum

b)

hippocampus

c)

medula

d)

cerebral cortex

38.

Which sense is the only one that is Not processed through the thalamus?

a)

touch

b)

hearing

c)

smell

d)

taste

39.

A work-related accident left Bob with a paralyzed left arm and an inability to recognize the left side of his visual field. Bob's condition is called

a)

Wernicke's aphasia

b)

spatial neglect

c)

spinocerebellar degernation

d)

Broca's aphasia

40.

Which state most accurately explains the difference in functioning between the right hemisphere of the brain and the left hemisphere

a)

the right processes information all at once, whereas the left breaks things down into parts

b)

the right specializes in logical though processes

c)

the right processes information from the right side of the body, whereas the left process information form the left side

d)

the right sees things upside down, whereas the left sees them right side up

41.

On Sara's walk to campus one morning, she was thinking about what a nice day it was, how many people were already on campus, and how she has to stop by the bookstore on her way to class. Sara was experiencing

a)

insight

b)

a meditative state

c)

waking consciousness

d)

an altered state of consciousness

42.

Which of the following parts of the body controls the sleep-wake cycle

a)

thyroid gland

b)

hypothalamus

c)

pituitary gland

d)

prefrontal cortex

43.

Derek was lying on the couch and had fallen asleep when all of a sudden his body jerked, and he woke up because he felt like he was falling, Derek was most likely in which stage of sleep?

a)

non-rem stage 1

b)

non-rem stage 3

c)

non-rem stage 4

d)

non-rem stage 2

44.

Delta waves begin to appear in which stage of sleep/

a)

non-rem stage 4

b)

non-rem stage 2

c)

non-rem stage 3

d)

non-rem stage 1

45.

Which of the following is TRUE about night terrors?

a)

they happen during a light stage of sleep

b)

they occur fairly equally in children and adults

c)

they are a common disorder

d)

they are a stage of panic experienced while asleep

46.

Theodora suffers from an inability to get to sleep and to stay asleep. Which of the following would help Theodora with her insomnia?

a)

spending some time in bed relaxing, reading or watching TB until she gets sleepy

b)

trying various sleeping pills until she finds one that doesn't cause REM rebound

c)

going to bed and getting up on a regular schedule

d)

watching the clock so she knows how much sleep she is actually getting

47.

A person with sleep aphnea

a)

gets up and walks around while still sleeping

b)

falls asleep without warning

c)

stops breathing for 10 seconds or more

d)

experiences a state of panic

48.

Niles has begun to fall asleep suddenly during the day, sometimes in appropriate places. Niles is most likely suffering from

a)

not enough melatonin

b)

sleep apnea

c)

narcolepsy

d)

insomnia

49.

The _____ of a dream is the actual dream itself

a)

latent content

b)

repression

c)

conflict

d)

manifest content

50.

Debbies psychoanalyst tells her that the monster in her dream symbolizes her abusive father. He is discussing the dream's

a)

atual content

b)

manifest content

c)

spiritual content

d)

latent content

51.

In the _____ dreams are less realistic because they come not from the outside world of reality but from within peoples memories and experiences

a)

activation-synthesis hypothesis

b)

restorative theory

c)

latent content theory

d)

adaptive theory

52.

The key to hypnosis seems to be

a)

avoiding subjects who are active and alert

b)

using more practical subjects, as opposed to daydreamers

c)

a heightened stage of suggestibility

d)

a gullible subject

53.

Hypnosis is unable to do which of the following

a)

relieve pain

b)

help people to relax in situations that would normally cause them stress

c)

create amnesia for whatever happens during the session

d)

give people superhuman strengths

54.

In Hilgards theory, the ____ remains aware of what is going on during hypnosis

a)

conscious mind

b)

"hypnotized" part of the mind

c)

"hidden observer" part of the mind

d)

brain steam

55.

Withdrawal is a sign of

a)

tolerance to a drug

b)

physical dependence on a drug

c)

drunkness

d)

psychological dependence on a drug

56.

Which of the following is NOT true about psychoactive drugs?

a)

they alter thinking, perception, memory, or some combination of these abilities

b)

some can cause users to develop a drug tolerance

c)

all of them produce physical dependence in users

d)

many were originally developed to help people

57.

Methamphetamine is an example of a

a)

depressant

b)

hallucinogen

c)

narcotic

d)

stimulant

58.

Which of the following kills the most people in the United States every year?

a)

heroin overdose

b)

alcohol-related car accidents

c)

illnesses related to smoking

d)

homicide

59.

Barbiturates are known as

a)

gateway drugs

b)

no answer text provided

c)

the minor tranquilizers

d)

the major tranquilizers

60.

Opium and its derivatives, morphine and heroin, duplicate the action of which of the following?

a)

endorphins

b)

cortisol

c)

serotonin

d)

melatonin

61.

After having many cavities fixed as a child, Kyle now has a active dislike of the dentist's drill. His tendency to become anxious when hearing a similar sounding noise is termed

a)

a reinforcer

b)

a stimulus generalization

c)

higher-order conditioning

d)

spontaneous recovery

62.

Carla was bitten by a dog when she was a toddler. She's older now, but still backs up in fear whenever a dog approaches her. This is an example of

a)

vicarious conditioning

b)

biological preparedness

c)

stimulus substitution

d)

conditioned emotional response

63.

A teacher has decided to give "caught be good" tickets to her students when they behave according to class rules. This teacher also rewards students with gold stars each time they improve their math speed. this teacher is usign

a)

classical conditioning

b)

observational learning

c)

punishment and classical conditioning

d)

operant conditioning

64.

____ is learning new behavior by watching a model perform that behavior

a)

Learning/performance distinctions

b)

observational learning

c)

partial reinforcement effect

d)

vicarious conditioning

65.

Which psychologist is best known for working with children and a Bobo doll to study whether aggressive behavior is learned by watching others be aggressive?

a)

B. F. Skinnger

b)

Martin Seligmen

c)

Edward Tolman

d)

Albert Bandura

66.

Whenever Vernon comes home too late on a Saturday night, his parents refuse to give him his weekly allowance. Vernon's parents are using what technique to modify his behavior?

a)

negative reinforcement

b)

punishment by removal

c)

punishment by application

d)

secondary reinforcement

67.

Which of the following is one of Bandura's elements of observational leraning?

a)

percdeption

b)

flattery

c)

mastery

d)

memory

68.

In his study of rats in mazes, Tolman concluded that the rats in the group that did not receive reinforcement for solving the maze had

a)

learned to expect reinforcement every tenth day

b)

learned the maze by wandering around in it and forming a cognitive map

c)

been more motivated by the variable interval schedule of reinforcement

d)

more interest in the reinforcement than did the other groups

69.

Learning that remains hidden until its application becomes useful is called

a)

a learning curve

b)

latent learning

c)

conditioned learning

d)

insight learning

70.

In Kohler's experiment, Sultan the chimp first used just one stick that was lying in his cage to rake the banana into the cage, and hten he learned to fit two sticks together to reach a banana placed farther away. This was an example of

a)

trial-and-error learning

b)

insight

c)

latent learning

d)

classical conditioning

71.

InSeligman's study on dogs, the dogs that were not conditioned to fear the tone

a)

jumped over the fence when the tone sounded

b)

jumped over the fence when the shock started

c)

showed distress when the tone sounded

d)

refused to move even after the shock started

72.

The law of effect states if an action is followed by a pleasurable consequence, the action is likely to

a)

reduce pain

b)

be repeated

c)

be remembered

d)

become a cognitive expectation

73.

In an ____, the occurrence of reinforcement is more predictable and therefore the individual being reinforced is more likely to adjust his response to the timing of the reinforcement

a)

variable interval schedule of reinforcement

b)

ratio schedule

c)

interval schedule

d)

fixed interval schedule of reinforcement

74.

Small steps in behavior that are reinforced, one after the other, to create a particular goal behavior are known as

a)

successive reinforcers

b)

discriminative stimuli

c)

secondary reinforcers

d)

successive approximations

75.

Birds, who find their food by sight, will avoid any object or insect that simply looks like the one that made them sick. This is a result of

a)

operant conditioning

b)

biological preparedness

c)

reflex

d)

maturation

76.

Pavlov initially set out to study his dogs' _____

a)

social behavior

b)

brain activity

c)

circulatory systems

d)

digestive systems

77.

A naturally occurring stimulus that leads to an involuntary (reflex) response is an

a)

neutral stimulus

b)

unconditioned response

c)

unconditioned stimulus

d)

conditioned stimulus

78.

In his classical conditioning experiment. Pavlov's dogs were conditioned to salivate when they

a)

saw their trainers

b)

smelled their food

c)

saw their food bowl

d)

heard the sound of the metronome

79.

_____ is the disappearance or weakening of a learned response following the removal or absence of the unconditioned stimulus (in classical conditioning) or the removal of a reinforcer (in operant conditioning)

a)

stimulus discrimination

b)

stimulus generalization

c)

extinction

d)

spontaneous recovery

80.

Changes such as an increase in height or the size of the brain are called

a)

unconditioned response

b)

reflex

c)

classical conditioning

d)

maturation

81.

Which of the following is a feature of the storage stage of memory?

a)

holding information just long enough to work with it

b)

converting visual information into something meaningful

c)

converting sound into vibrations

d)

bringing information housed in long-term memory to mind

82.

The ____ assumes that how long a memory will be remembered depends on the stage of memory in which it is stored

a)

parallel distributed processing model

b)

levels-of-processing model

c)

sensory memory

d)

information-processing model

83.

The information-processing model assumes that the length of time a memory will be remembered dependes on

a)

a persons age at the time the memory is processed

b)

how long ago the even took place

c)

where the evens take place

d)

the stage of memory in which it is stored

84.

Short-term memory tends to be encoded primarily in

a)

visual form

b)

auditory form

c)

working memory

d)

a "sketchpad"

85.

The ____ acts as interpreter for both the visual and auditory information in short-term memory (STM)

a)

central executive

b)

long-term memory

c)

hippocampus

d)

sensory memory

86.

Once you learn how to tie your shoes, the action becomes part of

a)

procedural memory

b)

sensory memory

c)

working memory

d)

declarative memory

87.

In ______, new long-term declarative memories cannot be formed

a)

anterograde amnesia

b)

loss of procedural memory

c)

retrograde amnesia

d)

long-term memory loss

88.

An example of an episodic memory would be

a)

the names of the planets in the solar system

b)

the fact that 2 plus equals 4

c)

a special gift you received on your 13th birthday

d)

how to ride a bicycle

89.

It is extremely difficult to bring _____ into consciousness

a)

episodic memories

b)

semantic memories

c)

sensory memories

d)

implicit memories

90.

In the three-stage process of memory, the second stage is

a)

long-term memory

b)

retrieval

c)

sensory memory

d)

shot-term memory

91.

Visual sensory memory is known as

a)

iconic memory

b)

echoic memory

c)

shot-term memory

d)

photographic memory

92.

Echoic memory lasts ___ iconic memory

a)

for a shorter time than

b)

about two to four seconds longer than

c)

about two to four minutes longer than

d)

about the same amount of time as

93.

Information that enters long-term memory by automatic encoding

a)

is rare

b)

is most common in childhood

c)

requires little or no effort to retrieve

d)

must be practiced extensively

94.

While hypnosis may make it easier to recall some memories, it also

a)

makes it easier to create false memories

b)

makes the memories more vivid than before

c)

causes physical changes in the brain

d)

can regress people into past lives

95.

Higher false recall and recognition response can be predicted by

a)

age

b)

family history of mental illness

c)

socioeconomic status

d)

symptoms of depression

96.

Decay is the fading of

a)

the semantic network

b)

a memory trace

c)

procedural memory

d)

implicit memory

97.

Long-term memories may be inaccessible because

a)

most of them are actually lost

b)

of interference

c)

they were not paid attention to in the first place

d)

most people do not try hard enough to retrieve them

98.

Anterograde amnesia can be caused by

a)

decay

b)

suggestion

c)

a concussion

d)

hypnosis

99.

Early memories from the first few years of our lives are often difficult to bring into consciousness because they tend to be

a)

explicit

b)

implicit

c)

unimportant

d)

in working memory

100.

Autobiographical memories

a)

are easily lost

b)

begin to form at birth

c)

are always implicit

d)

tend to form when children are able to talk about shared memories with adults

101.

Mechanical solutions may involve solving by

a)

rote

b)

heuristics

c)

a means-end analysis

d)

using prototypes

102.

Which of the following is a true statement regarding algorithms?

a)

they will always result in a correct solution, if there is a correct solution to be found

b)

they are also known as "rules of thumb"

c)

they are also known as mechanical solutions

d)

they are what happens when the mind simply reorganizes a problem and comes up with a solution in an "aha!" moment

103.

A useful heuristic that works much of the time is

a)

putting all people who share characteristics into one chategory

b)

working backwards from the goal

c)

estimating the likelihood of an even occurring based on past experience

d)

using a step-by-step procedure for solving a problem

104.

Writing a term paper may be best approached by using

a)

subgoals

b)

availability heuristics

c)

representative heuristics

d)

algorithms

105.

The ___ heuristic is based on one's estimation of the frequency or likelihood of an even based on how easy it is to recall relevant information from memory or how easy it is to think of related examples

a)

hindsight

b)

self-serving

c)

availability

d)

representativeness

106.

when people think, they often have ____ in their minds

a)

confusion

b)

memories

c)

images and words

d)

a jumble of things

107.

Divergent thinking is especially difficult to teach to

a)

males

b)

australian children

c)

females

d)

japanese childen

108.

Csikszentmihalyi found that

a)

creative people are not necessarily unconventional in all aspects of their lives

b)

creative people value conformity

c)

creative people are usually only knowledgeable about one or two subjects

d)

creative people are generally eccentric

109.

Brainstorming, keeping a journal, and subject mapping are all

a)

strategies to stimulate convergent thinkings

b)

strategies to stimulate divergent thinking

c)

heuristics

d)

mental sets

110.

Gardner theorized that there are ___ types of intelligence

a)

two

b)

nine

c)

countless

d)

four

111.

Sternberg's three types of intelligence are analytical, creative, ,and

a)

productive

b)

practical

c)

theoretical

d)

spatial

112.

___ is a method for comparing mental age and chronological age that was adopted for use with the revised Binet intelligence test

a)

Stern's formula

b)

Practical equivalence

c)

The validity test

d)

the standard deviation

113.

Standard deviation is the average variation of scores from the

a)

highest to the lowest

b)

lowest to the highest

c)

median

d)

mean

114.

the developmental delay related to living in poverty and one that usually produces relatively mild intellectual disabilities

a)

fetal alcohol syndrome

b)

familial retardation

c)

down syndrome

d)

fragile X syndrome

115.

Terman determined that gifted people

a)

are more resistant to mental illnesses than those of average intelligence

b)

are typically below average in height and weight

c)

normally possess an IQ of 160 or above

d)

are usually socially maladjusted

116.

The The Bell Curve, Herrnstein and Murray made the unfounded claim that

a)

the heritability of intelligence is about 0.50

b)

intelligence is largely inherited

c)

gifted people are more prone to mental illness

d)

IQ tests have socioeconomic biases

117.

In some languages, changing the ____ of a spoken word can change its entire meaning

a)

phonemes

b)

intonation

c)

morphemes

d)

syntax

118.

In a well-known animal language research study, Kanzi the chimp

a)

followed complex instructions up to the level of an 8 year old child

b)

made enough consistent sounds to be considered to have his own language

c)

mastered syntax

d)

demonstrated four consistent sounds to represent banana, grapes, juice, and the word yes

119.

Vegetables, fruit, vehicles, and animals are all examples of ______ or categories of objects

a)

mental images

b)

heuristics

c)

attributes

d)

concepts

120.

Which of the following examples does NOT illustrate divergent thinking?

a)

michelle knits a blanket and uses it as a cover for her bed

b)

aida builds a tower using a deck of cards

c)

michael turns a piece of paper into a paper airplane

d)

jennifer makes a bowling game using empty plastic bottles and an orange