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Biology First Semester Review

Total questions: 263

Worksheet time: 3hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Eight components present in nucleic acids are listed in the box. Which components bond with adenine in a section of double-stranded DNA?

a)

1, 3, 5, and 6 only

b)

3 and 5 only

c)

2 and 4 only

d)

3, 4, 7, and 8 only

2.

A segment of a DNA strand is shown.

Which of these is the correct complementary DNA strand for the segment shown?

a)

5' AGGTCAGGT 3'

b)

5' ACCUGAGGU 3'

c)

5' TGGACTGGA 3'

d)

5' TCCAGTCCA 3'

3.

Which part of a DNA molecule is responsible for the direct coding of specific traits in an organism?

a)

The number of hydrogen bonds that hold the strands of DNA together.

b)

The number of carbons in the DNA molecule.

c)

The sequence of nucleotide bases in the DNA molecule.

d)

The sequences of phosphates along each DNA strand.

4.

Students are given data from an investigation which identified some of the chemical elements in four samples. Which sample was most likely DNA?

a)

Hydrogen, phosphorus, nitrogen

b)

Aluminum, silicon, copper

c)

Calcium, potassium, nitrogen

d)

Iron, oxygen, magnesium

5.

Which of these compounds are found in the cells of all living organisms?

a)

estrogen and testosterone

b)

hemoglobin and lymphocytes

c)

cytosine and guanine

d)

cellulose and chlorophyll

6.

A table of four types of carbohydrates is shown.

Which list correctly matches the functions to the types of carbohydrates?

a)

Energy: glycogen and starch

Structure: cellulose and chitin

b)

Energy: cellulose and chitin

Structure: glycogen and starch

c)

Energy: chitin and glycogen

Structure: cellulose and starch

d)

Energy: cellulose and starch

Structure: chitin and glycogen

7.

Transmembrane proteins span the width of cell membranes. Four types of transmembrane proteins are shown in a section of cell membrane.

Although these proteins have different specific functions, they all -

a)

stop chemical reactions within the cell

b)

synthesize molecules that signal other cells

c)

help the cell interact with its external environment

d)

remove large waste particles from the cytoplasm of the cell

8.

Two biomolecules are shown.

Which of the following best describes these biomolecules?

a)

Molecule X and Molecules Y are both carbohydrates

b)

Molecule X is a nucleic acid and Molecules Y is a carbohydrate

c)

Molecule X and Molecules Y are both nucleic acids

d)

Molecule X is a carbohydrate and Molecules Y is a nucleic acid

9.

Students were given a list of seven elements and asked to identify the four elements that are most abundant in biomolecules. Which table correctly identifies the four most-abundant elements in biomolecules?

a)
b)
c)
d)
10.

Proteins and carbohydrates have many functions in the body of an organism. Specific proteins and carbohydrates perform specific tasks. Information about a protein and a carbohydrates is given.

How are ferritin and glycogen similar in their primary functions for an organism?

a)

both store materials needed by the organism

b)

both store energy used by the organism

c)

both support the structure of the organism

d)

both store information for the organism

11.

Which of these best represents a fatty-acid molecule?

a)
b)
c)
d)
12.

Enzymes are proteins that have a three dimensional shape that is specific to a particular substrate. Environmental conditions can change the shape of the protein.

What is the most likely result if the shape of the enzyme changes?

a)

the substrate will change its shape to match the enzyme

b)

the enzyme will no longer be able to catalyze the reaction with the substrate

c)

the products made from the enzyme and the substrate will be changed

d)

the enzyme will be able to bind to more diverse substrates than before

13.

Taq polymerase is an enzyme used in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) to replicate fragments of DNA. A study published in 1976 examined the properties of Taq polymerase after the enzyme was isolated from Thermus aquaticus, a thermophilic bacterium that lives in the hot springs of Yellowstone National Park. The graph shows one of the results of the study.

Which statement about enzyme activity is best supported by this graph?

a)

An enzyme must be composed of multiple polypeptides, or subunits, to be active

b)

An enzyme's rate of activity increases with time until it becomes inactive

c)

An enzyme functions best under specific temperature conditions

d)

An enzyme works equally well in bacteria that are adapted to high temperatures and in eukaryotic cells such as human cells

14.

Some foods that are rich in complex carbohydrates can be difficult to digest. Gas often forms as the foods are slowly digested by bacteria in the large intestine. The advertisement is for a nutritional supplement that prevents intestinal gas.

Which of the following represents evidence that could be used to support the claims about this product?

a)

Complex carbohydrates are found in vegetables and grains, which are good sources of fiber, vitamins, antioxidants, and minerals. Vegetables and grains are known to reduce the risk of heart disease.

b)

Some nutritional supplements provide vitamins and minerals that are missing from a person's diet. These types of nutritional supplements contain important nutrients that reduce the risk of malnutrition.

c)

Consuming enzymes specific for carbohydrate digestion helps the body digest complex carbohydrates more quickly in the stomach and small intestine.

d)

Some nutritional supplements add beneficial bacteria to a person's diet. These bacteria populate the stomach and prevent carbohydrate digestion.

15.

A biomolecule has the elements CHONP. Which molecule does this have to be?

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Lipid

d)

Nucleic Acid

16.

A biomolecule has the elements CHO. Which biomolecule does this have to be?

a)

protein

b)

lipid

c)

carbohydrate

d)

nucleic acid

e)

it can be either a carbohydrate or lipid

17.

An amino acid is the monomer of a ...

a)

lipid

b)

protein

c)

nucleic acid

d)

carbohydrate

18.

The picture shown is the monomer of a ...

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

protein

d)

nucleic acid

19.

The picture shown is the monomer of a ...

a)

lipid

b)

protein

c)

carbohydrate

d)

nucleic acid

20.

Large molecules made of smaller molecules connected by covalent bonds.

a)

macromolecules

b)

polymers

c)

monomers

d)

polypeptides

21.

The process of breaking down a polymer into monomers and splitting a water molecule in the process.

a)

dehydration synthesis

b)

hydrolysis

c)

disaccharide

d)

activation

22.

The process of building a polymer from monomer molecules, which removes water from the molecules.

a)

hydrolysis

b)

products

c)

dehydration synthesis

d)

dessication

23.

Which of the base pairs are correctly arranged?

a)

cytosine - guanine

b)

adenine - guanine

c)

cytosine - thymine

d)

guanine - thymine

24.

Which of these base pairs are correctly arranged?

a)

adenine - thymine

b)

cytosine - thymine

c)

adenine - guanine

d)

guanine - thymine

25.

Which of the answers is the monomer of a lipid?

a)

monosaccharide

b)

amino acid

c)

fatty acid

d)

nucleotide

26.

How does DNA code for traits?

a)

a sequence of nucleotide bases in a particular order

b)

a strand of DNA backbone

c)

a series of deoxyribose and phosphate groups

d)

the number of matched base pairs

27.

Proteins which speed up chemical reactions in the body.

a)

amino acids

b)

enzymes

c)

substrates

d)

products

28.

Chemicals which are changed after interacting with a catalyst in the cell.

a)

substrate

b)

product

c)

enzyme

d)

protein

29.

Accelerate the rate of chemical reactions in the body.

a)

catalyst

b)

substrate

c)

activation site

d)

product

30.

Enzymes can be damaged by these things and be unable to perform essential chemical reactions?

a)

temperature and pH

b)

acidity

c)

excessive sweating

d)

skipping a meal

31.

Which of the following are differences in the structure between RNA and DNA

a)

DNA uses deoxyribose sugar, RNA uses sugar ribose

b)

DNA pairs Adenine with Uracil, RNA pairs Adenine with Thymine

c)

DNA is a double helix, RNA is a single helix

d)

DNA pairs Adenine with Thymine, RNA pairs Adenine with Uracil

32.

Which organelle is the location where protein is made?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

33.

Insertion, deletion, and substitution are all examples of a change in a genetic sequence which is also referred to as (a)

a)

Gene

b)

Amino Acid

c)

Ribose

d)

Mutation

34.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

35.

When these bond together, they form a protein

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Ribose

d)

Nucleotides

36.

These building blocks consist of a sugar, phosphate, and nitrogen base.

a)

Ribose

b)

Nucleotide

c)

Gene

d)

Protein

37.

A string of nucleotides that contain the information to make a specific protein

a)

Ribose

b)

Amino Acids

c)

tRNA

d)

Gene

38.

During translation, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for delivering amino acids to help make a protein.

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

dRNA

39.

There are a total of ____ different amino acids

a)

20

b)

1

c)

4

d)

unlimited

40.

mRNA occurs during this process

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Replication

d)

Delivery

41.

How many amino acids are found on one tRNA?

a)

20

b)

4

c)

1

d)

3

42.

Which of the following is the complementary mRNA sequence to this DNA strand: AACTGAA

a)

UUGACUU

b)

TTGACTT

c)

AACTGAA

d)

AACUGAA

43.

Which of the following is the tRNA that will be used to decode to this DNA strand: AACTGA

a)

AAC and TGA

b)

TTG and ACT

c)

UUG and ACU

d)

AAC and UGA

44.
Which of the following is the template for the production of RNA within a cell?
a)
DNA
b)
protein
c)
ATO
d)
carbohydrate
45.
Genetic info flows in one direction. Which best represents this flow?
a)
DNA-protein-RNA
b)
Protein-RNA-DNA
c)
RNA-protein-DNA
d)
DNA-RNA-protein
46.
Which process?
a)
mutation
b)
transcription
c)
respiration
d)
translation
47.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
48.
What is the term for a three-nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid?
a)
base
b)
codon
c)
amine
d)
serine
49.
Which phrase best describes translation?
a)
converts mRNA into a polypeptide
b)
catalyzes bonds between amino acids
c)
produces RNA from DNA molecules
d)
recycles tRNA molecules for reuse
50.
Which of the following is the site of transcription?
a)
vacuole
b)
lysosome
c)
nucleus
d)
ribosome
51.
A tRNA that carries the amino acid methionine pairs with which type of codon?
a)
serine codon
b)
tRNA codon
c)
start codon
d)
anticodon
52.
What would happen if we did not have start codons?
a)
Polypeptide chains would continue to grow
b)
Amino acids would bind to tRNA
c)
Protein synthesis wouldn't occur
d)
mRNA would form a double strand
53.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
54.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
55.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
56.
DNA holds the code for
a)
lipids
b)
carbohydrates
c)
protein
d)
sugar
57.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
58.
What process is going on in this photo? 
a)
Transcription 
b)
Translation 
c)
Replication 
d)
All the above 
59.
What is the three base sequence of mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
60.

A model of a biological process is shown.

What is the purpose of this process?

a)

To replicate the DNA of an organism before cell division

b)

To translate the genetic code into a specific sequence of amino acids

c)

To synthesize amino acids used to unzip strands of DNA and copy the genetic code

d)

To assemble nucleotides in an mRNA chain along a DNA template

61.

Different types of mutations can occur in DNA. The diagram represents a type of mutation.

Which statement describes the mutation in the diagram?

a)

A silent mutation results in the insertion of a different amino acid.

b)

A substitution occurs with the adenine base.

c)

A deletion of a cytosine base occurs.

d)

A base is inserted into one strand of the DNA.

62.

Which of these is the direct result of an error in the transcription of a DNA nucleotide?

a)

The nuclear membrane is ruptured.

b)

Amino acids do not bond to tRNA.

c)

A codon sequence is incorrect.

d)

Transportation of mRNA does not occur.

63.

Mutations within the DNA sequence of an organism can —

a)

result in alterations that are harmful to an organism

b)

result in alterations that are helpful to an organism

c)

result in alterations that do not effect the organism

d)

all answers are correct

64.

The table shows a DNA sequence and three types of mutations that can change the DNA sequence.

Which mutation will cause a silent mutation?

a)

Mutations 1 and 3 only

b)

Mutation 1 only

c)

Mutation 2 only

d)

Mutations 1, 2, and 3

65.

In the 1960s the molecular biologist George Streisinger developed the strand-slippage hypothesis. Streisinger noticed that mutations occurred in areas of DNA that contained many repeated sequences. When a strand-slippage error occurs, an insertion mutation can result. How does the insertion mutation affect the DNA?

a)

Nitrogenous bases are added.

b)

Nitrogenous bases are exchanged.

c)

Nitrogenous bases are damaged.

d)

Nitrogenous bases are deleted.

66.

A segment of DNA produces methionine, threonine, histidine, aspartate, and glycine when translated. A substitution mutation occurs and causes the synthesis of the segment as shown.

Which is the new peptide chain when the new DNA segment is translated?

a)

Methionine, leucine, histidine, aspartate, glycine

b)

Methionine, phenylalanine, histidine, aspartate, glycine

c)

Methionine, proline, histidine, aspartate, glycine

d)

Methionine, serine, histidine, aspartate, glycine

67.

Sickle-shaped red blood cells result from a mutation in the gene that codes for hemoglobin. This mutation results in sickle-cell anemia. A partial sequence of bases from a normal hemoglobin gene and a sequence that results in sickle-cell anemia are shown below.

What type of mutation is depicted in this sequence?

a)

Substitution

b)

Insertion

c)

Deletion

d)

Frameshift

68.

The initial steps in gene expression are modeled below. Double-stranded DNA first unwinds into two strands.

Which process and product are missing in the diagrams?

a)

Process: transcription; product: mRNA

b)

Process: translation; product: protein

c)

Process: replication; product: tRNA

d)

Process: recombination; product: polymerase

69.

Which of the following shows a mutation that does not change the shape or the chemical nature of the protein so that it still functions normally?

a)

UCC to GAC

b)

UCC to UAA

c)

UCC to UGC

d)

UCA to AGC

70.

Which of these changes to the DNA triplet 3’ GCT 5’ will affect the protein produced?

a)

GTT

b)

TCT

c)

TCC

d)

GCA

71.

Which of the following polypeptides is coded for by the mRNA sequence 5'AUGGUUAAACGACAAUCC3'?

a)

Valine, Lysine, Phenylalanine, Glycine, Serine

b)

Methionine, Aspartic Acid, Phenylalanine, Alanine, Arginine

c)

Methionine, Valine, Lysine, Arginine, Glutamine, Serine

d)

Isoleucine, Glutamine, Lysine, Aspartic Acid, Glycine, Leucine, Serine

72.

The process represented in the diagram produces a molecule that is complementary to the template strand of DNA. What type of molecule is produced?

a)

New DNA

b)

Polypeptide

c)

Carbohydrate

d)

Messenger RNA

73.

Which mutation would change the greatest number of amino acids in a protein?

a)

the deletion of a single adenine in the middle of a gene

b)

the substitution of a thymine with a cytosine near the beginning of a gene

c)

the addition of the nucleotides that make up an additional stop codon to the end of a gene

d)

the insertion of a thymine, a guanine, and an adenine in that order at the start of a gene

74.

Part of an important cellular process involving a DNA strand is modeled below.

What is the purpose of this cellular process?

a)

Preserving genetic information for future generations

b)

Deleting the information in the sequence produced from the DNA template

c)

Transcribing information in the DNA sequence for use by the cell

d)

Producing more nucleotides for the DNA sequence

75.

The disease sickle cell anemia is caused by a mutation in the hemoglobin protein. The code for glutamic acid has a mutation in one nucleotide that changes it to the code for valine. Which choice correctly shows this mutation?

a)

GAA to GUA

b)

GAG to UAG

c)

GAA to GAC

d)

GAG to CAG

76.

According to the RNA Codon Chart, which of the following statements is true?

a)

Isoleucine is the only amino acid coded for by AUU.

b)

AUG codes for both methionine and valine.

c)

AAA is the only code for lysine.

d)

Arginine is one of several amino acids coded for by AGA.

77.

A DNA strand has a nucleotide sequence of TTA TGC TCC TAA for a gene segment. What is the amino acid sequence of the complementary mRNA strand of this DNA strand ?

a)

Gly Val Val Phe

b)

Leu Cys Ser Stop

c)

Asn Thr Arg Ile

d)

Phe Ser Ser Stop

78.

What is the correct amino acid sequence that is coded from the RNA sequence UGGCAGAUU?

a)

val-gly-trp

b)

met-his-ser

c)

tyr-pro-asn

d)

trp-gln-ile

79.

For which amino acid sequence does the RNA sequence UUUCCUCAA code?

a)

leucine-threonine-glutamic acid

b)

phenylalanine-proline-glutamine

c)

phenylalanine-proline-histidine

d)

serine-histidine-glutamine

80.

Original mRNA Mutated mRNA

AGAUCGAGU ACAUCGAGU


The original mRNA strand above contains three codons. Which of the following changes would be expected in the resulting amino acid chain if the mutation shown above occurred?

a)

The amino acid sequence would be shorter than expected.

b)

The identity of one amino acid would change.

c)

The amino acid sequence would remain unchanged.

d)

The identities of more than one amino acid would change.

81.

Study the sentences describing the steps in in the above process. Which sequence places the steps in the correct order?


1. Transfer RNA picks up individual amino acids and carries them to the ribosome.


2. Ribosomal RNA bonds mRNA and tRNA.


3. A single strand of DNA serves as a template for making mRNA.


4. Messenger RNA carries the sequence of nucleotides to the ribosomes.


5. A protein is synthesized.

a)

3,4,1,2,5

b)

2,5,3,4,1

c)

3,2,4,5,1

d)

2,4,1,5,3

82.

The complementary mRNA strand of a gene segment is CUGCGGCAGGUGGUGUAG.

How many amino acids will result from the translation of the given mRNA strand?

a)

5

b)

18

c)

8

d)

6

83.

In the process of translation, the ribosome is the site where —

a)

DNA strands are separated and copied

b)

amino acid chains are assembled from information in the mRNA

c)

information from DNA is copied to RNA

d)

free floating amino acids are picked up by tRNA

84.

The chart below shows some of the mRNA codons and their corresponding amino acids.

Asp - Trp - Ile - Ile

Which of the following base sequences would code for the amino acid sequence shown above?

a)

GCUGAUAUUAUA

b)

GAUAUUAUCAUA

c)

GAUUGGAUUAUA

d)

AUUAUCGACUGG

85.

Students use a microscope to look for structures present in four different cells. The students placed an X for each structure that was viewed for each cell on the table shown.

Which cell that was viewed is most likely a prokaryote?

a)

Cell W

b)

Cell X

c)

Cell Y

d)

Cell Z

86.

You are told that the cells on a microscope slide are plant, animal, or bacterial. You look at them through a microscope and see cell walls and membrane-bound organelles. How should these cells be classified?

a)

plant cells

b)

animal cells

c)

They could be plant cells or bacterial cells.

d)

They could be plant cells, animal cells or bacterial cells.

87.

Which of the following forms of life is NOT a eukaryote?

a)

A protist such as an amoeba.

b)

A plant cell such as Elodea.

c)

A bacterial cell such as Streptococcus.

d)

A human cell such as a red blood cell.

88.

Which of the following is a major difference between a prokaryote and a eukaryote?

a)

The need for nutrients.

b)

The presence of a nucleus.

c)

The presence of a cell membrane.

d)

The presence of DNA.

89.

Some ribosomes float free in the cytoplasm, while other ribosomes are attached to which of the following organelles?

a)

cell (plasma) membrane

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

mitochondrion

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

90.

When a cell is deprived of oxygen, its lysosomes tend to burst and release their contents into the cell. What will be the likely consequence for the cell?

a)

Other organelles will assume lysosome functions.

b)

The cell will produce more ER.

c)

The cell will undergo division.

d)

The cell will die due to internal damage.

91.

When a cell is deprived of oxygen, its lysosomes tend to burst and release their contents into the cell. What will be the likely consequence for the cell?

a)

Other organelles will assume lysosome functions.

b)

The cell will produce more ER.

c)

The cell will undergo division.

d)

The cell will die due to internal damage.

92.

The Rough ER plays a major role in the processing of which of the following biological molecules?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

ATP

d)

DNA

93.

What is the part of the cell marked by the arrow?

a)

cytosol

b)

chlorophyll

c)

DNA

d)

mitochondrion

94.

Place the following levels of organization in the correct order from simplest to most complex.

a)

Organism  Organs  Tissues  Cells  Organelles

b)

Organs  Organelles  Organism  Cells  Tissues

c)

Tissues  Cells  Organelles  Organs  Organism

d)

Organelles  Cells  Tissues  Organs  Organism

95.

Where is DNA found in a prokaryotic cell?

a)

floating in the cytoplasm

b)

surrounded by the nuclear membrane

c)

contained in the Golgi body

d)

contained inside the cell wall

96.

Which of the following structures would NOT be found in your body cells?

a)

mitochondria

b)

cell walls

c)

cell membranes

d)

ribosomes

97.

Why are chloroplasts found in plant cells but NOT in animal cells?

a)

Plant cells are producers that make their own food.

b)

Plant cells need additional protection from herbivores.

c)

Animal cells do not need to store water.

d)

Animal cells store their DNA in the nucleus.

98.

Imagine that a protein produced in the cell that is going to exit the cell. Which of the following would be your pathway through the cell?

a)

Mitochondrion...Chloroplast...Cell Membrane

b)

Ribosome...Rough ER...Golgi Apparatus...Cell Membrane

c)

Nucleus...Smooth ER...Golgi Apparatus...Cell Membrane

d)

Nucleolus...Lysosome...Cell Membrane

99.

What type of cell is pictured?

a)

plant cell

b)

animal cell

c)

bacteria cell

d)

prokaryote

100.

What is the name of organelle F?

a)

nucleus

b)

endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Golgi body

d)

cell membrane

101.

What is the name of organelle D?

a)

mitochondrion

b)

nucleus

c)

Golgi body

d)

vacuole

102.

Which organelle breaks down food to release energy?

a)

B

b)

D

c)

G

d)

H

103.

What is the function of the tiny dot-like structures in letter H?

a)

make proteins

b)

controls the cell activities

c)

provide energy to the cell

d)

break down waste products

104.

A prokaryotic cell has which of the following?

a)

Centrioles

b)

Lysosomes

c)

Plasma membrane

d)

Mitochondria

105.

A prokaryotic cell has which of the following?

a)

Centrioles

b)

Lysosomes

c)

Plasma membrane

d)

Mitochondria

106.

Mitochondria are found in most eukaryotic cells and contain their own DNA and ribosomes that are similar to those typical of many prokaryotic cells. Which of the following statements is justified by these observations?

a)

The mitochondrion is the only location in which eukaryotic cells can synthesize ATP.

b)

An ancestral cell most likely engulfed anaerobic prokaryote in a relationship that proved beneficial for both cells.

c)

Mitochondrial membranes provide abundant surface area for reactions because of the infoldings called cristae.

d)

The mitochondrion plays a role in respiration, but it also stores the cell’s extra mRNA.

107.

The muscle cells shown above require large amounts of energy. A muscle cell might contain large numbers of -

a)

chromosomes

b)

vacuoles

c)

mitochondria

d)

lysosomes

108.
Homeostasis
a)
allows for a wildly fluctuating internal environment
b)
is impossible in vertebrates
c)
is the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment and often incorporates a form of feedback regulation
d)
is the maintenance of a relatively stable external environment and often incorporates a form of feedback regulation
109.
Homeostasis
a)
allows for a wildly fluctuating internal environment
b)
is impossible in vertebrates
c)
is the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment and often incorporates a form of feedback regulation
d)
is the maintenance of a relatively stable external environment and often incorporates a form of feedback regulation
110.
Which diagram represents an organ?
a)
#1
b)
#2
c)
#3
d)
#4
111.
Which diagram represents an organ?
a)
#1
b)
#2
c)
#3
d)
#4
112.
If the environment gets cold, we will often shiver in order to:
a)
keep body temperature the same as the external temperature
b)
decrease body temperature
c)
increase body temperature
d)
regulate blood pressure
113.

Why is the sensation of thirst important to maintaining homeostasis?

a)

Water removed by the kidneys must be replaced

b)

Oxygen cannot diffuse into cells if a person is dehydrated

c)

Water molecules are needed to carry carbon dioxide waste to the kidneys

114.

Why does pulse rate increase during exercise?

a)

Oxygen and carbon dioxide must be removed from the body ASAP

b)

Gas exchange must happen more quickly than when a person is at rest

c)

Oxygen must be moved to the lungs and carbon dioxide must be moved to cells more quickly

d)

Carbon dioxide must be moved to the kidneys to be excreted

115.

Structures in a cell that have specialized jobs.

Similar concept to organs for the human body.

a)

Tissue

b)

Molecule

c)

Atom

d)

Organelles

116.

Group of tissues with similar functions.

a)

Organelles

b)

Cells

c)

Tissues

d)

Organs

117.

Group of organs with similar functions.

a)

Organism

b)

Cell

c)

Organ

d)

System

118.

Organisms who are members of the same species in an ecosystem.

a)

Organism

b)

Population

c)

Organ

d)

Community

119.
surrounds the cell; controls what enters/leaves cell; maintains homeostasis
a)
vacuole
b)
cell wall
c)
cell membrane
d)
lysosome
120.
control the cell's activities; contains the cell's DNA
a)
mitochondria
b)
cell membrane
c)
nucleus
d)
golgi body
121.
breaks down food to release energy
a)
nucleus
b)
lysosomes
c)
mitochondria
d)
vacuole
122.
moves substances within a cell (pipe like structures)
a)
endoplasmic reticulum
b)
nucleus
c)
cytoplasm
d)
vacuole
123.
makes proteins
a)
nucleus
b)
ribosomes
c)
lysosomes
d)
vacuole
124.
changes and packages cell products
a)
nucleus
b)
cell wall
c)
vacuole
d)
golgi body
125.
contains enzymes (proteins that speed up digestion and chemical reactions0
a)
lysosome
b)
ribosome
c)
nucleus
d)
golgi body
126.
holds materials like water and is very large in a plant cell
a)
nucleus
b)
golgi body
c)
chloroplast
d)
vacuole
127.

Photosynthesis occurs in the _______ of _____ cells.

a)

mitochondrion / all

b)

nucleus / animal

c)

chloroplast / plant

d)

chlorophyll / all

128.

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration are both.....

a)

chemical reactions

b)

nuclear reactions

c)

physical reactions

d)

none of these are correct

129.

In photosynthesis, _____ energy is converted to ______ energy.

a)

radiant / kinetic

b)

radiant / chemical

c)

chemical / kinetic

d)

chemical / radiant

130.

Which of the following is the correct formula for photosynthesis.

a)

C6H12O6 + 6O2 >>>> 6H2O + 6C02 + energy

b)

C6H12O6 + 6C02 >>>>> light energy + 6O2 + 6H2O

c)

6C02 + 6H2O + light energy >>>>>> C6H12O6 + 6O2

d)

6H2O + energy >>>>>> 6O2 + 6C02 + C6H12O6

131.

Plants take in _____ and give off _______.

a)

water / carbon dioxide

b)

oxygen / carbon dioxide

c)

oxygen / glucose

d)

carbon dioxide / oxygen

132.

Cellular respiration takes place in the ________ of cells.

a)

mitochondria

b)

chloroplast

c)

nucleus

d)

cytoplasm

133.

Which of the following is the word equation for cellular respiration?

a)

oxygen + glucose ---> carbon dioxide + water + energy

b)

carbon dioxide + glucose ---> oxygen + energy + water

c)

carbon dioxide + energy ---> oxygen + water + glucose

134.

The source of all energy for life on Earth is the ________.

a)

plant

b)

cell

c)

sun

d)

glucose

135.

The basis for all life on Earth is ________.

a)

respiration

b)

photosynthesis

c)

tropism

d)

glucose

136.

What organisms undergo cellular respiration?

a)

plants

b)

animals

c)

bacteria and fungi

d)

plants, animals, bacteria, fungi

137.

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration help to cycle ________ through ecosystems.

a)

carbon, oxygen & water

b)

nitrogen & carbon

c)

carbon only

d)

water only

138.

This reaction occurs in photosynthesis.

6C02 + 6H2O + light energy >>>>>> C6H12O6 + 6O2

This reaction is beneficial to plants because...

a)

keeps ultraviolet light from damaging their cells.

b)

produces chemical building blocks for proteins.

c)

provides chemical energy to the cells.

d)

results in a net increase in the mass of the atoms.

139.

Glycogen is a polysaccharide that is formed from glucose and stored in the liver and muscle cells. Which biomolecule is glycogen?

a)

Lipid

b)

Protein

c)

Carbohydrate

d)

Nucleic acid

140.

Which statement accurately describes the energy needs for photosynthesis and cellular respiration?

a)

Solar energy is needed for cellular respiration but not for photosynthesis.

b)

Chemical energy in the form of glucose is needed for both cellular respiration and photosynthesis.

c)

Chemical energy in the form of glucose is needed for photosynthesis, and solar energy is needed for cellular respiration.

d)

Solar energy is needed for photosynthesis, and chemical energy in the form of glucose is needed for cellular respiration.

141.

Which statement accurately describes the energy needs for photosynthesis and cellular respiration?

a)

Solar energy is needed for cellular respiration but not for photosynthesis.

b)

Chemical energy in the form of glucose is needed for both cellular respiration and photosynthesis.

c)

Chemical energy in the form of glucose is needed for photosynthesis, and solar energy is needed for cellular respiration.

d)

Solar energy is needed for photosynthesis, and chemical energy in the form of glucose is needed for cellular respiration.

142.

Which of the following correctly describes how a diagram of cellular respiration would differ from a diagram of photosynthesis?

a)

The cellular-respiration diagram would show glucose as the main source of energy.

b)

The cellular-respiration diagram would show water as the main source of chemical energy.

c)

The cellular-respiration diagram would show electromagnetic waves as the final product.

d)

The cellular-respiration diagram would show energy stored in large protein molecules.

143.

During the light reactions of photosynthesis, energy is stored in the compounds ATP and NADPH. A second set of reactions uses this stored energy to produce vital compounds such as glucose. This second set of reactions involves a biochemical pathway called

a)

carbon fixation.

b)

respiration.

c)

transpiration.

d)

the Calvin cycle.

144.

Which statement describes the relationship between the reactants of photosynthesis and the products of cellular respiration?

a)

The products of cellular respiration are the products of photosynthesis.

b)

The products of cellular respiration serve as the reactants of photosynthesis.

c)

The reactants of cellular respiration are the reactants of photosynthesis.

d)

Cellular respiration and photosynthesis are unrelated.

145.

Which elements are found in a molecule of glucose?

a)

CHONP

b)

CHON

c)

CHO

d)

CHOP

146.

When ATP loses a phosphorus group it becomes...

a)

ATPP

b)

ADP

c)

AMP

d)

ADPH

147.

NADP+ becomes _____________ when energy is added.

a)

NADPP

b)

NADP2

c)

NADPH

d)

ANADP

148.

Cellular respiration takes place in _____ stages.

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

149.

The Krebs cycle takes place in the stoma of the mitochondria and is also called the __________.

a)

light reaction

b)

citric acid cycle

c)

lactic acid

d)

calvin cycle

150.

Which process has oxygen as a product and which has oxygen as a reactant?

a)

producers; consumers

b)

consumers; producers

c)

cellular respiration; photosynthesis

d)

photosynthesis; cellular respiration

151.

Which statement accurately describes the role of key organelles in energy transfer?

a)

Energy is captured and stored in the nucleus and released in the chloroplast.

b)

Energy is captured and stored in the nucleus and released in the mitochondria.

c)

Energy is captured and stored in the chloroplast and released in the mitochondria.

d)

Energy is captured and stored in the mitochondria and released in the chloroplast.

152.

The concept map below shows the flow of energy and materials in photosynthesis and cellular respiration.

Which molecules are represented in the figure by the number 2?

a)

H2O and O2

b)

H2O and CO2

c)

sugars and O2

d)

sugars and CO2

153.

Cells can generate as many as 36 to 38 molecules of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) from the metabolism of one molecule of glucose.

Which cellular process results in this amount of ATP production?

a)

Anaerobic cellular respiration

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

Aerobic cellular respiration

d)

Photosynthesis

154.

A student set up the experiment seen in the picture. How will they collect data from this experiment?

a)

By measuring carbon dioxide emitted by the plant

b)

By measuring the growth of the plant

c)

By measuring the oxygen produced by the plant

d)

By measuring the temperature of the water

155.

Which of these statements best explains the process of energy conversion that takes place in the mitochondria?

a)

Energy is required for carbon dioxide molecules to form six-carbon sugar molecules.

b)

Water molecules and radiant energy are necessary for anaerobic respiration to take place.

c)

Oxygen molecules release energy in the form of heat during combustion reactions.

d)

The energy in the bonds of glucose molecules is transferred to the phosphate bonds in ATP.

156.

The part of photosynthesis that absorbs energy from sunlight and transfers energy to the light-independent reaction.

a)

light-dependent reaction

b)

Calvin cycle

c)

Krebs cycle

d)

Dark reaction

157.
Division of the nucleus.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Mitosis
c)
Prophase
d)
Interphase
158.
Division of the cytoplasm and organelles.
a)
Mitosis
b)
Metaphase
c)
Cytokinesis
d)
Cytoplasm
159.
Time period between cell divisions.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Cytokinesis
d)
Interphase
160.
3 stages of interphase
a)
G1, M, G2
b)
M, C, S
c)
G1, S, G2
d)
P, M, G1
161.
Repeating sequence of growth and division in the life of a cell.
a)
Cell Cycle
b)
Cell Division
c)
Mitosis
d)
Cytokinesis
162.
All body cells except germ cells.
a)
Prokaryotic Cells
b)
Somatic Cells
c)
Gametes
d)
Tomatic Cells
163.
Type of cell that forms gametes (egg and sperm)
a)
Somatic Cell
b)
Bacterial Cell
c)
Prokaryotic Cell
d)
Germ Cell
164.
What is the correct order of the stages of mitosis?
a)
Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase
b)
Telophase, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase
c)
Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase, Anaphase
d)
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
165.
During which checkpoint does the cell check its surroundings to determine if the cell is healthy enough to move to the next phase?
a)
G2 Checkpoint
b)
Metaphase Checkpoint
c)
Cytokinesis Checkpoint
d)
G1 Checkpoint
166.
During which checkpoint does the cell check to make sure the DNA is copied correctly.
a)
G2 Checkpoint
b)
G1 Checkpoint
c)
Interphase Checkpoint
d)
Metaphase Checkpoint
167.
During which checkpoint does the cell check to make sure the chromosomes are properly attached to the spindle fibers.
a)
G2 Checkpoint
b)
G1 Checkpoint
c)
Metaphase Checkpoint
d)
Nucleus Checkpoint
168.
During which stage of interphase does the DNA duplicate.
a)
M Phase
b)
G1 Phase
c)
S Phase
d)
G2 Phase
169.
During which stage of interphase does cell growth occur and the production of more organelles occur.
a)
G1 Phase
b)
S Phase
c)
C Phase
d)
G2 Phase
170.
During which stage of interphase does preparation for cell division occur.
a)
G1 Phase
b)
C Phase
c)
S Phase
d)
G2 Phase
171.
What is the nondividing stage or resting stage of the cell cycle called?
a)
G0 Stage
b)
G1 Stage
c)
G2 Stage
d)
G3 Stage
172.
Cell division involves ___________ & __________.
a)
interphase & mitosis
b)
interphase & cytokinesis
c)
mitosis & cytokinesis
d)
mitosis & meiosis
173.
The process of mitosis and cytokinesis produce two identical
a)
daughter cells
b)
strands
c)
chromosomes
d)
chromatids
174.
Which phrase best describes cancer?
a)
absence of cyclins
b)
multiple gene mutations
c)
uncontrolled cell growth
d)
precesnce of genetic defects
175.

In what phase of the cell cycle does the nucleus disappear?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

176.

In what phase of the cell cycle does the nucleus re-appear?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

177.

In what phase of the cell cycle do the spindle fibers attach to the chromosomes?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

178.

In what phase of the cell cycle do the chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

179.

What phase is pictured?

a)

telophase

b)

anaphase

c)

prophase

d)

s phase

180.

What phase is shown here?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

181.

What phase is shown here?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

182.

What phase is shown here?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

telophase

d)

cytokinesis

183.

What phase is shown here?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

Prophase

d)

Anaphase

184.
What is occurring during step 1 of the diagram shown?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
185.
What is occurring during step 3 of the diagram shown?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
186.
Identify the parts of the nucleotide shown:
a)
1) Ribose Sugar      2) Phosphate 
3)  Nitrogen Base
b)
1) Deoxyribose Sugar
2) Phosphate
3) Nitrogen Base
c)
1) Phosphate
2) Ribose Sugar
3) Nitrogen Base
d)
1)  Phosphate
2) Deoxyribose Sugar
3)  Nitrogen Base
187.
What is the ONLY difference between the nucleotides shown?
a)
Nitrogen Base
b)
Ribose Sugar
c)
Deoxyribose Sugar
d)
Phosphate Group
188.
Which nitrogen base is found ONLY in RNA?
a)
Adenine 
b)
Guanine
c)
Uracil
d)
Thymine
189.
What is actually happening during S phase of the Cell Cycle?
a)
Cells differentiate into specialized cells.
b)
Protein Synthesis is occurring
c)
DNA is being replicated and two complete strands 
d)
The cell is growing and developing
190.
Cell Differentiation is:
a)
When DNA replicates during S phase of the cell cycle.
b)
When multicellular organisms have specialized cells that perform specific functions.
c)
When the chromosomes are pulled to opposite poles of the cell.
d)
When cells grown uncontrollably, causing cancer cells. 
191.

When cells lose their ability to regulate the cell cycle, they can divide at an accelerated rate and form a mass of cells. This mass of cells is referred to as —

a)

a tumor

b)

an embryo

c)

a gland

d)

an organ

192.

Which table shows two steps of DNA replication?

a)
b)
c)
d)
193.

The karyotype, or chromosomal profile, for humans is shown. A karyotype can be used to investigate genetic disorders.

The chemical colchicine is used in the production of karyotypes. Colchicine prevents spindle fibers from forming during the cell cycle.

What is a result of preventing spindle fibers from forming?

a)

The cell cycle skips G0 phase and repeats G1 phase.

b)

Mitotic division is skipped, and the cell cycle proceeds to cytokinesis.

c)

Mitotic division stops in metaphase and cannot proceed to anaphase.

d)

The cell cycle skips S phase and proceeds to G2 phase.

194.

Cells pass through a checkpoint before entering mitosis. Ideally, if DNA damage is 2 detected, the cells do not enter mitosis until the damage is repaired. Why is DNA damage repaired before cells enter mitosis?

a)

So that another round of DNA synthesis does not have to take place

b)

So that the chromosomes can align at the metaphase plate during mitosis

c)

So that the cytoplasm can be divided equally between the two daughter cells

d)

So that healthy daughter cells are produced, allowing the organism to continue growing

195.

Scientists can bioengineer skin in a laboratory to treat severe burns and other types of skin injuries. This bioengineered tissue is grown from living cells. The cellular process that enables the cells to grow and develop into tissue is —

a)

conjugation

b)

meiosis

c)

budding

d)

mitosis

196.

A segment of DNA is represented in the illustration.

How is information for a specific protein carried on the DNA molecule?

a)

As a sequence of nucleotides

b)

In the double-helix shape of the condensed chromosome

c)

In the ratio of adenines to thymines

d)

As a pattern of phosphates and sugars

197.

The diagram shows cells in different phases of mitosis. A student is trying to find a cell in a particular phase of mitosis. The student is looking for evidence that spindle fibers are separating the chromosomes to ensure that each new nucleus has one copy of each chromosome.

Which cell is in the phase of mitosis that the student is searching for?

a)

Cell 1

b)

Cell 2

c)

Cell 3

d)

Cell 4

198.

The sequence of nitrogenous bases in DNA varies widely. The sequence of the bases in DNA is most important for which of the following?

a)

Providing the instructions for the traits of an organism

b)

Preventing mutations from occurring during DNA replication

c)

Allowing the DNA to have the shape necessary for replication

d)

Helping form the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA molecules

199.

The model represents the change in the DNA content of a cell during the cell cycle.

Which part of the model represents the S phase?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

200.

The diagram below represents the cell cycle.

When cells leave the cell cycle, they exit during G1 phase and then enter G0 phase, a resting period. Most normal cells can leave G0 phase and reenter the cell cycle at G1 phase before entering S phase. Cancer cells are different because they cannot enter G0 phase and are likely

to do which of the following?

a)

Fail to complete S phase

b)

Mutate during G1 phase

c)

Repeat the cell cycle continuously

d)

Die after completing mitosis

201.

One strand in a molecule of DNA contains the sequence below.

ATTGCGTA

Which sequence is the complementary strand?

a)

ATTGCGTA

b)

UAACGCAU

c)

TAACGCAT

d)

GCCTATCG

202.

Atherosclerosis is a disease that obstructs blood flow and, therefore, oxygen supply to target organs. A major component of atherosclerosis is the excessive reproduction of smooth muscle cells of the blood vessels. Certain drugs may have the potential to reverse or prevent the unregulated reproduction of the diseased blood-vessel cells. Which of these processes is the most likely target of these drugs?

a)

Cell division

b)

Erythroblast differentiation

c)

DNA transcription

d)

Cellular respiration

203.

A photomicrograph of onion root tip cells during mitosis is shown below.

Which phase of mitosis is occurring in the cell indicated by the arrow?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

204.

Cells typically respond to DNA damage in three ways: by ceasing to grow and divide until the damage is repaired, by permanently ceasing to grow and divide, or by dying. In 2010 a group of scientists reported that a certain kind of immune reaction can cause DNA damage that leads to a fourth response. DNA damage can turn off genes involved in cell-signaling pathways. Turning off these genes can cause less-mature cells to divide too rapidly, often leading to the development of-

a)

tumors

b)

allergies

c)

hemophilia

d)

cardiovascular disease

205.

Which part of the cell cycle controls the repair of damaged DNA which, if unsuccessful, could eventually result in the abnormal cell division that typifies some types of cancer?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M

206.

Which of these must occur during S phase of the cell cycle so that two daughter cells can be produced during M phase?

a)

The DNA must be replicated.

b)

The chromosomes must be joined.

c)

The cytoplasm must be separated.

d)

The cell membrane must be expanded.

207.

Checkpoints occur between the stages of the cell cycle. If a cell does not meet certain criteria at the end of a stage, it will not move to the next stage.

Which of these occurs just before the cell enters the G2 stage of the cell cycle?

a)

The nuclear membrane disintegrates.

b)

DNA replicates.

c)

Centrioles form.

d)

The nucleolus divides.

208.

This model of the cell cycle includes two arrows that each represent a process in the cycle.

What do the two arrows represent?

a)

Arrow 1 represents prophase, and Arrow 2 represents interphase.

b)

Arrow 1 represents mitosis, and Arrow 2 represents meiosis.

c)

Arrow 1 represents interphase, and Arrow 2 represents mitosis.

d)

Arrow 1 represents meiosis, and Arrow 2 represents prophase.

209.

The activities in the cell cycle occur during specific phases. In which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?

a)

Mitosis

b)

G1 Phase

c)

G2 Phase

d)

S Phase

210.

Telophase is a stage of a cellular process that begins after the chromosomes have moved to opposite poles of the cell. During which cellular process does telophase occur?

a)

Translation

b)

Interphase

c)

Transcription

d)

Mitosis

211.

Part of the cell cycle is shown in this simplified model.

This part of the cell cycle is best described as the process that —

a)

duplicates the DNA

b)

completes cell division

c)

maintains genetic homeostasis

d)

synthesizes new molecules

212.

People who have leukemia, a cancer that affects white blood cells, are often given Cytarabine. This drug inhibits the synthesis of DNA. Which phase of the cell cycle is most affected by Cytarabine?

a)

G1 phase

b)

S phase

c)

G2 phase

d)

M phase

213.

DNA damage is detected during a G2 checkpoint before entering mitosis. The damage is repaired first and then they enter mitosis. Why is DNA damage repaired before cells enter mitosis?

a)

So that the cytoplasm can be divided equally between the two daughter cells

b)

So that healthy daughter cells are produced, allowing the organism to continue to grow

c)

So that another round of DNA synthesis does not have to take place

d)

So that the chromosomes can align at the metaphase plate during mitosis

214.

Oncogenes are mutated forms of genes that can transform a cell into a tumor cell. How do oncogenes lead to tumor formation?

a)

Somatic cell growth is inhibited

b)

Antibody activity is unregulated

c)

Cell division is unregulated

d)

ATP production is inhibited

215.
Cells need to bring in molecules to carry out cellular processes. Often, this requires moving the molecules across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient. How do these molecules get into the cell?
a)
passive transport by diffusion
b)
active transport using ATP 
c)
passive transport by osmosis
d)
 osmosis
216.
A person with swollen gums rinses his mouth with warm salt water, and the swelling decreases. Which of the following has occurred?
a)
The swollen gums have absorbed the saltwater solution.
b)
The saltwater solution lowers the temperature of the water in the gums.
c)
The salt in the solution has moved against the concentration gradient.
d)
The water in the gums has moved out due to the high concentration of salt in the solution. 
217.
The cell membrane of the red blood cell will allow water, oxygen, and carbon dioxide to pass through. Because other substances are blocked from entering, this membrane is called
a)
perforated
b)
semi-permeable
c)
non-conducive
d)
permeable
218.
 Look at the diagram of a cross-section of a cell membrane below. The cell membrane controls movement of materials into and out of the cell. The following particles are moving from high concentration to low concentration and are using a carrier protein. How would you describe this type of movement across the membrane? 
a)
simple osmosis
b)
active transport
c)
simple diffusion
d)
facilitated diffusion
219.
Look at the cross section of a cell membrane of a eukaryotic cell. H+ ions are being pumped from a low concentration to a high concentration. How do you describe this type of transport across the cell membrane?
a)
active transport
b)
passive transport
c)
facilitated diffusion
d)
co-transport
220.
 In pure water, a red blood cell from an animal will swell and burst, but a leaf cell from a plant will not. Which structure in the leaf cell is responsible for this difference?
a)
cell membrane
b)
cell wall
c)
 mitochondrion
d)
nucleus
221.
Which activity can occur without the use of energy?
a)
contraction of muscle tissue
b)
protein synthesis in a cell
c)
active transport of minerals
d)
movement of water across a membrane
222.
The amount of particles in a given space.
a)
diffusion
b)
concentration
c)
permeable
d)
active transport
223.
When the concentration of particles inside of a cell is the same as the concentration of particles outside of the cell. 
a)
active transport
b)
concentration
c)
diffusion
d)
equilibrium
224.
The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
a)
Osmosis
b)
Respiration
c)
Diffusion
d)
Active Transport
225.
Cells transport material across a cell membrane without using energy (high to low concentration)
a)
Passive transport
b)
Concentration
c)
Endocytosis
d)
Active Transport
226.
Particles are removed from a cell (pushed out).
a)
Endocytosis
b)
Exocytosis
c)
Permeable
d)
In high concentration
227.
A cell membrane has pores that allow certain materials to pass through. This is a type of cell membrane.
a)
Permeable
b)
In high concentration
c)
At equilibrium
d)
In low concentration
228.
Which of the following is an example of osmosis?
a)
Oxygen exiting leaves after photosynthesis
b)
A raisin swelling in a cup of water
c)
Water changing from a liquid to a gas
d)
Oxygen moving into an animal cell
229.

Which example describes diffusion?

a)

Water moving across a semi-permeable membrane

b)

Baking cookies and smelling them throughout the house

c)

Ions moving through an ion channel

d)

All of the above

230.

Which describes a hypotonic environment?

a)

Too much water in the cell will cause the cell to burst - the percentage of water is higher outside the cell than inside the cell

b)

Too little water in the cell will cause the cell to shrink - the percentage of water is lower outside the cell than inside the cell

c)

Concentrations of water are equal inside and outside the cell

231.

Which describes a hypertonic environment?

a)

Too much water in the cell will cause the cell to burst - the percentage of water is higher outside the cell than inside the cell

b)

Too little water in the cell will cause the cell to shrink - the percentage of water is lower outside the cell than inside the cell

c)

Concentrations of water are equal inside and outside the cell

232.

Which describes an isotonic environment?

a)

Too much water in the cell will cause the cell to burst - the percentage of water is higher outside the cell than inside the cell

b)

Too little water in the cell will cause the cell to shrink - the percentage of water is lower outside the cell than inside the cell

c)

Concentrations of water are equal inside and outside the cell

233.

The movement of materials from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration would require...

a)

glucose

b)

energy (ATP)

c)

fish

d)

chips

234.

A student put some drops of Lugol’s iodine solution into the water in the beaker shown above. The water turned red. After a short time, the starch solution inside the dialysis tubing turned black. Which function of the cell membrane was the student demonstrating?

a)

active transport of hydrogen ions

b)

diffusion through a permeable membrane

c)

facilitated diffusion of starch

d)

diffusion through a semipermeable membrane

235.

A student was observing Elodea submerged in a solution with a microscope. The student observed the cell cytoplasm pull away from the cell wall and clump together in the center of the cell.

Which statement best explains why this occurred?

a)

The cell was submerged in a pure solution.

b)

The cell was submerged in a hypotonic solution.

c)

The cell was submerged in an isotonic solution.

d)

The cell was submerged in a hypertonic solution.

236.

If a cell’s cytoplasm contains 40% salt, which of the following best describes the concentration of H2O in the cytoplasm?

a)

100%

b)

60%

c)

30%

d)

10%

237.

A student is analyzing samples of red blood cells using a microscope. Her observations are shown.

The student observes that the shape of Cell A appears normal, while Cell B appears swollen and Cell C is shrunken. The apparent shrinking of Cell C indicates the reaction of the cell to what?

a)

an anaerobic environment outside the cell

b)

higher solute concentration outside the cell than inside

c)

more oxygen inside the cell than what can be utilized

d)

lower solute concentration outside the cell than inside

238.

After observing cells under the microscope, the student observes that the shape of Cell A appears normal, while Cell B appears swollen and Cell C is shrunken. The appearance of cell B indicates the reaction of the cell to what?

a)

higher solute concentration outside the cell than inside

b)

a solute concentration that is the same as that inside the cell

c)

a cell that closed it's membrane to osmosis/diffusion

d)

lower solute concentration outside the cell than inside

239.

The picture above shows a cell model and the solutions associated with it. In this situation the cell model will...

a)

gain water

b)

lose water

c)

increase in solute concentration

d)

both gain and lose water

240.

The diagram above shows three plant cells surrounded by water. Plant cell A exists in an environment where the cell remains the same because -

a)

The net movement of water into and out of the cell is equal.

b)

Water moves out of the cell at a greater rate than into the cell.

c)

Water moves into the cell at a greater rate than out of the cell.

d)

The salinity of the environment causes the plant cell to shrink.

241.

The diagram illustrates the movement of molecules through a cell membrane.

What process is the cell using to move the molecules?

a)

osmosis

b)

endocytosis

c)

active transport

d)

facilitated diffusion

242.

The diagram above shows three plant cells surrounded by water. Plant cell B exists in an environment where the cell loses water because -

a)

The net movement of water into and out of the cell is equal.

b)

Water moves out of the cell at a greater rate than into the cell.

c)

Water moves into the cell at a greater rate than out of the cell.

d)

The salinity of the environment causes the plant cell to shrink.

243.

The diagram above shows three plant cells surrounded by water. Plant cell C exists in an environment where the cell gains water because -

a)

The net movement of water into and out of the cell is equal.

b)

Water moves out of the cell at a greater rate than into the cell.

c)

Water moves into the cell at a greater rate than out of the cell.

d)

The salinity of the environment causes the plant cell to shrink.

244.

The diagram illustrates the use of energy by a nerve cell to expel a sodium ion from inside of the cell.

Which best explains why energy is necessary to complete this function?

a)

The ion has more kinetic energy than surrounding molecules.

b)

The ion is being transported against a concentration gradient.

c)

The ion is a waste product that is digested by the cell membrane.

d)

The ion is too large to pass through the cell membrane by diffusion.

245.

In the diagram, the dots represent small molecules. The molecules are moving out of the cells, as indicated by the arrows. The number of dots inside and outside of the two cells represents the relative concentrations of the molecules inside and outside of the cells.

Which cell(s) must use ATP energy to move the molecules out of the cell?

a)

Cell A

b)

Cell B

c)

Both cell A and B

d)

Neither cell A nor B

246.

In the diagram below, the dots represent small molecules. The molecules are moving out of the cells, as indicated by the arrows. The number of dots inside and outside of the two cells represents the relative concentrations of the molecules inside and outside of the cells.

Which cell(s) does not use energy/ATP to move the molecules out of the cell?

a)

Cell A

b)

Cell B

c)

Both cell A and B

d)

Neither cell A nor B

247.

Which of these best explains why a saltwater aquarium would be a dangerous habitat for a freshwater fish?

a)

Their cells would absorb too much oxygen.

b)

Their cells would gain too much water.

c)

The cells would lose too much water.

d)

A saltwater aquarium is not a dangerous

habitat for a freshwater fish.

248.

Cell transport occurs at the cell membrane. The diagram below shows the fluid mosaic model of a cell membrane. Which of the following correctly describes the fatty acids that make up the phospholipid tails of the membrane?

a)

They are hydrophilic and therefore are dissolved in water.

b)

They are hydrophobic and therefore repel water.

c)

They are made of protein.

d)

They are located on the external surface of the membrane due to their attraction to water.

249.

Which of the following best describes the difference between diffusion and osmosis?

a)

Diffusion is the movement of molecules from low to high concentration and osmosis is the movement of molecules from high to low concentration.

b)

Diffusion requires energy but osmosis does not.

c)

Diffusion is the movement of particles from high to low concentration and osmosis is specifically the movement of water molecules from a high to low concentration.

d)

Diffusion and osmosis are the same thing.

250.

Some students use vinegar to dissolve away the shells of three eggs and use these eggs as models of human red blood cells. The students observed the changes in the eggs when they were placed in different solutions.

Which statement best describes the role of the cell membrane in this model?

a)

The cell membrane is an impermeable barrier that prevents water from entering the cell.

b)

The cell membrane allows solutes to enter the cell, which causes the cell to shrink.

c)

Cell membrane allows water to enter and leave the cell.

d)

The cell membrane remove solutes from the environment.

251.

A type of cellular transport is shown.

Which description best identifies this type of transport.

a)

Active transport, because energy is being used to move molecules against the concentration gradient

b)

Facilitated diffusion, because energy is being used to move molecules with the concentration gradient

c)

Osmosis, because energy is not being used to move molecules with the concentration gradient

d)

Endocytosis, because energy is not being used to move molecules against the concentration gradient

252.

The diagram illustrates the activity of vesicles during a cellular process.

Which statement best explains process taking place?

a)

endocytosis

b)

exocytosis

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

osmosis

253.

Transmembrane proteins span the width of cell membranes. Four types of transmembrane proteins are shown in a section of cell membrane.

Although these proteins have different specific functions, they all-

a)

stop chemical reactions within the cell

b)

synthesize molecules that signal other cells

c)

help the cell interact with its external environment

d)

remove large waste particles from the cytoplasm of the cell

254.

How is facilitated diffusion different from simple diffusion?

a)

they both happen through the membrane

b)

facilitated diffusion uses a protein channel in the membrane

c)

facilitated diffusion can move molecules against the concentration gradient

d)

simple diffusion uses channels

255.

What is happening in the diagram?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Passive transport

d)

Active transport

256.

What is happening in the diagram?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Passive transport

d)

Active transport

257.

In this diagram, molecules are moving _________ the concentration gradient.

a)

with

b)

against

258.

What is happening in this picture?

a)

diffusion

b)

osmosis

c)

active transport

259.

In this diagram, molecules are moving _______ the concentration gradient.

a)

with

b)

against

260.

Water moves across a semipermeable membrane from an area of greater concentration to an area of lesser concentration.

a)

diffusion

b)

osmosis

c)

active transport

261.

When a molecule moves from an area of more molecules to an area of less molecules the molecule is...

a)

moving against the concentration gradient

b)

moving down/with the concentration gradient

262.

The process shown is ________ which is a form of __________ transport.

a)

exocytosis/active

b)

exocytosis/passive

c)

endocytosis/active

d)

endocytosis/passive

263.

The diagram shows _____________ which is a form of __________ transport.

a)

endocytosis / passive

b)

endocytosis / active

c)

exocytosis / passive

d)

exocytosis / active