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Micro Exam 4

Total questions: 133

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

gram-negative bacillus that is hydrogen sulfide (H2S)-positive, citrate-positive, spot indole–negative, and associated with gastroenteritis in the United States is most likely:

a)

K. pneumoniae..

b)

P. vulgaris

c)

S. sonnei.

d)

Salmonella enteritidis.

2.

A green colony with a black center is isolated on HE agar from a stool specimen. It is most likely which organism?

a)

E. coli

b)

Salmonella spp.

c)

Shigella spp.

d)

K. pneumoniae

3.

A patient bitten by a flea developed a painful bubo at the site of the bite. The drug of choice for this organism is:

a)

ampicillin.

b)

gentamycin.

c)

streptomycin.

d)

ciprofloxacin.

4.

An organism that appears red with a black center on XLD agar is lactose-_and H2S-_____.

a)

positive; positive

b)

positive; negative

c)

negative; positive

d)

negative; negative

5.

E. coli can produce a toxin similar to S. dysenteriae and can cause hemorrhagic colitis. What other organ does it affect?

a)

Lungs

b)

Heart

c)

Liver

d)

Kidney

6.

E. coli would appear what color on HE agar?

a)

Green

b)

Green with a black center

c)

Yellow

d)

yellow with a black center

7.

For the most part, all Enterobacteriaceae are positive for which biochemical reactions?

a)

Glucose, oxidase, and catalase

b)

Glucose, indole, and oxidase

c)

Glucose, reduce nitrates to nitrites, and oxidase

d)

Glucose, catalase, and reduce nitrates to nitrites

8.

In addition to being a group of gram-negative bacteria considered normal flora of the gastrointestinal tract of humans and animals, which one of the following also contains agents of important diseases such as gastroenteritis and enteric fevers, urinary tract infections, and bacterial pneumonia?

a)

Neisseriaceae

b)

Enterobacteriacea

c)

Micrococcaceae

d)

Enterococcus

9.

MacConkey-sorbitol agar is useful for detecting pathogenic strains of:

a)

E. coli..

b)

Shigella spp.

c)

Salmonella spp

d)

Vibrio spp.

10.

Most strains of Escherichia coli can be presumptively identified on the basis of which characteristic?

a)

pot indole–positive

b)

Methyl red–negative

c)

Urease-positive

d)

Citrate-positive

11.

Of the following bacterial species, which is associated with a serious diarrheal illness with high mortality rates among some populations?

a)

E. coli

b)

. Vibrio spp.

c)

.Salmonella spp

d)

Shigella spp

12.

On MacConkey agar, Serratia spp. would appear:

a)

red

b)

colorless

c)

green

d)

yellow

13.

The major etiologic agent of urinary tract infections is:

a)

E. coli. .

b)

shigella spp

c)

salmonella app

d)

vibro spp

14.

The swarming gram-negative bacillus that can be presumptively identified on the basis of a positive indole test is

a)

Shigella sonnei.

b)

Enterobacter aerogenes.

c)

Proteus vulgaris.

d)

Klebsiella pneumoniae

15.

Which is correct for the description "alkaline slant, acid butt, no H2S"?

a)

Salmonella spp.

b)

Pseudomonas spp.

c)

Proteus spp.

d)

E. coli

16.

Which of correct for the description "acid slant, acid butt, no H2S"?

a)

Salmonella spp.

b)

Pseudomonas spp.

c)

Proteus spp.

d)

E. coli

17.

Which organism is oxidase-negative, oxidizes glucose, and is a nonlactose fermenter?

a)

Escherichia

b)

Mortadella

c)

Acinetobacter

d)

Pseudomonas

18.

A yellow-pigmented, gram-negative rod on blood agar that is oxidase-positive, motile by wet mount, and has the ability to oxidize glucose, xylose, and sucrose is most likely which of the following?

a)

Treponema

b)

Leptospira

c)

borrelia

d)

Sphingomonas

19.

Among Haemophilus influenzae strains, group designations (e.g., type b) are based on:

a)

flagellar antigens.

b)

capsular characteristics.

c)

cell wall antigens.

d)

infectious capabilities.

20.

Chancroid is the sexually transmitted disease caused by:

a)

H. influenzae.

b)

Haemophilus parainfluenzae.

c)

. H. aphrophilus.

d)

Haemophilus ducreyi

21.

E. corrodens can be easily recognized in culture by its:

a)

. grapelike odor.

b)

large spreading colonial morphologic characteristic.

c)

pink pigmentation

d)

bleachlike odor.

22.

H. ducreyi requires what special media to grow?

a)

Mueller-Hinton–based agar, supplemented with 10% IsoVitaleX and vancomycin

b)

Heart infusion–based chocolate agar, supplemented with 10% fetal bovine serum and vancomycin

c)

Mueller-Hinton–based chocolate agar, supplemented with 1% IsoVitaleX and vancomycin

d)

Heart infusion–based agar, supplemented with 10% IsoVitaleX and vancomycin

23.

In a phenomenon known as satelliting, tiny colonies of Haemophilus spp. may be observed growing on sheep blood agar close to colonies of:

a)

Streptococcus pyogenes.

b)

other Haemophilus spp.

c)

Micrococcus spp.

d)

Staphylococcus aureus.

24.

Isolates from CSF that are gram-negative coccobacilli, grow on chocolate agar in CO2 but not blood agar, require factor V but not X, and are nonhemolytic on rabbit or horse blood may be identified

a)

H. parainfluenzae.

b)

H. influenzae.

c)

H. aphrophilus.

d)

H. ducreyi.

25.

Isolates from cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or respiratory tract specimens that are gram-negative coccobacilli grow on chocolate agar in CO2 but not on blood agar, and are porphyrin-negative and nonhemolytic on rabbit or horse blood may be identified as:

a)

H. parainfluenzae.

b)

Haemophilus parahaemolyticus.

c)

H. haemolyticus.

d)

H. influenzae.

26.

Kingella spp. can be distinguished from Neisseria spp. by its:

a)

. positive test for catalase.

b)

.positive test for lactose fermentation

c)

negative test for catalase

d)

negative test for oxidase.

27.

Of the asaccharolytic, oxidase-positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar, which one of the following organisms is generally associated with mixed infections resulting from bites or clenched-fist wounds?

a)

Sphingomonas paucimobilis

b)

Eikenella corrodens

c)

Weeksella virosa

d)

Pseudomonas maltophilia

28.

Of the following media, which provides the NAD necessary for the growth of Haemophilus spp.?

a)

Chocolate agar

b)

Nutrient agar

c)

rBrain-heart infusion agar

d)

5% sheep blood aga

29.

Of the following organisms, which one is among the Aggregatibacter aphrophilus, Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans, Cardiobacterium hominis, Eikenella corrodens, and Kingella spp. (HACEK) group of organisms that cause slowly progressive bacterial endocarditis?

a)

Capnocytophaga gingivalis

b)

Sphingomonas paucimobilis

c)

E. corrodens

d)

A. actinomycetemcomitans

30.

Oxidase-positive, glucose-positive (oxidatively) gram-negative bacilli that cannot grow on MacConkey agar include:

a)

Pseudomonas.

b)

Vibrio.

c)

Stenotrophomonas

d)

. Sphingomonas.

31.

Quality control performed on indole reagent should be performed on which two organisms?

a)

E. corrodens and W. virosa

b)

E. corrodens and Methylobacterium spp

c)

. W. virosa and Bergeyella zoohelcum

d)

B. zoohelcum and Escherichia coli

32.

Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of deoxyribonuclease (DNase) media?

a)

M. osloensis and M. lacunata

b)

M. atlantae and M. lacunata

c)

M. lacunata and M. lincolnii

d)

M. nonliquefaciens and M. canis

33.

Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of the nitrate reduction test?

a)

Pasteurella canis and Pasteurella bettyae

b)

Pasteurella aerogenes and Pasteurella dagmatis

c)

M. haemolytica and Pasteurella pneumotropica

d)

P. multocida and Suttonella indologenes

34.

The commensal Neisseria spp. are often confused with pathogenic gram-negative diplococci. A simple test utilizing a blood agar plate and an antibiotic disk resulting in elongation of the cells assists in the differentiation of these organisms. Which antibiotic disk is utilized in this application?

a)

Cephalosporin

b)

Metronidazole

c)

Penicillin

d)

Vancomycin

35.

The species of Moraxella that is most commonly associated with human infections, primarily of the respiratory tract, is:

a)

M. catarrhalis.

b)

Moraxella atlantae

c)

Moraxella canis.

d)

Moraxella lacunata.

36.

The sputum of a 75-year-old man with chronic lung infections yields the following:• Many gram-negative coccobacilli in Gram stain • X and V factors required for growth • Nonhemolytic on rabbit blood agar The organism can be identified as:

a)

Haemophilus aegyptius.

b)

H. parainfluenzae.

c)

Haemophilus haemolyticus..

d)

H. influenzae

37.

This bacterium is unique in that it does not possess a flagellum but is motile by gliding motility.

a)

Acidovorax spp.

b)

Sphingobacterium spp.

c)

Spingomonas spp.

d)

Pseudomonas spp.

38.

To test the validity of catalase reagent, which two organisms should be used?

a)

Actinobacillus suis and Actinobacillus ureae

b)

A. actinomycetemcomitans and Kingella kingae

c)

C. hominis and A. aphrophilus

d)

K. denitrificans and K. kingae

39.

True cocci, such as most Neisseria spp. and Moraxella catarrhalis, can be differentiated from morphologically similar Moraxella species by:

a)

comparing the penicillin susceptibility testing results of the bacteria.

b)

performing the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) test.

c)

identifying the resistance of Moraxella to many -lactam antimicrobial agents.

d)

subjecting the bacterium to noninhibitory concentrations of penicillin.

40.

Which antimicrobial regimen should be administered to a patient suspected of having endocarditis as a result of infection with C. hominis?

a)

Chloramphenicol and tetracycline

b)

Erythromycin and ciprofloxacin

c)

Ampicillin and ceftriaxone

d)

Penicillin, with or without an aminoglycoside agent

41.

Which of the following bacterial species is part of animal flora and transmitted to humans during close animal contact, including bites

a)

S. paucimobilis

b)

Eikenella corrodens

c)

P. multocida

d)

W. virosa

42.

Which of the following media provides the factors necessary for the growth of Haemophilus spp.?

a)

rNutrient agar

b)

5% sheep blood aga

c)

Brain-heart infusion agar

d)

Chocolate agar

43.

Which of the following organisms is negative for catalase, indole, and arginine dihydrolase tests and pits the agar on a sheep blood agar plate?

a)

E. corrodens

b)

S. paucimobilis

c)

P. maltophilia

d)

W. virosa

44.

Which yellow-pigmented organism exhibits gliding motility that grows best at 35C and in conditions with increased carbon dioxide (CO2) but cannot grow in ambient air?

a)

Actinobacillus

b)

Capnocytophaga

c)

Cardiobacterium

d)

Kingella

45.

With one exception, species of the genus Haemophilus require which of the following media ingredients for in vitro growth?

a)

Vitamin K and NAD

b)

Hemin and cysteine

c)

Hemin and nicotine adenine dinucleotide (NAD)

d)

Vitamin K and hemin

46.

A bronchoscopy was performed on a patient who later developed a nosocomial infection as a result of the procedure. The organism recovered from his lung was a nonlactose fermenter that oxidized glucose and maltose, was lysine decarboxylase–positive, and was motile. The organism is most likely which one of the following?

a)

Saccharolytic Acinetobacter

b)

Bordetella parapertussis

c)

P. luteola

d)

S. maltophilia

47.

A convenient and reliable identification scheme for P. aeruginosa involves which of the following conventional tests?

a)

Catalase, TSI slant, growth at 42°C on sheep blood agar or blood trypticase soy agar

b)

Oxidase, TSI slant, growth at 24°C on Mueller-Hinton agar or trypticase soy agar

c)

Catalase, lysine iron agar (LIA) slant, growth at 42°C on Mueller-Hinton agar or trypticase soy agar

d)

Oxidase, triple sugar iron (TSI) slant, growth at 42°C on Mueller-Hinton agar or trypticase soy agar

48.

A patient with an indwelling catheter tip began spiking a fever of 39C. The site of the catheter was inflamed and red. The catheter tip was cultured, and the following organism was isolated: a nonlactose-fermenter on MacConkey agar; a glucose, xylose, and mannitol oxidizer with the ability to hydrolyze esculin. This organism is most likely which one of the following?

a)

CDC group EF-4b

b)

S. putrefaciens

c)

R. radiobacter

d)

P. yeei

49.

A weakly oxidase-positive, nonfermenting gram-negative rod is isolated from respiratory sample. Traditional biochemical reactions include: arginine dihydrolase-negative; lysine decarboxylase-positive; gelatin liquefaction-positive; oxidizes lactose and glucose.

a)

B. cepacia

b)

B. vesicularis

c)

P. aeruginosa

d)

Pandoraea spp.

50.

Achromobacter, Alcaligenes, and Bordetella are all:

a)

urea positive.

b)

oxidase negative.

c)

nonglucose utilizers.

d)

lactose fermenters.

51.

An organism described as oxidase-positive, (K/NC) on TSI media, growth at 42°C, and produces a bright bluish-green pigment on Mueller-Hinton agar is most likely:

a)

B. mallei.

b)

P. aeruginosa.

c)

Pseudomonas fluorescens

d)

B. cepacia

52.

Decontamination strategies used for potable water and the control of E. meningoseptica are similar to those utilized for which organism?

a)

Legionella spp.

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Listeria monocytogenes

53.

For more serious infections caused by Acinetobacter spp., such as pneumonia or bacteremia, effective treatment may require the use of:

a)

repeated high-level doses of gentamycin.

b)

multiple rounds of penicillin or a similar antibiotic

c)

. a beta-lactam agent in combination with an aminoglycoside antibiotic.

d)

single-drug therapy in combination with a steroid.

54.

Gram-stain morphologic features, motility, and flagellar placement are important identifying characteristics of:

a)

Chryseobacterium.

b)

Bordetella

c)

Pseudomonas.

d)

Flavobacterium.

55.

Neonates and individuals who are immunocompromised are at risk for developing meningitis if they contract which organism?

a)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) group EO-3

b)

Elizabethkingia meningoseptica

c)

Myroides odoratus

d)

Sphingobacterium spp.

56.

Not including organisms in the Enterobacteriaceae family, the most common gram-negative bacilli encountered in clinical specimens are:

a)

. Vibrio.

b)

. Ralstonia

c)

Burkholderia

d)

Pseudomonas.

57.

Of the following species, which are widely distributed in nature and hospital environments?

a)

Bordetella trematum

b)

Pseudomonas luteola

c)

Acinetobacter spp

d)

.Pseudomonas oryzihabitans

58.

Oxidative–fermentative base–polymyxin B–bacitracin-lactose (OFPBL) media is the best media to use to isolate which one of the following organisms from the sputa of patients with cystic fibrosis?

a)

B. pseudomallei

b)

A. delafieldii

c)

R. pickettii

d)

B. cepacia

59.

C agar is a selective media for isolation of B. cepacia. What is the purpose of the polymixin B and ticarcillin in the media?

a)

.They stabilize the media to support growth if prolonged incubation is needed

b)

They provide nutrients to enrich the growth of B. cepacia.

c)

They inhibit growth of gram-positive and other gram-negative organisms.

d)

They cause color change in the media from yellow to pink

60.

Pertussis (whooping cough), an epidemic disease, is a highly contagious, acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by the _____species.

a)

Francisella

b)

Brucella

c)

Bordetella

d)

Pasteurella

61.

Production of exotoxin A and several proteolytic enzymes and hemolysins are factors that contribute to the pathogenicity of which organism?

a)

P. aeruginosa

b)

Burkholderia cepacia

c)

Ralstonia pickettii

d)

Burkholderia mallei

62.

Profuse watery diarrhea (i.e., "rice water stools"), leading to dramatic fluid loss, severe dehydration, and hypotension that frequently leads to death, is the hallmark of which toxin activity?

a)

Toxin A

b)

Cholera toxin (CT)

c)

Enteric endotoxin

d)

Shiga toxin

63.

Stool specimens suspected of containing which of the following enteric pathogens should be collected and transported only in Cary-Blair medium because buffered glycerol saline is toxic for this bacterium?

a)

Vibrio

b)

Salmonella

c)

Shigella

d)

Plesiomona

64.

The biochemical description of B. bronchiseptica is:

a)

nonmotile and both urea positive and phenylalanine deaminase positive.

b)

indole positive, nonmotile, and has a fruity odor.

c)

oxidase positive, motile, and rapid urease positive.

d)

resistant to vancomycin and will grow on MacConkey agar at 42°C

65.

The drug of choice to treat patients with V. cholerae is:

a)

tetracycline.

b)

ceftazidime.

c)

imipenem

d)

. aztreonam.

66.

the mode of transmission of Bordetella bronchiseptica can best be described as:

a)

. close contact with animals.

b)

person-to-person contact

c)

exposure to contaminated water.

d)

.inhalation of contaminated air

67.

The organism most frequently associated with various infections in humans is:

a)

. Roseomonas.

b)

Bordetella.

c)

Oligella

d)

Achromobacter.

68.

The primary habitat for Vibrio spp. is:

a)

the soil and water environment

b)

freshwater

c)

.the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.

d)

brackish or marine water

69.

The reagent used in the "string test" is:

a)

bile esculin.

b)

sodium deoxycholate

c)

bile solubility

d)

sodium deoxycholate

70.

The selective medium, thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS) agar, is especially formulated for isolating what pathogen from stool cultures?

a)

Plesiomonas

b)

Shigella

c)

Salmonella

d)

Vibrio

71.

The transmission of Vibrio spp. to humans is by:

a)

close contact with carriers of the organism.

b)

exposure of disrupted skin and mucosal surfaces to contaminated animal hides

c)

ingestion of contaminated seafood or water

d)

inhalation of contaminated air

72.

This organism is often associated with infections in patients with leukemia or lymphoma, as well as preterm infants:

a)

Bergevella zoohelicum

b)

S. multivorum

c)

C. indologenes

d)

E. meningoseptica

73.

Transmission of Aeromonas spp. to humans is by:

a)

exposure of disrupted skin and mucosal surfaces to contaminated animal hides..

b)

ingestion of contaminated seafood or water.

c)

close contact with carriers of the organism.

d)

inhalation of contaminated air

74.

Transmission of C. violaceum to humans is by:

a)

exposure of disrupted skin to contaminated water

b)

ingestion of contaminated seafood or water

c)

inhalation of contaminated air.

d)

close contact with carriers of the organism.

75.

Transmission of P. shigelloides to humans is by:

a)

inhalation of contaminated air.

b)

exposure of disrupted skin and mucosal surfaces to contaminated animal hides

c)

ingestion of contaminated seafood or water

d)

close contact with carriers of the organism.

76.

V. cholerae and Vibrio alginolyticus appear what color on TCBS agar?

a)

Green

b)

Black

c)

Yellow

d)

Blue

77.

Which best describes the source of B. cepacia infections?

a)

Rodents

b)

Rice paddies

c)

Medical devices

d)

Oropharynx of animals

78.

Which combination of nonfermenting gram-negative bacilli are oxidase positive, but do not grow on MacConkey agar within 24 to 48 hours.

a)

B. vesicularis and Acidovorax facilis

b)

B. cepacia and Pseudomonas stutzer

c)

iBrevundimonas dimunuta and Pseudomonas veronii

d)

P. aeruginosa and R. insidiosa

79.

Which of the following groups of bacteria have Clinical Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) guidelines that describe specific testing methods and interpretative standards for susceptibility reporting?

a)

facilis and Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

b)

B. cepacia and B. vesicularis

c)

P. aeruginosa and B. pseudomallei

d)

P. fluorescens and R. mannitolilytica

80.

Which of the following statements is true about susceptibility testing or treatment of P. aeruginosa?

a)

.Treatment with a single antimicrobial agent, such as -lactam with antipseudomonal activity, is recommended.

b)

Susceptibility testing is required to detect intrinsic resistance.

c)

Repeat susceptibility testing may be needed to monitor development of resistance.

d)

Susceptibility testing of isolates from cystic fibrosis patients following standard protocols gives reliable results

81.

Which organism appears green on TCBS agar and is halophilic?

a)

V. vulnificus

b)

V. cholerae

c)

V. harveyi

d)

Vibrio fluvialis

82.

Which organism exhibits bipolar staining on the Gram stain, which resembles a "safety-pin" appearance?

a)

B. vesicularis

b)

B. mallei

c)

B. pseudomallei

d)

B. diminuta

83.

Which organism is indole and gelatin positive but does not have the ability to oxidize mannitol?

a)

E. brevis

b)

E. meningoseptica

c)

S. multivorum

d)

CDC group O-1

84.

Which organism is often isolated in the sputum of patients with cystic fibrosis?

a)

S. maltophilia

b)

Acinetobacter spp

c)

. B. trematum

d)

Burkholderia gladioli

85.

Which organism may be mistaken for a lactose fermenter on MacConkey agar because of colonies exhibiting a purple hue on the media?

a)

Acinetobacter spp.

b)

P. luteola

c)

S. maltophilia

d)

Bordetella holmesii

86.

Which species of Burkholderia is the one most commonly found in clinical specimens?

a)

Burkholderia ralstonia

b)

B. cepacia

c)

B. mallei

d)

B. pseudomallei

87.

Which two organisms should be used for quality control purposes to determine the validity of the indole reagent

a)

Agrobacterium group and Sphingobacterium spiritivorum

b)

E. meningoseptica and Empedobacter brevis

c)

Chryseobacterium spp. and E. meningoseptica

d)

E. meningoseptica and Sphingobacterium multivorum

88.

Which two organisms should be used to determine the validity of the nitrate reduction test?

a)

CDC group OFBA-1c and Shewanella

b)

Ochrobactrum and Alcaligenes

c)

Psychrobacter and Rhizobium

d)

CDC group Ic and CDC group O-3

89.

Which two organisms should be used to determine the validity of urea agar for quality control purposes?

a)

B. vesicularis and R. pickettii

b)

P. fluorescens and B. cepacia complex

c)

Ralstonia mannitolilytica and Acidovorax delafieldii

d)

Brevundimonas diminuta and Brevundimonas vesicularis

90.

A febrile and pneumonic illness first named in 1976 by scientists at the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) who were investigating an epidemic of pneumonia among Pennsylvania State American Legion members attending a convention in Philadelphia is known as:

a)

Philadelphia pneumonia.

b)

rheumatic fever.

c)

tuberculosis.

d)

legionnaires' disease.

91.

A gram-negative, spiral-shaped organism is isolated from a stool sample that was hippurate-positive, catalase-positive, susceptible to nalidixic acid, and resistant to cephalothin. The organism can be identified as:

a)

C. fetus subsp. fetus.

b)

Campylobacter coli.

c)

C. jejuni subsp. doylei.

d)

C. jejuni subsp. jejuni.

92.

A lesion from an individual that works in a research laboratory is cultured and reveals a "fried egg" appearance with a dark center when grown on blood agar after 48 hours of incubation. The organism is nonmotile, indole, catalase, oxidase, and nitrate negative. Which of the following organism was isolated?

a)

Cardiobacterium sp.

b)

Streptobacillus sp.

c)

Actinobacillus sp.

d)

Aggregatibacter aphrophilus

93.

Acceptable specimens for the detection of B. pertussis are:

a)

anterior nose swabs

b)

throat swabs

c)

. sputum

d)

nasopharyngeal aspirates

94.

Although in vitro susceptibility testing is not reliable, which regimen of antibiotics is recommended for Brucella infections?

a)

Gentamycin and vancomycin

b)

Penicillin and azithromycin

c)

Ampicillin and gentamycin

d)

Doxycycline and rifampin

95.

An organism isolated from a sputum sample that has a "hockey puck" consistency would have which of the following biochemical profiles?

a)

Glucose-positive, maltose-positive, and lactose-positive

b)

Glucose-positive, maltose-positive, and lactose-negative

c)

Glucose-positive, maltose-negative, and lactose-negative

d)

Glucose-negative, maltose-negative, and lactose-negative

96.

Antimicrobial therapy for H. pylori infection consists of:

a)

clarithromycin, and metronidazole. azithromycin alone

b)

penicillin, gentamycin, and imipenem

c)

clindamycin, ceftriazone, and carbapenem

d)

A proton pump inhibitor,

97.

B. pertussis colonies growing on Regan-Lowe medium yields which of the following colonial morphologic appearances?

a)

Shiny black-pigmented colonies

b)

Star-shaped colonies

c)

Mercury-drop colonies

d)

Yellow-pigmented colonies

98.

Bacteremia, endocarditis, bacillary angiomatosis, cat-scratch disease, and peliosis hepatis can all be caused by:

a)

B. henselae.

b)

Afipia felis

c)

Bartonella quintana

d)

B. clarridgeiae

99.

Because of its longer shelf life, the medium of choice to cultivate Bordetella spp. is

a)

buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE).

b)

thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS) agar.

c)

Bordet-Gengou agar.

d)

Regan-Lowe agar.

100.

Campylobacter jejuni subsp. jejuni grows best at what conditions?

a)

42°C under anaerobic conditions

b)

37°C under microaerobic conditions

c)

37°C under anaerobic conditions

d)

42°C under microaerobic conditions

101.

Campylobacter spp. can sometimes be detected by direct Gram-stain examination of fecal sample, which would reveal many:

a)

.. plump, faintly staining gram-negative bacilli.

b)

large, faintly staining gram-negative bacilli.

c)

small curved or seagull-winged gram-negative bacilli

d)

small gram-negative coccobacilli

102.

Curved, microaerophilic, gram-negative rods, with most species having strong urease activity and the majority of which colonize mammalian stomachs or intestines, describe which group of bacteria

a)

Enterobacter

b)

Campylobacter

c)

Helicobacter

d)

Arcobacter

103.

During the catarrhal stage of pertussis, symptoms are:

a)

. lymphocytosis and fever.

b)

runny nose and mild cough

c)

severe and violent coughing

d)

vomiting and "whooping" as air is rapidly inspired into the lungs past a swollen glottis

104.

during the paroxysmal stage of pertussis, symptoms are:

a)

lymphadenitis.

b)

runny nose and mild cough

c)

severe and violent coughing

d)

neutrocytosis and fever

105.

Gonococci require which of the following nutrients for growth?

a)

IsoVitaleX

b)

Arginine

c)

Hypoxanthine

d)

Uracil

106.

Gram-negative diplococci are isolated from a genital specimen and yield the following results:• Glucose: positive • Maltose: negative • Lactose: negative The organism can be identified as:

a)

M. catarrhalis.

b)

N. gonorrhoeae

c)

.Neisseria meningitidis.

d)

Neisseria lactamica.

107.

Individuals considered at greatest risk for contracting brucellosis are:

a)

dairy farmers

b)

. fishermen

c)

prison guards

d)

.those working with exotic birds.

108.

M. catarrhalis can be described as a:

a)

. gram-negative bacillus.

b)

gram-positive diplococcus

c)

. gram-negative diplococcus

d)

.gram-negative coccobacillus

109.

MTM, Martin-Lewis (ML), and New York City (NYC) media were all developed for the selective isolation of which organism?

a)

N. mucosa

b)

M. catarrhalis

c)

Chlamydia trachomatis

d)

N. gonorrhoeae

110.

N. gonorrhoeae is spread by:

a)

person-to-person nosocomial spread by respiratory droplets..

b)

person-to-person spread by sexual contact

c)

from infected mother to newborn during birth

d)

. B and C only.

111.

Of the clinically significant Bartonella species, which is transmitted via a fleabite with the reservoir being rats?

a)

B. bacilliformis

b)

B. henselae

c)

B. elizabethae

d)

B. clarridgeiae

112.

Organisms belonging to the genus Brucella are:

a)

gram-positive diplococci.

b)

gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.

c)

gram-negative coccobacilli.

d)

gram-negative bacilli.

113.

Organisms belonging to the genus Legionella are:

a)

gram-positive diplococci.

b)

gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.

c)

gram-negative coccobacilli.

d)

faintly staining, thin gram-negative bacilli.

114.

Organisms belonging to the genus Neisseria are:

a)

gram-positive diplococci.i.

b)

gram-negative diplococci

c)

gram-negative coccobacilli.

d)

gram-negative bacilli.

115.

Pertussis (whooping cough) is an epidemic disease that is a highly contagious, acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by the:

a)

. Francisella spp

b)

Brucella spp

c)

. Bordetella spp.

d)

Pasteurella spp

116.

The JEMBEC transport system for Neisseria spp. provides an atmosphere with increased _________ to keep the organism viable during transport.

a)

nitrate (NO3)

b)

hydrogen (H2

c)

carbon dioxide (CO2)

d)

nitrogen (N2)

117.

The animal reservoir for Brucella melitensis is:

a)

cattle.

b)

sheep or goats.

c)

swine.

d)

dogs.

118.

bacterial species that can be described as oxidase-positive, glucose-positive, maltose-positive, sucrose-negative, lactose-negative, and a major cause of bacterial meningitis is:

a)

N. meningitidis.

b)

N. lactamica.

c)

Neisseria flavescens.

d)

N. gonorrhoeae.

119.

The differentiation of the similar M. catarrhalis and Neisseria can be best accomplished by:

a)

carbohydrate utilization testing.

b)

examination of Gram stain of the colony.

c)

vancomycin susceptibility testing

d)

. the oxidase test.

120.

he gram-negative coccus that can be described as oxidase-positive, glucose-negative, maltose-negative, sucrose-negative, lactose-negative, and DNase-positive is:

a)

N. meningitidis.


.

b)

M. catarrhalis.

c)

Neisseria cinerea.

d)

N. gonorrhoeae

121.

The majority of human infections with Campylobacter species are caused by:

a)

.direct contact with persons infected with the bacterium

b)

direct contact with carriers of the bacterium

c)

. contamination of food, milk, or water with animal feces.

d)

multiplication of the organism in food products

122.

The medium or media of choice used to recover Legionella is:

a)

. blood and chocolate agars.

b)

buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE)

c)

. Regan-Lowe agar

d)

. Löwenstein-Jensen medium

123.

The mode of transmission of B. pertussis can best be described as:

a)

person-to-person contact.

b)

exposure to contaminated water.

c)

inhalation of contaminated air.

d)

close contact with animals

124.

The natural habitat of L. pneumophila is:

a)

. foods contaminated by soil.

b)

freshwater streams

c)

the upper respiratory tract of humans and animals.

d)

.the large intestine of humans and animals

125.

The second most commonly reported sexually transmitted infection in the United States, according to the CDC, is:

a)

M. catarrhalis..

b)

N. gonorrhoeae

c)

. N. meningitidis

d)

HIV.

126.

The specimen of choice to collect in suspected cases of Francisella tularensis is:

a)

blood

b)

cerebrospinal fluid (CSF

c)

lymph nodes

d)

urine.

127.

To cultivate Francisella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with which of the following ingredient(s) is necessary?

a)

Dopa-cysteine

b)

Cysteine and cystine

c)

Blood and cysteine

d)

Nicotinic adenine

128.

To cultivate Legionella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s) is necessary?

a)

Nicotinic adenine

b)

L-cysteine and iron

c)

Blood and cysteine

d)

Dopa-cysteine

129.

Trench fever, bacteremia, endocarditis, chronic lymphadenopathy, and bacillary angiomatosis can be caused by

a)

. B. henselae.

b)

A. felis.

c)

B. quintana.

d)

B. clarridgeiae

130.

Tularemia, characterized by glandular, ulceroglandular, oculoglandular, oropharyngeal, systemic, and pneumonic presentations, is caused by which of the following species?

a)

Brucella

b)

Bordetella

c)

Pasteurella

d)

Francisella

131.

Which of the following cause rat-bite fever, or Haverhill fever, which is characterized by acute onset of chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and severe joint pains, as well as a rash on the palms, soles of the feet, and other extremities?

a)

Pasteurella spp.

b)

Streptobacillus moniliformis

c)

Brucella abortus

d)

Bordetella spp.

132.

Which of the following causes sodoku, which is characterized by swollen lymph nodes, chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains, a rash on the palms, soles of the feet, and other extremities, and a granulomatous lesion?

a)

Pasteurella spp.

b)

S. moniliformis

c)

S. minus

d)

Bordetella spp.

133.

Which organisms should be used to perform quality control on hippurate reagent?

a)

C. jejuni subsp. jejuni and Campylobacter coli

b)

C. coli and Campylobacter concisus

c)

Campylobacter curvus and Campylobacter hyointestinalis

d)

C. jejuni subsp. jejuni and C. jejuni subsp. doylei