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BEG Megaquiz

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 2hrs 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the name of the element with an atomic number of 3?

a)

Lithium

b)

Magnesium

c)

Sodium

d)

Potassium

2.

The atomic mass of an element tells you

a)

The number of protons and neutrons

b)

The number of protons and electrons

c)

The number of neutrons and electrons

d)

The number of neutrons only

3.

The electronic configuration of a magnesium ATOM is

a)

2, 8

b)

2, 8, 3

c)

2, 6

d)

2, 8, 2

4.

The electron configuration of a magnesium ION is

a)

2, 8, 6

b)

2, 8, 8

c)

2, 8, 2

d)

2, 8

5.

Phosphorus does the following in a chemical reaction

a)

LOSES 3 electrons to become an ANION

b)

LOSES 3 electrons to become a CATION

c)

GAINS 3 electrons to become a CATION

d)

GAINS 3 electrons to become an ANION

6.

When hydrogen and sulfur react together, they undergo which type of bonding?

a)

Metallic

b)

Ionic

c)

Teronic

d)

Covalent

7.

Which statement best describes the following species: Al3+

a)

This is an aluminium cation. It has lost 3 electrons

b)

This is an aluminium cation. It has gained 3 electrons

c)

This is an aluminium anion. It has lost 3 electrons

d)

This is an aluminium anion. It has gained 3 electrons

8.

Write the formula for calcium chloride

a)

CaCl

b)

Ca2Cl

c)

CaCl2

d)

Ca3Cl2

9.

Which of the following statements regarding halogens is true?

a)

Halogens are from group 6. They lose 2 electrons in a chemical reaction

b)

Halogens are from group 7. They gain 1 electron in a chemical reaction.

c)

Halogens are from group 6. They gain 2 electrons in a chemical reaction.

d)

Halogens are from group 7. They lose 1 electron in a chemical reaction.

10.

The following structure can be described as...

a)

An element as it only has 1 type of atom present. It has covalent bonding.

b)

A compound as it has more than 1 type of atom present. It has covalent bonding.

c)

An element as it has more than 1 type of atom present. It has metallic bonding.

d)

An element because it has more than 1 type of atom present. It has covalent bonding.

11.
A 2.5 kg ball moving at 5 m/s collides with a 2.5 kg stationary ball in a perfectly elastic collision.  What is the velocity of the second ball after the collision? 
a)
5 m/s
b)
2.5 m/s
c)
10 m/s
d)
7.5 m/s
12.
A seesaw is unbalanced with two people of different masses sitting equal distances from the center. Which of the following will result in equilibrium?
a)
The larger person moving further away from the center.
b)
Moving the smaller person closer to the center.
c)
Moving the smaller person further from the center.
d)
Making the larger person do nothing.
13.
Which section of the graph shows constant velocity?
a)
AB
b)
BC
c)
EF
d)
GH
14.
Which graph represents the greatest acceleration?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
15.

Mark slams on the brakes after traveling 25 m/s. It takes him 3 seconds to come to a complete stop. What is his acceleration?

a)

8.33 m/s2

b)

-8.33 m/s2

c)

75 m/s2

d)

-75 m/s2

16.
In the distance vs. time graph, what type of motion does the line represent?
a)
Acceleration
b)
No motion
c)
Deceleration
d)
Constant Velocity
17.
At 60 seconds, how far had this object traveled? 
a)
0 m
b)
10 m
c)
20 m
d)
40 m
18.

Fill in the blank: "Distance is _________?"

a)

A vector quantity

b)

Time divided by total displacement

c)

Average speed of a trip multiplied by time

d)

All of the above

19.

Which statement is definitely true about the graph showing a student's movement?

a)

The student does not stop moving at all

b)

During the 20 second duration the person is stationary for a total of 5 seconds

c)

The student is furthest away from her starting position after 19 seconds

d)

The student's greatest speed is between the 12 and 14 second mark

e)

The student ends up 17 metres away from their starting position

20.

How can an object's instantaneous acceleration be obtained using an "Velocity vs Time" graph?

a)

Finding the area under the graph at that instant in time

b)

Calculating the gradient of the graph at that instant in time

c)

Calculating the area under the entire curve

d)

There is no way to obtain this information

21.
Alfred Wegner had evidence that continents might have been together, but could not prove:
a)
How the continents moved
b)
How fast the continents moved
c)
How the continents formed
d)
How many tectonic plates existed
22.
Which of the following is NOT one of the pieces of evidence Alfred Wegner used to support this theory of continental drift:
a)
Land masses fit together like puzzle pieces
b)
Mountain range similarities 
c)
Fossil similarities
d)
Magnetic reversals found in the rock on the ocean floor
23.
How does density play a role in Alfred's continental drift theory?
a)
Less dense plates subduct under more dense plates
b)
More dense plates create divergent plate boundaries
c)
Less dense plates cause transform plate boundaries
d)
More dense plates subduct under less dense plates
24.
New crust is created at a ____, which is around at a ___ plate boundary. 
a)
Rift Valley / Divergent
b)
Divergent Plate Boundary / Convergent
c)
Trench / Convergent
d)
Rift Valley / Transform
25.
Molecules that contain iron in liquid magma, before it cools, will:
a)
Be more dense as a liquid
b)
Alight, or point, to the current S pole position
c)
Align, or point, to the current N pole position
d)
Cool faster near the cool ocean water
26.
Which is NOT a type of plate boundary?
a)
Transform
b)
Divergent
c)
Convergent
d)
Insurgent
27.
Which type of plate boundary formed the current tallest mountain range on Earth?
a)
Convergent
b)
Divergent
c)
Transform
d)
Insurgent
28.
The crust of Earth is a part of which layer?
a)
Lithosphere
b)
Asthenosphere
c)
Mantle
d)
Core
29.
The motion of plates or pieces of Earth's surface is driven by:
a)
heat from sunlight
b)
heat from the core of Earth
c)
the orbit of the Moon
30.
The same fossils in the same type of rock but are separated by 3000 miles of ocean is explained by a:
a)
convergent plate boundary
b)
divergent plate boundary
c)
transform plate boundary
d)
insurgent plate boundary
31.

A strand of DNA tightly coiled up into a short, thicker structure.

a)

Chromosome

b)

Organelle

c)

Allele

d)

Gene

32.

Cells that have membrane bound organelles, such as a nucleus.

a)

Chromosome

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

Karyotype

d)

Gene

33.

Different versions of a gene. One is inherited from each parent.

a)

Chromosome

b)

Allele

c)

Organelle

d)

Gene

34.

Chromosomes that do not determine the sex of an organism.

a)

Chromosomes

b)

Sex Chromosomes

c)

Autosomes

d)

Genes

35.

The combination of two alleles that has been inherited for a trait. Usually shown using two letters. E.g. BB or Bb

a)

Genotype

b)

Sex Chromosomes

c)

Karyotype

d)

Phenotype

36.

A characteristics or trait that will show (expressed) as long as one allele has been inherited from a parent.

a)

Mutation

b)

Dominant

c)

Recessive

d)

Phenotype

37.

A characteristics or trait that can only show (expressed) when two alleles have been inherited.

a)

Mutation

b)

Dominant

c)

Recessive

d)

Genotype

38.
Who is considered the "father of genetics"?
a)
Gregor Mendel
b)
Reginald Punnett
c)
James Watson
d)
Justin Bieber
39.
How many alleles (letters) do each person carry for a trait?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
40.
How many girls in this family express this recessive disorder?
a)
4
b)
5
c)
6
d)
7
41.
Individuals that are well adapted to their environment will survive and produce:
a)
Fewer mutations
b)
Stronger genes
c)
More offspring
d)
Better traits
42.
You look at two species and see very similar DNA. What does this likely tell you?
a)
These are the same animal.
b)
These animals have a common ancestor.
c)
These animals are not likely related.
d)
These animals are likely becoming one species.
43.
What was the name of the ship Darwin traveled the world on?
a)
HMS Beagle
b)
SS Beagle
c)
HMS Bugle
d)
SS Bugle
44.
In a particular population, sexual reproduction can produce
a)
many different phenotypes.
b)
meiosis.
c)
mutations.
45.
If a rabbit species lives in an extremely cold environment with their main predator hunting at night and by sound, which mutation would be most favorable to the rabbit?
a)
camouflage fur
b)
a dense undercoat of fur underneath
c)
bigger ears
d)
being more visibly active at night
46.
Which statement is true about evolution?
a)
Individual organisms can evolve during a single lifespan.
b)
Darwin and Wallace both came up with the idea that species can transform into different species over time
c)
Humans evolved from chimpanzees
d)
Only the strongest survive
47.

According to natural selection, light colored tree trunks would favor

a)

light colored moths

b)

dark colored moths

c)

red colored moths

d)

red and light colored moths

48.

Which of the following is NOT part of the that mechanisms of natural selection?

a)

Organisms produce more offspring than can survive.

b)

Disease and natural disaster will limit population growth.

c)

Species today descended with modifications from ancestral species.

d)

Organisms with advantages will survive and reproduce.

49.
You look at two species and see very similar DNA. What does this likely tell you?
a)
These are the same animal.
b)
These animals have a common ancestor.
c)
These animals are not likely related.
d)
These animals are likely becoming one species.
50.
What does sexual reproduction allow for?
a)
Increased genetic diversity
b)
Increased offspring
c)
Decreased genetic diversity
d)
Decreased rate of evolution
51.

Most scientists believe the Big Bang Theory explains which of the following questions?

a)

How our planets and moons formed

b)

How our universe began

c)

How the sun turns hydrogen into helium

d)

How fast light travels through space

52.

Which statement is true?

a)

The galaxies are moving toward us.

b)

The galaxies are moving away from us.

c)

The universe remains static or unchanged in motion.

d)

None of the above

53.

As galaxies move away from our galaxy

a shift on the electromagnetic spectrum

(EMS) is noticed. This phenomena is

called _____________.

a)

redshift

b)

blueshift

c)

unshift

d)

blackshift

54.
The universe is expanding!  This means that:
a)
all of the galaxies are spreading out.
b)
the universe must have started from a single point.
c)
the universe is cooling down.
d)
all of the above.
55.

A _____________ is a system of billions of stars and all of the planets that orbit around them.

a)

Solar System

b)

Galaxy

c)

Universe

d)

Planet

56.
What is the name of the explosion at the death of a massive star?
a)
Supergiant
b)
Supernova
c)
Black Hole
d)
Nebula
57.
Most stars are made of which elements?
a)
Hydrogen only
b)
Hydrogen and Lithium
c)
Hydrogen and Sodium
d)
Hydrogen and Helium
58.
Which of the following list the correct order of the life cycle of massive stars?
a)
Nebula --> protostar --> main sequence --> red supergiant --> supernova --> blackhole
b)
Nebula --> protostar --> main sequence --> red giant --> planetary nebula --> white dwarf --> black dwarf
c)
Nebula --> protostar --> main sequence --> supernova --> red giant --> blackhole
d)
Nebula --> protostar --> blackhole --> red supergiant --> supernova --> main sequence
59.
The final stage of a low mass star is a 
a)
neutron star
b)
nebula
c)
black hole
d)
black dwarf
60.
A high mass star can end as this stage, which is so dense that not even light can escape!
a)
black dwarf
b)
white dwarf
c)
supernova
d)
black hole
61.

What colour was Mr Mancini's shirt and tie on Tuesday

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

White

62.

Mr Egerton has a tie with Elephants on it. what colour is the tie?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Grey

63.

Which person(s) have "earned" the title of professor in Year 10?

a)

Hatch

b)

F. Williams

c)

O'Toole

d)

Hatch and O'Toole

64.

Who has correctly answered the most cryptic clues this year in Year 10?

a)

S. Fonua

b)

W. King

c)

W. Sun

d)

S. Jackson

65.

Who is most likely to have asked the question: "Is a dog an animal?"

a)

AJ

b)

P. Mckenzie

c)

B. Hazell

d)

F. Jones

66.

Mr. Egerton wears the same pair of boots every day? What brand are they?

a)

RM Williams

b)

Caterpillar

c)

Blue Heeler

d)

Blundstone

67.

Which is newtons first law states

a)

An object at rest will remain at rest unless a force is applied

b)

An object is moving

c)

An object has stopped

d)

An moving object will keep going when a force is applied to it

68.

Which is newtons 3rd law

a)

for every thing there is reaction

b)

for every reaction there is a unusual action

c)

For every reaction there is an equal and opposite reaction

d)

for every reaction there is an good action

69.

Which type of force(s) will cause a change in an object's motion?

a)

gravity

b)

balanced forces

c)

unbalanced force

d)

net force

70.

The tendency of objects to resist a change in motion is called:

a)

Friction

b)

Inertia

c)

Gravity

d)

Velocity

71.

What force is acting on the cat at the end?

a)

Gravity

b)

Friction

c)

Momentum

72.

What is a balanced force

a)

A force that acts equal to each other

b)

Causes no change in motion.

73.
A 20 kg bike accelerates at 10 m/s2.  what was the force
a)
25 Newtons
b)
20 Newtons
c)
200 Newtons
d)
10 Newtons
74.
A net force of 15 N is exerted on an encyclopedia to cause it to accelerate at a rate of 5 m/s2. Determine the mass of the encyclopedia?
a)
 m = 3.0 kg
b)
m = 4.0 kg 
c)
m = 3.0 ml 
d)
m = 30.0 g
75.
The force that opposes motion between two surfaces in contact with each other.
a)
inertia
b)
friction
c)
momentum
d)
gravity
76.

What does Mr Egerton like about Charles Darwin?

a)

His magnificent flowing beard.

b)

His striking high forehead

c)

His extraordinary intellect

d)

All of the above

77.

Alfred Wallace has a geographical feature named after him...the Wallace line between

a)

Sumatra and Java

b)

New Guinea and Australia

c)

Malaysia and Borneo

d)

Borneo and Sulawesi

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