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4th???

Total questions: 165

Worksheet time: 1hrs 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The location of a place using the latitude-longitude grid is called: 
a)
A.  referenced location 
b)
A.  central location
c)
A.  relative location
d)
A.  absolute location 
2.
The location of a place in relationship to other places or features around it is called: 
a)
absolute location
b)
relative location
c)
site
d)
situation
3.
Scale is…                                     
a)
the system used by geographers to transfer locations  from a globe to a map
b)
the extent of spread of a phenomenon over a given area
c)
 the difference in elevation between two points in an area
d)
 the relationship between the length of an object on a map and that feature on the landscape
4.
The process of the spread of an idea and/or dissemination of an innovation from its source area to other cultures, is the process of cultural: 
a)
diffusion
b)
simultaion
c)
adaptation
d)
movement
5.
The physical qualities of the original location for a city is referred to as the
a)
site
b)
situation
c)
relative location
d)
absolute location
6.
The layering of geographic data by computers into data sets is known as: 
a)
GPS
b)
GIS
c)
ENSO
d)
OPEC
7.
Geographers usually categorize cultural diffusion into the two broad categories of 
a)
 Expansion and hierarchical
b)
Contagious and stimulus
c)
 Expansion and relocation
d)
 Migrant and hierarchical
8.
The visible imprint put on the environment by people is called?
a)
Cultural Landscape
b)
Place
c)
Location
d)
Human Environment Interaction
9.
What is it called when you take a 3D image and put it onto a 2D surface?
a)
Cartogram
b)
Projection
c)
Globe
d)
Instagram
10.
Asking the question "why is something found in a particular place", is using which theme of geography?
a)
Place
b)
Movement
c)
Human Environment Interaction
d)
Location
11.
Which type of location does not change?
a)
Absolute
b)
Relative
c)
Positive
d)
Negative
12.
If you have not been to a place, but have developed negative feelings about it based off of what you heard in the news or from a friend, you would be using:
a)
Sense of place
b)
Perceptions of place
c)
Movement
d)
Human Environment Interaction
13.
Measuring the distance people are willing to travel to shop at a store would be creating what type of region for that store?
a)
Formal
b)
Perceptual
c)
Functional
d)
Uniform
14.
The imprint that humans leave, such as buildings, roads, cemeteries, etc. are all considered to be part of the:
a)
Location
b)
Region
c)
Cultural Landscape
d)
Move
15.
Billy thinks that in the south, everyone eats grits, eats fried chicken and watches football.  He would be creating what type of region of the south with these ideas?
a)
Formal
b)
Functional
c)
Perceptual
d)
Uniform
16.
Telecommunication networks, whose areas of service radiate outward from central nodes best represent which of the following types of culture?
a)
Vernacular
b)
Formal
c)
Folk
d)
Functional
17.
The spread of ideas, inventions, or patterns of behavior is called ____.
a)
acculturation
b)
innovation
c)
cultural hearth
d)
diffusion
18.
Which of the following divides Earth into Eastern and Western Hemispheres?
a)
Prime Meridian
b)
Hemisphere Line
c)
Equator
d)
Tropic of Capricorn
19.
Which type of map would show the boundaries of countries?
a)
vegetation map
b)
political map
c)
land-use map
d)
elevation map
20.
What is the difference between absolute and relative location?
a)
Absolute location is the exact location of something.
b)
Absolute cannot be identified using lines of latitude or longitude.
c)
Absolute describes where something is compared to another place.
d)
Absolute location describes the characteristics of a place.
21.
Places that share similar characteristics are called 
a)
human systems
b)
environments
c)
regions
d)
physical systems
22.
What is remote sensing?
a)
analyzing different types of data
b)
tracking changes on Earth's surface
c)
using software to combine data
d)
getting information from far away
23.
Which of the following is not a use of GPS?
a)
tracking airplanes
b)
determine when a volcano will erupt
c)
help farmers in their fields
d)
provide driving directions to a destination
24.
Which of the following shows places on the Earth's surface the most accurately?
a)
thematic maps
b)
globes
c)
general-purpose maps
d)
physical maps
25.
Imaginary North-South line that passes through Greenwich, England, and has a value of 0 degrees
a)
latitude
b)
longitude
c)
relief
d)
scale
26.
map that shows specialized information, such as a land-use map, or any other physical or human feature
a)
thematic map
b)
general-purpose map
c)
climate map
d)
topographic map
27.
What organizes Earth into geographic areas with one or more shared characteristics?
a)
areas
b)
places
c)
countries
d)
regions
28.
What are lines on a globe drawn in an east-west direction and measured in degrees?
a)
longitude
b)
latitude
c)
grid
d)
equator
29.
Environment influences, but does not strictly determine, how a culture interacts with the environment.
a)
Environmental Determinism
b)
Environmental Possibilism
c)
Cultural Determinism
d)
Cultural Environmentalism
30.
The physical environment causes social and cultural development.
a)
Cultural Environmentalism
b)
Environmental Possibilism
c)
Environmental Determinism
d)
Cultural Possibilism
31.
Culture is spread by...
a)
Movement of people
b)
TV and Internet
c)
War and conquest
d)
All are correct
32.
a particular portion of space, whether of definite or indefinite extent.
a)
Location
b)
Place
c)
Region
d)
formal Region
33.
a large indefinite area or range of something specified; sphere:
a)
Locatioin
b)
Place
c)
Region
d)
Formal Region
34.
defined formally by government or other structures, such as cities, states, and mountain ranges
a)
Location
b)
Place
c)
region
d)
formal region
35.
made up of a central place and surrounding areas affected by it. Often, this is a metropolitan area that consists of a major city and lots of smaller towns or cities that surround it.
a)
functional region
b)
perceptual region
c)
cultural landscape
d)
free enterprise
36.

The science of making maps

a)

Cartography

b)

Geography

c)

Biology

d)

Historiography

37.

The precise point where a place is located on Earth

a)

Relative location

b)

Coordiantes

c)

Absolute location

d)

Place

38.

Specific human and physical characteristics of a location

a)

Location

b)

Position

c)

Place

39.

Number of something in a specifically defined area

a)

Scale

b)

Density

c)

Diffusion

40.

The ratio between the size of things in the real world and the size of those same things on a map

a)

Disorient

b)

Distortion

c)

Scale

d)

Projection

41.

A system that determines accurately the precise position of something on Earth through satellites, tracking stations, and receivers

a)

GIS

b)

GPS

42.

Process of gathering data about Earth from instruments far above the planet's surface

a)

GPS

b)

Remote sensing

c)

Referencing

43.

Maps designed for people to refer to for general information about places

a)

Thematic

b)

Reference

c)

Dot distribution

44.

A projection of a map of the world onto a cylinder in such a way that all the parallels of latitude have the same length as the equator

a)

Mercator projection

b)

Robinson projection

c)

Peters projection

45.

Maps that people create in their minds based on their experience and knowledge

a)

Imaginary map

b)

Mental map

c)

Thematic map

d)

Topographic map

46.

Viewpoint that people, not environments, are the dynamic forces of cultural development

a)

Possibilities

b)

Probabilism

c)

Possibilism

47.

The use of Earth's renewable and nonrenewable natural resources in ways that do not constrain resource use in the future.

a)

Sustainability

b)

Preservation

c)

Reservation

48.

The expansion of economic, political, and cultural processes to the point that they become global in scale and impact.

a)

Diffusion

b)

Globalization

c)

Political ties

49.

What are the two main questions in Human Geography

a)

What and How

b)

Who and When

c)

Where and Why

50.

Environmental determinism is the belief that

a)

the physical environment shapes humans and their actions.

b)

humans alter the physical environment to suit their needs

c)

there is no relationship between people & environment

d)

the environment limits geographers

e)

capitalist economies contribute to global warming

51.

What is the technique that collect information from the earth from a distance?

a)

Geographic Information Systems

b)

Global Positioning Systems

c)

Remote Sensing

d)

Ethnography

e)

Demography

52.

Which map would have the smallest scale?

a)

Snellville

b)

Gwinnett County

c)

Georgia

d)

United States

e)

World

53.

A hiker would use

a)

an isoline map

b)

a choropleth map

c)

a graduated symbol map

d)

a small scale map

e)

a political map

54.

Cell phones have contributed to

a)

possibilism

b)

networks

c)

time-space compression

d)

regionalism

e)

density

55.

Bible Belt is an example of

a)

formal region

b)

semi-formal region

c)

functional region

d)

perceptual region

e)

nodal region

56.

Which is a toponym?

a)

a map of landforms

b)

Stone Mountain, GA

c)

the capital city

d)

the a map of continents

e)

a map of counties

57.

Distance-decay function means

a)

the greater the distance, the less connection

b)

the smaller the distance, the more connection

c)

the greater the distance, the more connection

d)

the smaller the distance, the less connection

e)

both a & b

58.

The frequency of occurrence in an area is called

a)

density

b)

distribution

c)

sequence

d)

pattern

e)

interconnection

59.

An example of qualitative data is

a)

data showing age distribution

b)

measurements of distance made by GPS

c)

census counts of population totals

d)

personal descriptions of events

60.
The location of a place based on nearby characteristics.
a)
site
b)
regionalism
c)
situation
d)
place
61.
The increasing connectivity between people across the globe due to technology that leads to people and places feeling closer 
a)
Space Time Compression
b)
Space
c)
Time Zone
d)
Perceptual/Vernacular Region
62.
Relationship and arrangement of objects on the Earth's surface. 
a)
scale
b)
pattern
c)
site
d)
distortion
63.
The change in size, shape, direction, or distance of something once a globe is converted to a map. 
a)
Cartography
b)
map
c)
distortion
d)
scale
64.
the space between two objects
a)
time
b)
space
c)
distance
d)
scale
65.

Which of the regions has the highest population concentration?

a)

Southeast Asia

b)

East Asia

c)

Southern Africa

d)

Latin America

66.

What stages of the DTM see the most population growth?

a)

1 and 2

b)

2 and 3

c)

3 and 4

d)

4 and 5

67.

What stage is this population pyramid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

68.

What stage is this population pyramid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

69.

ETM Stage 3 is known as...

a)

Infectious and parasitic diseases

b)

Receding Pandemics

c)

Degenerative Diseases

d)

Delayed Degenerative Diseases

70.

Which DTM Stage has the lowest growth?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

71.

Interregional migration in the US is from

a)

Urban to rural

b)

Urban to suburban

c)

South to north

d)

Northeast to west and south

72.

Which characteristic is shared by European countries?

a)

High IMR

b)

Low NIR

c)

High CBR

d)

High CDR

73.

This population density measure can show the economic development of a country.

a)

Arithmetic Density

b)

Physiological Density

c)

Crude Density

d)

Agricultural Density

74.

Which country has anti-natalist policies?

a)

Japan

b)

German

c)

China

d)

United States

75.

According to Ravenstein long distances migrants settle in

a)

Urban areas

b)

Rural areas

c)

United States

d)

Small Towns

76.

The first wave of migration to the US came from

a)

Northern and Western Europe

b)

Asia

c)

Latin America

d)

Southern and Eastern Europe

77.

What is an internally displaced person?

a)

Someone who has been forced to migrate but has not crossed international boundaries

b)

Someone who has fled to a foreign country and is seeking asylum

c)

Someone who has voluntarily moved to a country in search of a job

d)

Someone who has been forced to migrate fearing for their life

78.
In many countries, people are more likely to live where?
a)
Coastal Regions
b)
Inland/Interior Regions
c)
Arid Regions
d)
In rural regions
79.
Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 largest population clusters in the world?
a)
East Asia
b)
Europe
c)
South Asia
d)
Southeast Asia
80.
 A nation with a large number of farmers per unit of arable land would have a high:
a)
Agricultural Density 
b)
Arithmetic Densoty 
c)
Physiological Density 
d)
Population Density 
81.
Which of the following events would not change the arithmetic density of a nation?
a)
Annexation of new territory 
b)
an increasing natural increase rate 
c)
movement of people from rural to urban areas 
d)
a war with a large number of deaths 
82.
To determine the carrying capacity of a territory, which measure of density should we use?
a)
agricultural density 
b)
arithmetic density 
c)
physiological density 
d)
population density 
83.
A Less Developed Country in Stage 2 of the Demographic Transition Model would have a:
a)
high crude birht rate 
b)
low crud birth rate 
c)
low natural increase rate 
d)
high standard of living 
84.
A Less Developed Country in Stage 2 of the Demographic Transition Model would have a:
a)
high elder dependency ratio 
b)
low natural inrease rate 
c)
a "bottom-heavy" population pyramid 
d)
low infant mortality rate 
85.
Population control policies have often led to:
a)
high dependency ratio 
b)
low crude birth rates 
c)
high crude death rates 
d)
imbalanced sex ratios 
86.
Crude birth rates would likely be high in all of the following regions EXCEPT:
a)
africa 
b)
asia 
c)
europe 
d)
latin america 
87.
 Which of the following practices does not help to reduce birth rates?
a)
Providing more educational opportunities to women 
b)
Improving economic conditions for all 
c)
Government- sponsored population control policies 
d)
Teaching consumers to be fiscally responsible 
88.
A country in stage 1 of the DTM would likely have:
a)
high total fertility rate and high infant mortality rate 
b)
high total fertility rate and low infant mortality rate 
c)
low total fertility rate and high infant mortality rate 
d)
low total fertility rate and low infant mortality rate 
89.
Doubling time would be shortest in a country in which stage of the DTM?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
90.
Which of the following statements is true?
a)
more developed countries have high fertility rates 
b)
less developed countries have high fertility rates 
c)
there is no correlation between development and fertility 
d)
less developed countries ave low fertility rates 
91.
During which stage of the Epidemiological Transition Model do pandemics diminish in occurrence?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
92.
Countries in which stage of the DTM would experience high emigration?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
93.

According to Ravenstein's Laws of Migration, which of the following would likely not happen?

a)

movement from rural areas to urban areas

b)

long distance migration to cities

c)

migration of single women over long distances

d)

step migration

94.
Sometimes, immigrants will send money home to their family; this is known as:
a)
Chain migration 
b)
remittance 
c)
repatriation 
d)
step migration 
95.
In Qatar, a large number of __________ are building facilities for the 2022 World Cup.
a)
unauthorized immigrants 
b)
forced migrants 
c)
guest workers 
d)
refugees 
96.
 An immigrant to the United States in 1783 would have likely come from where?
a)
England 
b)
Germany 
c)
Mexico 
d)
Vietnam 
97.

Over the past century, the population of the world has been...

a)

growing even though the fertility rate is decreasing

b)

growing even though the life expectancy is decreasing

c)

growing because the fertility rate is increasing

d)

declining because life expectancy is decreasing

98.

According to Ravenstein, people tend to migrate

a)

From urban areas to rural areas

b)

starting around age 48

c)

as long a distance as possible

d)

From rural areas to urban areas

99.

On the Demographic Transition Model, which stage(s) is/are characterized by HIGH death rates, High BIRTH RATES, but LOW populations.

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stages 4 and 5

100.

This country most likely is in which stage of the Demographic Transition Model?

a)

stage 1

b)

stage 2

c)

stage 3

d)

stage 5

101.

Barriers that get in the way of a person's migration are known as...

a)

Gender inequalities

b)

intervening obstacles

c)

Urbanization

d)

Ravenstein's Laws of Migration

102.

When women in developing countries become educated...

a)

The death rate increases

b)

the country enters stage 5 of the Epidemiological Transition Model

c)

the agricultural density increases

d)

Fertility rates decrease

103.

Which generalization is best illustrated by the world map shown?

a)

Climate is the primary factor influencing population distribution

b)

People are spread out evenly throughout the world

c)

The majority of the worlds population lives between 30° North and 60° North latitude

d)

More people live in the Western Hemisphere been in the Eastern Hemisphere

e)

People have preserved fertile land for farming by choosing to settle heavily in areas with poor farmland

104.

Which country has the lowest arithmetic population density?

a)

Egypt

b)

The United States

c)

Australia

d)

India

e)

France

105.

The Nile River Valley has the greatest concentration of population Egypt because of its?

a)

Alpine climate

b)

Tourist Attractions

c)

Extensive migration from nearby areas

d)

Many sacred sites

e)

High quality agricultural land

106.

Which might explain the asymmetrical part of the population pyramid?

a)

A high death rate among men aged 20 to 50

b)

A large temporary immigrant worker population

c)

An over counting of children during the census

d)

An epidemic with high rate of mortality among the elderly

e)

A major war fought in the years 2006 to 2010

107.

Which statement about birth is best supported by the pyramid?

a)

More births occurred in 1956 than in 1966

b)

more births occurred in 1986 than in 2006

c)

the number steadily increased between 1956 and 2016

d)

the number steadily decreased between 1956 and 2016

e)

fewer births occurred in 2016 and 2011

108.

Based on the map, where is there a high population density?

a)

Along the East Coast

b)

Along the West Coast

c)

Around the Rocky Mountains

d)

In Southeast

109.

What is an ecumene?

a)

The climate, landforms, and bodies of water which make up a living space for animals and humans

b)

The physical features of the earth surface - physical features

c)

The uninhabited places on earth

d)

The inhabited places on earth

110.

What is the arithmetic density?

a)

The amount of farmers within the arable land of a certain area

b)

The amount of people within the arable land of a certain area

c)

The amount of people in a certain area

d)

The amount of people in developed areas

111.

What is physiological density?

a)

The amount of farmers within the arable land of a certain area

b)

The amount of people within the arable land of a certain area

c)

The amount of people in a certain area

d)

The amount of people within a developed area

112.

The physiological density is more useful than arithmetic density when trying to determine a region's what?

a)

Population distribution

b)

Physical features

c)

Carrying Capacity

d)

Human Features

113.

Why is carrying capacity important to know about when looking at population density?

a)

Because it describes what population can be supported in order to export to other countries

b)

Because it describes how much population the land can support without environmental deterioration

c)

Because it shows that all countries can produce higher yields so that they do not need to import food

d)

Because it shows the development of the land

114.

Why is there a higher agricultural density in less developed countries?

a)

Because in less developed countries there is less of a need for farmers due to technology

b)

Because more developed countries need more farmers to supply a larger food source

c)

Because in less developed countries there are more farmers due to being an economy based on labor

d)

Because in more developed countries there is a high demand for jobs

115.

Why might an area suffer if the Total Fertility Rate is too low?

a)

Because they won't be able to have as many individuals in the pre-productive stage to replenish the current population

b)

Because they won't be able to have as many workers, so it might stop them from progressing

c)

Because they are a post-industrial country so they will need more workers

d)

Because the country has reached the carrying capacity

116.

If the mortality rate, infant mortality rate, and child mortality rate are low what does that mean?

a)

The country has good access to healthcare and proper nutrition

b)

The country has reached its carrying capacity so they need more population

c)

The country has a pronatalist policy to encourage more population

d)

The country does not have good access to healthcare nor proper nutrition

117.

What is the rate of natural increase?

a)

It is a statistic that compares the infant death rate and the child mortality rate

b)

It is a statistic that compares the immigration and emigration to a country

c)

It is a statistic that compares the birth rate and death rate of a country for population growth or decline

d)

It is a statistic that compares arithmetic and physiological population density

118.

What is population doubling time?

a)

The amount of time it takes for a population in a given area to double it is calculated with "the rule of 50"

b)

The amount of time it takes for a population in a given area to double it is calculated with "the rule of 70"

c)

The amount of time it takes for an area's RNI to double

d)

The amount of time it takes for a population in a given area to decrease by two

119.

According to Ravenstein's laws of migration what does it say about the distance migrants travel?

a)

Only children travel long distances

b)

Only women travel far away from their homeland

c)

A majority of them go long distances

d)

A majority of them go only a short distance

120.

What does Ravenstein's Laws of Migration say about women?

a)

Females are more likely to migrate internationally

b)

Females are more migratory within their area of birth

c)

Females are more likely to travel with a group to economic centers

d)

All of these

121.

People who leave their home state and apply for protection in their destination state is what?

a)

Asylum Seekers

b)

Internally displaced persons

c)

Immigrants

d)

Migrants

122.

Livestock herders move their animals during winter is an example of what?

a)

Transnational Migration

b)

Refugees

c)

Internally Displaced Persons

d)

Transhumance

123.

Most migration is what?

a)

Urban to Rural

b)

Rural to Urban

c)

Transnational

d)

Chain migration

124.
There are NO countries in which stage?
a)
Stage 3
b)
Stage 2
c)
Stage 4
d)
Stage 1
125.

Generally, if the GNP(Gross National Product) increases the birth rate of that country?

a)

decreases

b)

increases slowly

c)

doesn't change

d)

increases rapidly

126.
The ratio of people who are too young or too old to work compared to the working population is called the
a)
dependency ratio
b)
population pyramid
c)
interconnected ratio
d)
retirement ratio
127.
The average number of children a woman will have in her lifetime is the
a)
birth rate or CBR
b)
natural increase or NIR
c)
mortality rate
d)
total fertility rate or TFR
128.
The ___________ __________ stabilized the world's population 10,000 years ago.
a)
Industrial Revolution
b)
Reformation
c)
Black Plague
d)
Agricultural Revolution
129.
Which US quota laws were aimed at making sure most immigrants were from Europe?
a)
Immigration Act of 1965
b)
1978 Global Quotas
c)
Immigration Act of 1990
d)
Quota Act of 1921 and National Origin Act of 1924
130.
Since the 1980s most US In-Migration has come from
a)
Europe
b)
East Asia
c)
Latin America
d)
South Asia
131.
Most migrants move for 
a)
economic reasons
b)
cultural reasons
c)
environmental reasons
d)
persecution reasons
132.
Getting up, driving to school, attending school, driving home only to do this all over again is called?
a)
inter-regional migration
b)
interstate migration
c)
chain migration
d)
circulation migration
133.
Population in the US originally moved west but has more recently begun to move where?
a)
been stationary
b)
moved north
c)
moved south
d)
moved back east
134.
Who is migratory over LONG distances?
a)
women with children
b)
young unmarried men
c)
old people
d)
young families
135.
Brain drain is
a)
when you can't come up with the answer on a test
b)
emigration from MDCs to LDCs
c)
emigration of talented and smart people
d)
forcing emigration for political reasons
136.
What is GNI?
a)
Gross National Income - the amount of money a country makes
b)
Grand National Industry - the biggest industry in a country
137.
Which three indicators are used to measure the HDI?
a)
Literacy rate, number of trees and GNI
b)
Life expectancy, schooling and GNI per capita
138.
The UN considers all but the following factors when determining a country's level of development, its HDI (Human Development Index).
a)
Life expectancy
b)
Literacy rate
c)
Income per capita
d)
Natural increase rate
139.
Which of the following is a renewable resource?
a)
hydroelectricity
b)
oil
c)
coal
d)
fossil fuel
140.
GDP PPP shows..
a)
The total income of a country
b)
How much people earn on average
c)
How much you can buy with your money
141.
Created by Wallerstein to show that the world is interconnected and that we are all interdependent on each other.  Divides us into three tiers of economic prosperity.
a)
Dependency Theory
b)
Neo liberal counterrevolution
c)
structural adjustment loan
d)
World Systems theory
142.
Farming, mining, fishing, and forestry are all considered to be
a)
Primary Economic Activities
b)
Secondary Economic Activities
c)
Tertiary Economic Activities
d)
Quaternary Economic Activities
143.
Where are most core countries located?
a)
Western Hemisphere
b)
Eastern Hemisphere
c)
Northern Hemisphere
d)
Southern Hemisphere
144.
Which region of the world has no core countries?
a)
North America
b)
Western Europe
c)
Oceania
d)
Sub-Saharan Africa
145.
Which types of countries' economies rely primarily on primary economic activities?
a)
Core Countries
b)
NICs
c)
Semi-Periphery Countries
d)
Periphery Countries
146.
Mexico, China, Russia, India, Brazil, and South Africa are all
a)
peripheral countries
b)
MDCs
c)
core countries
d)
semi-peripheral countries
147.
This model shows how countries can become developed through 5 stages of increased international trade and modernization. 
a)
Rostow 
b)
Wallerstein
c)
 Self-Sufficiency
d)
fair trade
148.
Which movement has aims to improve economic prospects for producers and laborers in LDCs?
a)
fair trade 
b)
maquiladora movement
c)
sustainability initiative
d)
World Trade Organization
149.
What is infant mortality rate?
a)
the number of infant born in an area 
b)
none of the above
c)
the number of infants who die for every thousand births 
150.
What factors affect life expectancy?
a)
level of poverty
b)
diet and nutrition
c)
number of doctors
d)
all of the above
151.
What is per capita income?
a)
the total amount of money a country makes in a year
b)
the average amount of money earned by each person in a country
c)
the amount of capital a person owns
d)
none of the above 
152.
How is Self-Sufficiency acomplished
a)
Making it difficult to export
b)
high import taxes
c)
quotas on imports
d)
ALL
153.
What is GDI
a)
A process of improvement in the material conditions of people through diffusion of knowledge and technology
b)
Compares the level of development of women with that both sexes
c)
The value of the total output of goods and services produced in a country in a given time period
d)
Compares the ability of women and men to participate in economic and political decision making
154.
What job sector is teaching in?
a)
Primary
b)
Secondary
c)
Tertiary
d)
None
155.
The term used for a country with high birth rates, high death rates, little economic growth, and a high population in the primary sector.
a)
MDC
b)
LDC
c)
HDI
d)
GNP
156.
Another word for progress. . . This describes the wealth and well being of a country as it grows and prospers.
a)
Dependency Ratio
b)
Primary Sector
c)
GNI
d)
Development
157.
Shows the influence of women in a society by measuring women's income, participation in labor force, and political influence. 
a)
Human Development Index
b)
GNP
c)
Gender Empowerment Index
d)
GDP
158.
AT&T having their call centers stationed in India and China is known as what industry practice? 
a)
Agglomerations
b)
Outsourcing
c)
NAFTA
d)
Special Economic Zones
159.
If a product is heavier when it arrives at the factory than when it leaves (trees--> paper, potatoes-->chips) then the factory will be ____________ to the market
a)
closer
b)
farther 
160.
Targets generally have Best Buys, Sally Beauty Salons, Famous Footwear, JC Penny, & Petsmarts near them. This is known as what? 
a)
Maquiladora Industires
b)
Just-in-time planning
c)
Agglomerations
d)
Outsourcing
161.
According to Alfred Weber, which one of the following costs of production is the most important factor in locating a new industry?
a)
Labor
b)
Transportation
c)
Raw Materials
d)
Agglomeration Costs
162.
What are the factories in Mexico called?
a)
Mariachi
b)
Maquiladoras
c)
Commercial Factories
d)
No factories in Mexico
163.
A company which uses more than one mode of transport will often locate near what?
a)
Factory
b)
Consumer Products 
c)
Raw materials 
d)
Break-of-bulk Point
164.
 Producers of automobiles select assembly plant locations primarily for their closer access to
a)
government subsidies.
b)
raw materials
c)
water transportation.
d)
 labor markets.
165.
1.  Situation costs are critical to a firm that wishes to
a)
 avoid skilled laborers.
b)
minimize production costs inside the plant.
c)
 minimize transport costs.
d)
identify unique characteristics of a particular industry.