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Cisco - ITN7 - Chapter 16-17 Review

Total questions: 57

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following are not considered a real-time application?

a)

VoIP

b)

IP Telephony

c)

Video Conference

d)

DHCP

2.

What are three types of information gathered by a protocol analyzer? (Choose three)

a)

Source of the traffic

b)

Destination of the traffic

c)

Type of traffic

d)

Latency of the traffic

e)

Delay time of the traffic

3.

Which ping response element indicates successful receipt of the echo reply?

a)

!

b)

.

c)

U

d)

S

4.

Which ping response element indicates that time expired waiting for the echo reply?

a)

!

b)

.

c)

U

d)

S

5.

Which ping response element indicates that a router along the path is unreachable?

a)

!

b)

.

c)

U

d)

S

6.

If you type ping on a Cisco router without a destination IP address, what mode does this put you in?

a)

extended ping

b)

elaborate ping

c)

enhanced ping

d)

elated ping

7.

Using the -6 switch after the tracert command will do what?

a)

force the use of IPv6

b)

force the sending of 6 packets

c)

limit the number of hops to 6

d)

send 6 requests and stop

8.

Why is establishing a network baseline useful for monitoring and troubleshootin?

a)

It allows changes in network function to be seen

b)

It shows the initial configuration of the network

c)

It alerts the admin of any changes to the network

d)

It alerts whenever a new user is on the network

9.

Which command is used on a windows machine to determine its IP address?

a)

ipconfig

b)

ifconfig

c)

networksetup -listallnetworkservices

d)

arp -a

10.

Which command is used on a linux machine to determine its IP address?

a)

ipconfig

b)

ifconfig

c)

networksetup -listallnetworkservices

d)

arp -a

11.

Which command will verify interface status and display any error messages?

a)

show interfaces

b)

show running-config

c)

show ip route

d)

show version

12.

Which command will verify which port will be used to reach remote networks?

a)

show interfaces

b)

show running-config

c)

show ip route

d)

show version

13.

Which information is not obtained by CDP?

a)

Device identifiers

b)

Route information

c)

Address list

d)

Port Identifiers

14.

What layer does CDP operate on?

a)

Layer 3

b)

Layer 2

c)

Layer 4

d)

Layer 7

15.

True or False?

CDP can determine the neighboring devices' IP addresses.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

True or False?

CDP can be a security risk.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

True or False?

The show ip interface brief command does not show the IP address assigned to each interface on a device.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

True or False?

The show version command can be used to troubleshoot some basic hardware and shows the value of the configuration register.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

As a technician, once you have spoken to the user about their issue, what is the next step in the troubleshooting process?

a)

Establish a theory of probable cause

b)

Identify the problem

c)

Test the theory to determine cause

d)

Verify the solution and implement preventive measures

20.

As a technician, once you have put a correction in place, what would be the next step in the troubleshooting process?

a)

Establish a theory of probable cause

b)

Identify the problem

c)

Test the theory to determine cause

d)

Verify the solution and implement preventive measures

21.

Which command will show log messages on a virtual console?

a)

terminal monitor

b)

show logs

c)

debug all

d)

debug ip packet

22.

If a windows machine is setup for DHCP and has an IP address of 169.254.1.14, what is the problem?

a)

No DHCP server could be contacted

b)

The IP address is setup incorrectly

c)

The host has an incorrect DNS

d)

The IP stack is down

23.

Which command is useful for troubleshooting DNS issues?

a)

nslookup

b)

ipconfig /all

c)

show ip route

d)

arp -a

24.

Which command is used to view the arp table in a windows host?

a)

nslookup

b)

ipconfig /all

c)

show ip route

d)

arp -a

25.

Which device does not need to be factored into the IP addressing scheme?

a)

End user devices

b)

Servers and peripherals

c)

Default Gateways

d)

Remote internet routers

26.

What type of threat would involve breaking into a computer to obtain confidential information?

a)

Information theft

b)

Data loss and manipulation

c)

Identity theft

d)

Disruption of service

27.

What type of threat would involve breaking into a computer to destroy or alter data?

a)

Information theft

b)

Data loss and manipulation

c)

Identity theft

d)

Disruption of service

28.

What type of threat would involve the theft of personal information to obtain legal documents or credit?

a)

Information theft

b)

Data loss and manipulation

c)

Identity theft

d)

Disruption of service

29.

What type of threat would involve preventing users from accessing services?

a)

Information theft

b)

Data loss and manipulation

c)

Identity theft

d)

Disruption of service

30.

What type of vulnerability or weakness would be identified when examining an OS for a weakness?

a)

Technological

b)

Configuration

c)

Security Policy

d)

Physical

31.

What type of vulnerability or weakness would be from an identified threat not being configured in an ACL?

a)

Technological

b)

Configuration

c)

Security Policy

d)

Physical

32.

What type of vulnerability or weakness would be from not considering the implications of unauthorized users accessing a wireless access point?

a)

Technological

b)

Configuration

c)

Security Policy

d)

Physical

33.

Which physical threat involves physical damage to servers, end devices, or other networking devices?

a)

Hardware

b)

Environmental

c)

Electrical

d)

Maintenance

34.

Which physical threat involves temperature or humidity extremes?

a)

Hardware

b)

Environmental

c)

Electrical

d)

Maintenance

35.

Which physical threat involves brownouts?

a)

Hardware

b)

Environmental

c)

Electrical

d)

Maintenance

36.

Which physical threat involves poor cabling and poor labeling?

a)

Hardware

b)

Environmental

c)

Electrical

d)

Maintenance

37.

Which type of malware does not require a host program to propagate?

a)

Virus

b)

Worm

c)

Trojan Horse

d)

MITM

38.

Which type of malware propagates by inserting a copy of itself into another program?

a)

Virus

b)

Worm

c)

Trojan Horse

d)

MITM

39.

Which type of malware looks legitimate but is actually a harmful piece of software?

a)

Virus

b)

Worm

c)

Trojan Horse

d)

MITM

40.

Which type of network attack involves the discovery and mapping of systems, services, or vulnerabilities?

a)

Reconnaissance

b)

Access

c)

Denial of Service

d)

Man in the Middle

41.

Which type of network attack involves the unauthorized manipulation of data?

a)

Reconnaissance

b)

Access

c)

Denial of Service

d)

Man in the Middle

42.

What type of attack involves a threat actor positioned between two legitimate entities in order to gain access to information?

a)

Man in the Middle

b)

Port Redirection

c)

Trust Exploitation

d)

Password Attack

43.

What type of attack involves a brute-force attack?

a)

Man in the Middle

b)

Port Redirection

c)

Trust Exploitation

d)

Password Attack

44.

Combining multiple means of protection to secure against attack is called ________________.

a)

defense-in-depth

b)

onion skinning

c)

multiple protect method

d)

Sparton protection

45.

True or False?

"Defense-in-depth" is the same as "Layered approach"

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Which security device actively monitors a network and will automatically block a detected threat?

a)

IDS

b)

IPS

c)

VPN

d)

AAA Server

47.

Which security device passively monitors a network and will send notifications of a detected threat?

a)

IDS

b)

IPS

c)

VPN

d)

AAA Server

48.

What are the three As of AAA in cybersecurity?

a)

Authentication

b)

Authorization

c)

Accounting

d)

Availability

e)

Arbitration

49.

What is the term for proving who you are?

a)

Authentication

b)

Authorization

c)

Accounting

d)

Availability

e)

Arbitration

50.

What is the term for limiting the services available to a user?

a)

Authentication

b)

Authorization

c)

Accounting

d)

Availability

e)

Arbitration

51.

Which firewall technique uses IP addresses to determine what traffic will be permitted and what traffic will be denied?

a)

Packet Filtering

b)

Application Filtering

c)

URL Filtering

d)

Stateful Packet Inspection

52.

Which firewall technique uses port numbers to determine what traffic will be permitted and what traffic will be denied?

a)

Packet Filtering

b)

Application Filtering

c)

URL Filtering

d)

Stateful Packet Inspection

53.

Which firewall technique uses web addresses to determine what traffic will be permitted and what traffic will be denied?

a)

Packet Filtering

b)

Application Filtering

c)

URL Filtering

d)

Stateful Packet Inspection

54.

Which firewall technique uses whether or not the traffic is a response to an internal request to determine what traffic will be permitted and what traffic will be denied?

a)

Packet Filtering

b)

Application Filtering

c)

URL Filtering

d)

Stateful Packet Inspection

55.

Which is a secure method of remote access?

a)

Telnet

b)

SSH

c)

SMB

d)

HTTP

56.

Put the steps to configure Secure Shell in order:

1. Generate RSA keys

2. Use login local command

3. Configure domain name

4. Create local user

5. Use transport input SSH command

a)

5-4-3-2-1

b)

4-1-3-2-5

c)

4-3-2-5-1

d)

3-2-5-4-1

57.

Which command will show all open ports on a Cisco router?

a)

show ip ports all

b)

show ip config ports

c)

show ip interface brief

d)

show ip interface ports