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Software Engineering MCQ Test 3

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Resources refers to

a)

Manpower

b)

Machinery

c)

Materials

d)

All of the above

2.

Following are the phases of Project Management Life Cycle. Arrange them in correct order

Design, 2. Marketing, 3. Analysis and evaluation, 4. Inspection, testing and delivery

a)

3-2-1-4

b)

1-2-3-4

c)

2-3-1-4

d)

4-3-2-1

3.

Five dimensions that must be managed on a project

a)

Constraint, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff

b)

Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff

c)

Features, priority, Cost, Schedule, Staff

d)

Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, customer

4.

The project life cycle consists of

a)

Understanding the scope of the project

b)

Objectives of the project

c)

Formulation and planning various activities

d)

All of the above

5.

A ____ is a set of activities which are networked in an order and aimed towards achieving the goals of a project.

a)

Project

b)

Process

c)

Project management

d)

Project cycle

6.

What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects that are created during the software process?

a)

Change control

b)

Version control

c)

SCIs

d)

None of the mentioned

7.

Which of the following categories is part of the output of software process?

a)

computer programs

b)

documents that describe the computer programs

c)

data

d)

all of the mentioned

8.

Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

a)

Configuration item identification

b)

Risk management

c)

Release management

d)

Branch management

9.

Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change without seriously impeding justifiable change?

a)

Baselines

b)

Source code

c)

Data model

d)

None of the mentioned

10.

What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system versions that have been released for customer use?

a)

System building

b)

Release management

c)

change management

d)

Version management

11.

What describes the data and control to be processed?

a)

Planning process

b)

Software scope

c)

External hardware

d)

Project complexity

12.

Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software development?

a)

PERT

b)

CPM

c)

CMM

d)

Both PERT and CPM

13.

A project usually has a timeline chart which was developed by

a)

Henry Gantt

b)

Barry Boehm

c)

Ivar Jacabson

d)

None of the mentioned

14.

Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools?

a)

Predicting staffing levels

b)

Predicting software cost

c)

Predicting software schedules

d)

Predicting clients demands

15.

Software project estimation can never be an exact science, but a combination of good historical data and systematic techniques can improve estimation accuracy.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

What is the recommended distribution of effort for a project?

a)

40-20-40

b)

50-20-30

c)

30-40-30

d)

50-30-20

17.

A maturity model can be used as a benchmark for comparison and as an aid to understanding

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

depends

d)

can't say

18.

CMM stands for

a)

Capability Management Module

b)

Conservative Maturity Model

c)

Capability Maturity Module

d)

Capability Maturity Model

19.

Which of the following is not a project manager’s activity?

a)

project control

b)

project management

c)

project planning

d)

project design

20.

The ISO 9000 series of standards is a program that can be used for external quality assurance purposes.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Which of the following is not a maturity level in CMM?

a)

Design

b)

Repeatable

c)

Managed

d)

Optimizing

22.

In CMM, the life cycle activities of requirements analysis, design, code, and test are described in

a)

Software Product Engineering

b)

Software Quality Assurance

c)

Software Subcontract Management

d)

Software Quality Management

23.

A software ________ provides the framework from which a comprehensive plan for software development can be established.

a)

people

b)

product

c)

process

d)

none of the mentioned

24.

A process that involves continuously improving and detailing a plan as more detail become available is termed as

a)

project analysis

b)

project enhancing

c)

progressive deliberation

d)

progressive elaboration

25.

Projects management is divided in _____ process groups.

a)

5

b)

7

c)

9

d)

11

26.

Which of the following is the BEST approach for estimation?

a)

Expert opinion

b)

Analogy

c)

Disaggregation

d)

A combination of all of the above

27.

Involving the team in Planning and Estimating and providing early feedback on Delivery Velocity is BEST used to mitigate what kind of risk?

a)

Schedule flaws

b)

Requirements creep

c)

Employee turnover

d)

Poor productivity

28.

A person who makes decision and practices Scrum to the core is performing what role?

a)

Pig

b)

Chicken

c)

Scrum Master

d)

Scrum Team

29.

What does “Timeboxed” means in Agile terms?

a)

Fast

b)

Flexible

c)

Frequent

d)

Fixed

30.

According to Agile manifesto what carries more value?

a)

Individuals and interactions over processes and tools.

b)

Individuals and interactions over people and technique.

c)

Individuals and interactions over projects and tools.

d)

Individuals and interactions over products and tools.

31.

Who can be the best user proxy?

a)

ScrumMaster

b)

Customers

c)

Agile coach

d)

Developer

32.

What is NOT an Agile methodology?

a)

Extreme programming (XP)

b)

Scrum

c)

Crystal Clear

d)

PMBOK® 3

33.

Iterative development is NOT a good idea for?

a)

Back end development

b)

Front end development

c)

Middleware development

d)

Software development

34.

Which Agile methodology advocates the use of problem domain?

a)

Extreme programming (XP)

b)

Feature-Driven Development (FDD.

c)

Scrum

d)

Evo

35.

The advantages of the Iterative Model is

a)

Early revenue generation

b)

Simpler to manage

c)

Divided workload

d)

Early feedback

e)

all of the above

36.

Each iteration in the incremental model passes through the

a)

communication and modeling phases

b)

planning and construction phases

c)

deployment and maintenance phases

d)

all phases

37.

You are a coach facilitating retrospective meeting. What is the main purpose of this meeting that facilitator need to ensure during the meeting?

a)

Peer pressure, Fine-grain coordination, Focusing on the few, Daily commitment and Raising impediments.

b)

Know the work, Get a fresh start, Commit to shared goals and Create focus and abundance.

c)

True-up, Show and tell, Get direct feedback, Offer insights and Ask for help.

d)

Inspect and adapt. Look back at how, not what Do (even) better next time.

38.

What is the full form of SDLC

a)

System Design Life cycle

b)

Software Design Life Cycle

c)

System Development Life Cycle

d)

Software Development Life Cycle

39.

Which activity is carried out first.

a)

verification

b)

validation

c)

both

d)

none

40.

What is the advantage of the recursive approach than an iterative approach

a)

Consumes less memory

b)

Less code and easy to implement

c)

Consumes more memory

d)

More code has to be written

41.

Who is responsible for prioritizing the product backlog?

a)

Product Owner

b)

Project Manager

c)

Lead Developer

d)

Tester

42.

Which of the following is a characteristic of an Agile leader?

a)

Disinterested

b)

Task focused

c)

Process oriented

d)

Supportive

43.

PSP activity isolates requirements and size and resource estimates are the part of?

a)

planning

b)

high-level design

c)

high-level design review

d)

development

44.

In TSP, the sequence of tasks i.e scripts enables the team to establish a solid basis for starting a project in framework activity

a)

launch

b)

high-level design

c)

implementation

d)

postmortem

45.

Why is it important to trust the team?

a)

High trust teams do not have to be accountable to each other

b)

High trust teams do not require a user representative

c)

The Project Manager does not have to keep a project schedule

d)

The presence of trust is positively correlated with the team performance

46.

If a timebox (iteration) plan needs to be reprioritised in a hurry, who should re-prioritise?

a)

The developers alone (they know what the customer wants by now)

b)

The customer alone (the developers would only choose the easy things as top priority)

c)

The Project Leader (they can give an independent, pragmatic view)

d)

The whole team including customer and developers (together they can consider both business value and practicality)

47.

When handling team dynamics, the Agile Leader should

a)

Work to build trust between the team members

b)

Encourage an environment of competition and personal advantage

c)

Stand for no nonsense and show who is the boss

d)

Expect team members to sort out all of their own problems, and not come to the Project Leader for help with anything

48.

During an Iteration (Sprint) the developers should be:

a)

Able to contact the customer to clarify aspects of the work

b)

Completely uninterrupted by the customer

c)

In twice-daily contact with the customer

d)

Able to work without needing to disturb the customer

49.

Which of the following is delivered at the end of the Sprint?

a)

A document containing test cases for the current sprint

b)

An architectural design of the solution

c)

An increment of Done software

d)

Wireframes designs for User Interface

50.

When can a Sprint be canceled?

a)

The Sprint items are no longer needed

b)

Sprint can never be canceled

c)

When Development is unable to complete the work

d)

Information required to start the development is not available

e)

Whenever the Product Owner says