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SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the responsibility of project manager?

a)

Task associated with quality management.

b)

Assessment of project progress.

c)

Tracking the quality of all intermediate artifacts

d)

All the above

2.

_____carrying out the remedial actions that have been decided upon

a)

Implementation

b)

Modelling

c)

Information

d)

Data

3.

The return on investment (ROI) is also known as ______

a)

accounting rate of return(ARR).

b)

Net present value(NRV).

c)

Internal rate of return(IRR).

d)

payback period

4.

Difference between total cost and total income is _____

a)

Net profit

b)

Pay back period

c)

risk evaluation

d)

NPV.

5.

Which technique used to measure PPM?

a)

Steering committee

b)

Project board

c)

IRR

d)

Heuristic model

6.

How many are there in step-wise project planning?

a)

8

b)

6

c)

10

d)

5

7.

What is the correct formula for ROI?

a)

ROI=average annual profit/total investment*100.

b)

ROI=total investment*100

c)

ROI=average annual profit*100.

d)

ROI=average annual profit/total investment

8.

What are the essential features of portfolio management tools?

a)

Resource need to be planned.

b)

progress reports from time to time.

c)

user satisfaction with software products

d)

sets the project scope

9.

Which one of the following is a cost-benefits evaluation techniques?

a)

Internal rate of return

b)

project cash flow

c)

Delivery planning

d)

cash-benefit analysis

10.

First is a(n) ______ project resulting in recommendations

a)

outsourced

b)

creation of project

c)

Object-driven

11.

In software objects, can exhibit remarkable 'organizational stupidity'

a)

Yes

b)

No

12.

What is a project?

a)

Specific plan or design

b)

Specific requirements or architecture

c)

Specific functions or planned undertaking

13.

PMBOK stands for

a)

A guide to the project Management Body of knowledge

b)

A guide to the project Management Based on Knowledge

c)

A guide to the process Management Based on Knowledge

14.

Many organizations assert that using project management provides advantages, such as ____.

a)

lower profit margins

b)

lower costs

c)

less internal coordination

d)

lower worker morale

15.

____is the discount rate that would produce an NPV of 0 for the project.

a)

NPV

b)

IRR

c)

payback period

d)

net profit

16.

Many organization are now using enterprise or project _____ management software to help manage projects.

a)

path

b)

portfolio

c)

institute

d)

office

17.

Achieving high performance on projects requires ____, otherwise called human relations skills.

a)

capital skills

b)

soft skills

c)

light skills

d)

hard skills

18.

Which of the following serves as metrics for project size estimation?

a)

lines of code

b)

function point

c)

number of persons

d)

only (1) and (2)

19.

Which of the following statement is not true regarding project portfolio management?

a)

project portfolio management applies to any type of organization

b)

once an organization establishes a portfolio management process, it cannot be changed

c)

a successful project portfolio management process requires the support of a strong leader in the organization.

d)

project portfolio management helps prioritize the projects that are performed in an organization

20.

Different activity of a project management is

a)

project planning

b)

project monitoring

c)

project control

d)

all of the above

21.

Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering Process Model.

1)Test 2)Design 3)Install 4)Specification

5)Manufacture

6)Maintain

a)

4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6

b)

2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6

c)

4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3

d)

2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3

22.

RAD Model has

a)

2 phases

b)

3 phases

c)

5 phases

d)

6 phases

23.

Which one of the following is not an Evolutionary Process Model?

a)

WINWIN Spiral Model

b)

Incremental Model

c)

Concurrent Development Model

d)

All of the mentioned

24.

Which of the following are recognized process flow types?

a)

Concurrent process flow

b)

Iterative process flow

c)

Linear process flow

d)

Both b and c

25.

Which one of the following is not an agile method?

a)

XP

b)

4GT

c)

AUP

d)

All of the mentioned

26.

Agile methods seem to work best when team members have a relatively high skill level

a)

True

b)

False

27.

How many phases are there in Scrum?

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

Four

d)

Scrum is an agile method which means it does not have phases

28.

In agile development it is more important to build software that meets the customers’ needs today than worry about features that might be needed in the future.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

User requirements are expressed as __________ in Extreme Programming.

a)

implementation tasks

b)

functionalities

c)

scenarios

d)

none of the mentioned

30.

Which of the following traits need to exist among the members of an agile software team?

a)

Competence

b)

Decision-making ability

c)

Mutual trust and respect

d)

All of the above

31.

Which is the most important feature of spiral model?

a)

Quality management

b)

Risk management

c)

Performance management

d)

Efficiency management

32.

Which model is also known as Verification and validation model?

a)

Waterfall model

b)

Big Bang model

c)

V-model

d)

Spiral model

33.

Which of the following is/are Project Estimation Technique?

a)

Empirical Estimation Technique.

b)

Heuristic Estimation Technique.

c)

Analytical Estimation Technique

d)

All of the above.

34.

What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?

a)

Function-related metrics

b)

Product-related metrics

c)

Size-related metrics

d)

None of the mentioned

35.

Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain have been completed?

a)

Algorithmic cost modelling

b)

Expert judgement

c)

Estimation by analogy

d)

Parkinson’s Law

36.

The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to software development, reuse, etc.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Which version of COCOMO states that once requirements have been stabilized, basic software architecture has been established?

a)

Early design stage model

b)

Post-architecture-stage model

c)

Application composition model

d)

All the above

38.

Staffing level estimation pattern is greatly influenced by

a)

Norden’s work

b)

Putnam’s work

c)

Both

d)

None of the above

39.

Which one is not a size measure for software product?

a)

LOC

b)

Halstead’s program length

c)

Function Count

d)

Cyclomatic Complexity

40.

Which of the following is not a stage of COCOMO-II?

a)

Early design stage model

b)

Post-architecture-stage model

c)

Application composition model

d)

All of the mentioned

41.

Networks usually indicate activity precedence constructed from

a)

left to right

b)

Right to left

c)

Bottom to up

d)

Up to bottom

42.

An activity that can be conducted at a normal pace or at an expedited pace, known as

a)

Delinking

b)

Coupling

c)

Crashing

d)

Event

43.

Which of the following is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the planned project duration by allocating the effort to specific software engineering tasks?

a)

Software Macroscopic schedule

b)

Software Project scheduling

c)

Software Detailed schedule

d)

None of the mentioned

44.

What is a collection of software engineering work tasks, milestones, and deliverables that must be accomplished to complete a particular project?

a)

Task set

b)

Degree of milestone

c)

Adaptation criteria

d)

All of the mentioned

45.

What is used to determine the recommended degree of rigor with which the software process should be applied on a project?

a)

Degree of Rigor

b)

Adaptation criteria

c)

Task Set

d)

Both degree of Rigor and adaptation criteria

46.

Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software development?

a)

PERT

b)

CPM

c)

CMM

d)

Both PERT and CPM

47.

What is the recommended distribution of effort for a project?

a)

40-20-40

b)

50-20-30

c)

30-40-30

d)

50-30-20

48.

PERT analysis is based on

a)

Optimistic time

b)

Pessimistic time

c)

Most likely time

d)

All the above.

49.

Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earliest finish times for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then the earliest start time for Y will be

a)

10

b)

15

c)

12

d)

Cannot be determined

50.

PERT combines three estimates of time and obtains a single expected duration is ____________.

a)

te

b)

tp

c)

tm

d)

ts

51.

The________ value in PERT is calculated for each node that has a target date.

a)

X value

b)

Z value

c)

Y value

d)

T value

52.

The difference between the maximum time available and the actual time needed to perform an activity is known as _________

a)

Free float

b)

Independent float

c)

Total float

d)

Half float

53.

difference between total float and free float

a)

interfering float

b)

free float

c)

total float

d)

slack

54.

In a network, a critical path is the time-wise shortest path.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced?

a)

Known risks

b)

Business risks

c)

Project risks

d)

Technical risks

56.

_________ are used to represent activity in a network diagram

a)

Circles

b)

Squares

c)

Rectangles

d)

Arrows

57.

Dummy activities has ______ duration

a)

Zero

b)

One

c)

Five

d)

Two

58.

_________ is proportional to the difference between the optimistic and pessimistic estimates.

a)

Activity Regression

b)

Activity mean

c)

Activity Standard Deviation

d)

Activity Variance

59.

While scheduling a project by CPM

a)

A project is divided into various activities

b)

Required time for each activity is established

c)

A sequence of various activities is made according to their importance

d)

All the above

60.

Activities P, Q and R instantly follow activity M, and their current start times are 12, 19, and 10. Therefore, the latest finish time for activity M is

a)

11

b)

10

c)

18

d)

Cannot be determined

61.

Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

A 66.6% risk is considered as

a)

very low

b)

low

c)

moderate

d)

high

63.

Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

a)

team

b)

project

c)

customers

d)

project manager

64.

An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured and the external quality attribute.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Earned value analysis is an example of:

a)

Performance reporting

b)

Planning control

c)

Ishikawa diagrams

d)

Integrating the project components into a whole

66.

In project management the ____ number of types of contract in management.

a)

3

b)

5

c)

7

d)

10

67.

Project termission reviews are important for

a)

success

b)

failure

c)

permanently abondaned project

d)

all the above

68.

Visualizing progress is view in two ways

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Project tracking can be done by _____

a)

earned value analysis

b)

monitoring control

c)

cost monitoring

d)

none of the above

70.

Change control procedure involves______ steps

a)

2

b)

3

c)

5

d)

9

71.

The principle of configuration management process involves

a)

configuration identification

b)

configuration control

c)

both A and B

d)

none of the above

72.

Typical controllable work product involves the

a)

test cases

b)

controlled projects

c)

source design

d)

design report

73.

_____ is a exchange of promises between two or more parties.

a)

contract

b)

ideal

c)

property

d)

context

74.

How many stages involved in contract placement

a)

4

b)

3

c)

2

d)

7

75.

It is essential to set a series of check points in the initial activity plan

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Methods of visualizing progress

a)

gantt chart

b)

slip chart

c)

timeline

d)

all the above

77.

Methods of assigning earned value

a)

0/100 technique

b)

50/50 technique

c)

75/50 technique

d)

both A and B

78.

What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

a)

Version Control

b)

Access control

c)

CM Process

d)

Version Control and Access control

79.

SCM controls only the products of the development process

a)

True

b)

False

80.

How are baselines verified?

a)

By reviews

b)

By inspections

c)

By testing of code

d)

All of the mentioned

81.

Which of the following is the main concern for managing people?

a)

Staff selection

b)

Staff development

c)

Staff motivation

d)

All the above

82.

In Staffing, the interpretivist approach looks for common patterns across consumption situations.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

In Theory X, there is a need for _________.

a)

Coercion

b)

Direction

c)

Control

d)

All the above

84.

In recruitment process, assessing experience rather than actual skill is more important

a)

True

b)

False

85.

Taylorist-model is about ______.

a)

Job specification

b)

Job satisfaction

c)

Financial incentives

d)

Decision making

86.

In Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, physiological means _______.

a)

Status, recognition

b)

Good employment or good working condition

c)

Long-term employment

d)

Well-employer, compatible workgroup

87.

Herzberg suggested _______ factors that affected job satisfaction

a)

Maintenance

b)

Hygiene

c)

Motivation

d)

All the above

88.

In the Oldham-Hackman Job Characteristics model, job satisfaction is based on ____ factors.

a)

3

b)

5

c)

2

d)

6

89.

Some methods for improving motivation are _______.

a)

Set specific goals

b)

Provide feedback

c)

Assign specific tasks

d)

Both A and B

90.

_________ nature of project work will have an influence on nearly all stages of the Step Wise project planning frame work

a)

Cooperative

b)

Healthy

c)

Safety

d)

None of the above

91.

Categories of group task are

a)

Additive task

b)

Conjunctive task

c)

Disjunctive task

d)

All the above

92.

Counter-measures for social loafing are

a)

Make individual contributions identifiable

b)

Don’t involve group

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

93.

Concepts for promoting software development environment are

a)

Ego programming

b)

Chief programmer team

c)

Extreme programming

d)

Both B and C

94.

Which of the following are ways of department structure?

a)

Chief programmer

b)

Functional

c)

Matrix

d)

Both B and C

95.

Team Structure denotes which of the following?

a)

Experience

b)

Responsibility

c)

Cooperation

d)

Support

96.

___________ is designed as chief programmer

a)

Experienced member

b)

Senior member

c)

Manager

d)

None of the above

97.

Democratic team encourages ________.

a)

Extreme programming

b)

Egoless programming

c)

Scrum

d)

Chief programming

98.

Which of the following are coordination dependencies?

a)

Shared resources

b)

Producer-customer (‘right time’) relationship

c)

Task-subtask dependencies

d)

All the above

99.

A major influence on the nature of communication genre is the constraints of _______.

a)

Space

b)

Time

c)

Both a and b

d)

None of the above

100.

supporting, motivation and task direction for specific direction and close supervision is _________.

a)

High, low, high

b)

High, high, low

c)

Low, low, high

d)

Low, high, low