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Immunology in Health and Disease Revision

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the BEST example of herd immunity?

a)

A child infected with measles travels from Germany to the United States. Several babies contract the disease, but the outbreak is largely contained due to vaccinations.

b)

Certain populations of cattle are less susceptible to infection with encephalitis because of their genetic makeup.

c)

Once a certain threshold of individuals has been infected with a novel human pathogen, it is unlikely that any more will be.

d)

Geese and chickens are infected with different strains of influenza because they express different receptors on their cell surface.

e)

When infection spreads through a population, certain individuals generate stronger immune responses than others.

2.

What happens to a pathogen as it becomes attenuated?

a)

It becomes more dangerous to the host.

b)

It gets smaller.

c)

It has weakened virulence.

d)

It becomes older.

e)

All of the answers are correct.

3.

Examine Figure 1-8. Which cells are MOST likely responsible for the intense response to Antigen A following a second exposure?

a)

B cells

b)

T cells

c)

Memory B cells

d)

Memory T cells

e)

Both memory T cells and memory B cells

4.

Effectors of the humoral immune system include

a)

antibodies

b)

immunoglobulin

c)

complement

d)

B cells

e)

all of the above

5.

Which of the following factors has been shown as potentially impacting immune homeostasis in favor of inflammation?

a)

Diet

b)

Stress

c)

Microbiome

d)

all of these

e)

none of these

6.

Virally infected host cells are tagged with antigen-antibody complexes. These complexes recruit NK cells that trigger apoptosis in the infected host cell. This is an example of

a)

antigen presentation

b)

antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity.

c)

complement fixation

d)

neutralisation

e)

opsonisation

7.

Peyer's patches and isolated lymphoid follicles are components of

a)

Mucus

b)

GALT

c)

germinal centre

d)

payers patch

e)

BALT

8.

which of the following is a tolerogenic cytokine

a)

TGF-b

b)

IL-10

c)

IL-17

d)

TGF-b and IL-10

e)

TGF-b and IL-17

9.

Most of the immune cells in the gut can be found in

a)

Mucosa

b)

submucosa

c)

lamina propria

d)

villi

e)

crypts

10.

Retinoic acid is

a)

a metabolite of vitamin A

b)

used to kill pathogens in the gut

c)

released to produce a tolerogenic response

d)

both a metabolite of vitamin A and used to kill pathogens

e)

both a metabolite of vitamin A and used to produce a tolerogenic response

11.

Why is peripheral tolerance critical to barrier immunity?

a)

It counters inappropriate activation

b)

overactivation can lead to chronic inflammation and disease

c)

microbes that colonise the skin are not harmful

d)

it both counters inappropriate activation which could lead to chronic inflammation

e)

none of the answers are correct

12.

Hypersensitivity reactions to penicillin have been identified that correspond to which is the below types of reactions?

a)

Type I Hypersensitivity

b)

Type II Hypersensitivity

c)

Type III Hypersensitivity

d)

Type IV hypersensitivity

e)

All of the above

13.

Hypersensitivity reactions to cell surface antigens that involve IgM and IgG are classified as which type?

a)

Type I hypersensitivity

b)

Type II hypersensitivity

c)

Type III hypersensitivity

d)

Type IV hypersensitivity

e)

All of the above

14.

Which of the following cell types are implicated in type 1 hypersensitivity?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Mast cells and basophils

c)

T cells

d)

Monocytes

e)

None of these

15.

Which of the following cytokines are not generally found in individuals with chronic inflammation?

a)

IL-10

b)

TNF-a

c)

IL-1

d)

IL-6

e)

All of the above

16.

central tolerance...

a)

Is the first step in immune tolerance mechanisms

b)

affects both T cells and B cells

c)

deletes cells that are autoreactive

d)

occurs in the bone marrow and thymus

e)

all of the above

17.

Autoimmune diseases...

a)

involve a failure of central tolerance

b)

involve a failure of peripheral tolerance

c)

lead to tissue destruction

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

18.

Individuals who express HLA-B27 are 90x more likely to develop the autoimmune disorder ankylosing spondylitis that individuals with a different HLA allele at this locus. This leads to the conclusion that

a)

HLA-B27 causes ankylosing spondylitis

b)

Individuals with HLA-B27 will develop ankylosing spondylitis

c)

autoimmune disorders must have an genetic component

d)

patients with HLA-B27 must express HLA-B27

e)

None of the above

19.

Many autoimmune disorders are treated with immunosuppressive drugs, which produce other problems. Antigen-specific immunotherapy would be much better because

a)

they would target only the autoreactive cells.

b)

they would not induce general suppression of the immune system.

c)

they would produce a general reduction in inflammation.

d)

they would both target only the autoreactive cells and not induce general suppression of the immune system.

e)

they would target only the autoreactive cells and produce a general reduction in inflammation.

20.

Isographs are NOT rejected because

a)

they are between genetically identical individuals

b)

they are MHC matched

c)

they do not trigger an immune response

d)

they are syngeneic

e)

all of the above

21.

a kidney transplant infiltrate shows both CD4 and CD8 T cells. This suggests that to reduce graft rejection

a)

CD4+ T cells should be depleted

b)

CD8+ T cells should be depleted

c)

Both CD4+ and CD8+ T cells should be depleted

d)

Inflammatory cells should be depleted

e)

None of these are viable clinical treatments

22.

In transplantation, CsA, rapamycin and FK506 are all used to

a)

decrease odds of rejection

b)

inhibit the activation of resting T cells

c)

improve the overall survival of the patient

d)

all of these

e)

none of these

23.

Viruses, like many good pathogens, have adapted to survive in their hosts. Which of the following scenarios would be MOST favorable to viral transmission and long-term survival of the viral species?

a)

Virus X enters a host cell, produces many progeny viruses (virions), and lyses the host cell.

b)

Virus X enters the host cell and merges viral DNA with the host DNA so that the virus is copied into all progeny host cells.

c)

Virus X enters the host cells, merges viral DNA with the host DNA until the host cell is stressed, and then begins to produce many virions eventually lysing the host cell.

d)

Virus X enters the host cell and consistently makes virions at a low level so that all host cell functions are not disrupted.

e)

Virus X enters the host cell, makes many progeny virions, and releases virions through exocytosis so that each virion is wrapped in the host cell plasma membrane. The host cell will eventually die or be targeted by the immune system for apoptosis.

24.

Which of the following is NOT important for controlling infections at either barrier or mucosal sites

a)

Th2 CD4+ T cells

b)

IL-4

c)

IgA

d)

IgG

e)

IgE

25.

Sleeping sickness and Chagas's disease are caused by members of the genus Trypanosoma, protozoans that reside in the bloodstream. What is the principle way trypanosomes evade the immune response?

a)

Antagonistic cytokines are produced by the trypanosome.

b)

Periodic changes in the surface antigen (VSG) of trypanosomes ensures that at least some cells will survive antibody mediated attacks.

c)

Trypanosomes are human pathogens and thus immune to human immune responses.

d)

Trypanosomes invade the brain and red blood cells so that immune effector cells such as macrophages and dendritic cells cannot phagocytize trypanosomes.

e)

Vaccines are readily available to people in trypanosome infested areas.

26.

Why does active immunity produce long-term immunity better than passive immunity?

a)

Active immunity always leads to having the illness though in a milder form than an unvaccinated individual.

b)

Antibodies do not produce long-term immunity because they break down after two weeks.

c)

During active immunity, antigens for the disease are presented to the immune system through classical antigen presentation mechanisms, so an active B-cell response and immunologic memory develop.

d)

Long-term storage of antibodies maintains vaccine integrity; however, antigens cannot be stored long term.

e)

all of the above

27.

What type of vaccine would be most effective against tuberculosis, a disease that requires a strong CD4+ T cell response

a)

Toxoid

b)

DNA

c)

Subunit

d)

Live attenuated

e)

Inactivated

28.

Deficiency in the common-gamma chain of cytokine receptors is a particularly severe problem because

a)

It is encoded on the X-chromosome, so males are hemizygous

b)

it is used by several cytokines

c)

It leads to defects in NK cells, T cells and B cells

d)

all of these

e)

none of these

29.

In flow cytometry, in addition to fluorescent markers, forward (FSC) and side (SSC) scatter are measured, and

a)

side scatter is a reflection of the size of the cell.

b)

forward scatter is a measure of the amount of DNA in the cell.

c)

side scatter is a measure of the amount of DNA in the cell.

d)

forward scatter is a reflection of the internal complexity of the cell.

e)

none of these

30.

Polyclonal antibodies differ from monoclonal antibodies in all ways EXCEPT which of the following?

a)

they generally have fewer cross-reactivities

b)

they are generally better for immunoprecipitation

c)

they generally have lower affinity

d)

they can vary from preparation to preparation

e)

all of these