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Spring 2021 Comps/NCE Review

Total questions: 215

Worksheet time: 2hrs 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

America has been called the most diverse country on the face of our planet. Counseling a client from a different social and/or cultural background is known as

a)

cross-cultural counseling

b)

multicultural counseling

c)

intercultural counseling

d)

all of the above

2.

Culture refers to

a)

customs shared by a group which distinguish it from other groups

b)

values shared by a group that are learned from others in the group

c)

attitudes, beliefs, art, and language which characterize members of a group often passed from generation to generation

d)

all of the above

3.

Our culture is more diverse than in the past. Multicultural counselors often work with persons who are culturally different. This means the client

a)

is culturally biased

b)

suffers from the diagnosis of cultural relativity

c)

belongs to a different culture from the helper

d)

present problems which deal only with culturally charged issues

4.

In order to diagnose clients from a different culture

a)

the counselor ideally will need some information regarding the specifics of the culture

b)

the counselor will find the DSM useless

c)

the counselor should rely heavily on cultural epoch theory

d)

NBCC ethics prohibit the use of DSM diagnosis

5.

In the United States, each socioeconomic group represents

a)

a separate race

b)

a separate culture

c)

the concept of color blindness

d)

a separate national culture

6.

Which therapist was not instrumental in the early years of the social psychology movement?

a)

Freud

b)

Durkheim

c)

McDougall

d)

Berne

7.

_______ and ________ would say that regardless of culture, humans have an instinct to fight.

a)

Maslow; Rogers

b)

Ellis; Harper

c)

Freud; Lorenz

d)

Glasser; Rogers

8.

______ believe that aggression is learned. Thus, a child who witnesses aggressive behavior in adults may exhibit these same or similar behaviors.

a)

instinct theorists

b)

innate aggression theorists

c)

social learning theorists

d)

followers of Erik Erikson

9.

The APGA, which became the AACE until 1992 and is now the ACA, contributed to the growth of cross-cultural counseling by

a)

the 1972 formation of the Association for Non-White Concerns in Personnel and Guidance, later known as the Association of Multicultural Counseling and Development

b)

the 1972 ethic which made it unethical to see culturally different clients without three hours of relevant graduate work in this area

c)

the 1972 ethic which required a 3000 hour practicum in order to work with culturally different clients

d)

urging nonwhites to take graduate counseling courses

10.

Daniel Levinson proposed a controversial stage-crisis view theory

a)

is the father of multicultural counseling

b)

wrote the 1978 classic Seasons of Man's Life and the 1997 sequel Seasons of a Woman's Life

c)

postulated a midlife crisis for men between ages 40 and 45 for women approximately five years earlier

d)

Both choice 2 and 3

11.

The three factors which enhance interpersonal attraction are

a)

assertiveness, anxiety, ego strength

b)

close proximity, physical attraction, similar beliefs

c)

culture, race, assertiveness

d)

ego strength, anxiety, race

12.

The term contextualization implies that

a)

multicultural counseling is the oldest subspecialty in the profession

b)

behavior must be assessed in the context of the culture in which the behavior occurs

c)

the notion of worldview is highly inaccurate

d)

projective tests are more accurate than objective measures when performing

13.

Carol Gilligan, although she was an assistant to Lawrence Kohlberg was critical of his theory of moral development

a)

as she felt it was too psychoanalytic

b)

as she felt it was too behavioristic

c)

as she felt it was not applicable to African-Americans

d)

as she felt it was more applicable to males than females

14.

________helped to popularize the multicultural counseling movement

a)

Arthur Jensen's views on IQ testing (also known as Jensenism)

b)

the Civil Rights movement

c)

Jung's feeling that all men and women from all cultures possess a collective unconscious

d)

the Tarasoff duty

15.

When a counselor speaks of a probable outcome in a case, he or she is technically referring to

a)

the prognosis

b)

the diagnosis

c)

the intervention

d)

attending behavior

16.

When a counselor speaks of what he or she believes must transpire from a psychotherapeutic standpoint, he or she technically is referring to

a)

recommendations

b)

the diagnosis

c)

the prognosis

d)

the notion of transference

17.

The 1971 famous Stanford Prison experiment conducted by Phillip Zimbardo demonstrated that

a)

passivity is the norm for most individuals

b)

assertive behavior is clearly the healthiest behavioral laternative

c)

it takes people several weeks to change their behavior

d)

people conform to social roles

18.

A wealth of research demonstrates that

a)

surprisingly enough, African Americans generally request Asian American counselors

b)

surprising enough, Asian Americans generally request African American counselors

c)

in most instances, clients prefer a counselor of the same race and a similar cultural background

d)

in most instances, clients prefer a counselor of the same race, yet a different culture

19.

The frustration-agression theory is associated with

a)

Albert Ellis

b)

Robert Havinghurst, who created the idea of the developmental task concept

c)

Eric Berne, the creator of transactional analysis (TA)

d)

John Dollard and Neal Miller

20.

A popular cognitive consistency or balance theory in social psychology is _______cognitive dissonance theory.

a)

Dollard and Miller's

b)

Crites and Roe's

c)

Festinger's

d)

Holland and Super's

21.

Culture is really a set of rules, procedures, ideas, and values shared by members of a society. Culture is said to be normative. This implies that

a)

one culture will have norms which differ only slightly from another

b)

culture excludes customs

c)

culture provides individuals with standards of conduct

d)

culture is never socially learned

22.

A statistical norm measures actual conduct, while a cultural norm

a)

describes how people are supposed to act

b)

has little to do with expectations

c)

is irrevalent when counseling a client

d)

all of the above

23.

Mores are beliefs and social customs

a)

regarding the rightness or wrongness of behavior

b)

which should be the central focus in multicultural counseling

c)

that are conscious decisions made by persons in power

d)

that are identical with the folkways in the culture

24.

______ was the first pioneer to focus heavily on sociocultural issues

a)

Mark Savickas, a major figure in career construction theory relying on narrative therapy

b)

Alfred Adler, the father of individual psychology

c)

Maxie Maultsby, the father or rational behavior therapy (RBT)

d)

Frank Parsons, the father of guidance

25.

A counselor who is part of research study will be counseling clients in the polar regions and then at a point near the equator. Her primary concern will be

a)

universal culture

b)

national culture

c)

ecological culture

d)

both answer options 2 and 3

26.

Biological similarities and sameness are indicated by

a)

ecological culture

b)

mores

c)

regional and national culture

d)

universal culture

27.

Early vocalization in infants

a)

is more complex in African American babies

b)

is more complex in white babies

c)

is nearly identical in all cultures around the globe

d)

is the finest indicator of elementary school performance

28.

In the 1920s, Emory Bogardus developed a social distance scale, which evaluated

a)

socioeconomic trents

b)

how an individual felt toward other ethnic groups

c)

disadvantaged youth

d)

language barriers between African Americans and Asian Americans

29.

According to the foot in the door compliance technique, which has two distinct steps, a counselor who needs to make a home visit to a resistant client's home

a)

should conduct the interview from the porch

b)

should double-bind the client

c)

should ask to come in the home

d)

should exude accurate empathy, but never ask to enter the home

30.

Most countries have an official language, a stated viewpoint, and a central government. This is reflected mainly by

a)

a national culture

b)

human culture

c)

regional culture

d)

ecological culture

31.

Behaviorists often utilize N=1, which is called intensive experimental design. The first step in this approach would be to

a)

consult a random number table

b)

decide on a nonparametric statistical test

c)

take a baseline measure

d)

compute the range

32.

If data indicate that students who study a lot get very high scores on state counselor licensing exams, then the correlation between study time and LPC exam scores would be

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

0.00

d)

impossible to ascertain

33.

Which of the following would most likely yield a perfect correlation of 1.00?

a)

IQ and salary

b)

ICD diagnosis and salary

c)

length in inches and length in centimeters

d)

height and weight

34.

Which level of significance would best rule out chance factors?

a)

.05

b)

.01

c)

.2

d)

.001

35.

The study that would best rule out chance factors would have a significance level of P =

a)

.05

b)

.01

c)

.001

d)

.08

36.

P= .05 means that

a)

differences truly exist; the experimenter will obtain the same results 95 times out of 100

b)

differences truly exist; the experimenter will obtain the same results 99 times out of 100

c)

there is a 95% error factor

d)

there is a 10% error factor

37.

Hypothesis testing is most closely related to the work of

a)

Robert Hoppock

b)

Sigmund Freud

c)

Lloyd Morgan

d)

R.A. Fisher

38.

Experimenters should always abide by a code of ethics. The variable you manipulate/control in an experiment is the

a)

DV

b)

dependent variable

c)

the variable you will measure to determine the outcome

d)

IV or independent variable

39.

A professor of counselor education hypothesized that biofeedback training could reduce anxiety and improve the average score on written board exams. If this professor decides to conduct a formal experiment the IV will be ______ and the DV will be ________

a)

professor; anxiety level

b)

anxiety level; board exam score

c)

biofeedback; board exam score

d)

board exam score; biofeedback

40.

An experiment is said to be confounded when

a)

undesirable variables are not kept out of the experiement

b)

undesirable variables are kept out of the experiment

c)

basic research is used in place of applied research

d)

the sample is random

41.

A counselor educator is running an experiment to test a new form of counseling. Unbeknownst to the experimenter one of the clients in the study is secretly seeing a gestalt therapist. This experiment

a)

is parsimonious

b)

is an example of Occam's Razor

c)

is confounded/flawed

d)

is valid and will most likely help the field of counseling

42.

Experiment emphasize parsimony, which means

a)

interpreting the results in the simplest way

b)

interpreting the results in the most complex manner

c)

interpreting the results using a correlation coefficient

d)

interpreting the results using a clinical interview

43.

The most valuable type of research is

a)

always conducted using a factor analysis

b)

conducted using the chi-square

c)

the experiment, used to discover cause and effect relationships

d)

the quasi-experiment

44.

In a new study the clients do not know whether they are receiving an experimental treatment for depression or whether they are simply part of the control group. This is, nevertheless, known to the researcher. Thus, this is a

a)

double-blind study

b)

single-blind study

c)

baseline for intensive N=1 design

d)

participant observer model

45.

Experimental is to cause and effect as correlational is to

a)

blind study

b)

double-blind study

c)

N-1 design

d)

degree of relationship

46.

The most common measures of central tendency are the mean, the median, and the mode. The mode is

a)

the most frequently occurring score and the least-important measure of central tendency

b)

always 10% less than the mean

c)

the arithmetic average

d)

the middle score in the distribution of scores

47.

In a basic curve or so-called frequency polygon the point of maximum concentration is the

a)

mean

b)

median

c)

mode

d)

range

48.

From a mathematical standpoint, the mean is merely the sum of scores divided by the number of scores. The mean is misleading when

a)

the distribution is skewed

b)

the distribution has no extreme scores

c)

there are extreme scores

d)

both answer options one and three

49.

When a distribution of scores is not distributed normally statisticians call it

a)

Gauss's curve

b)

a symmetrical bell-shaped curve

c)

a skewed distribution

d)

an invalid distribution

50.

In a new experiment, a counselor educator wants to ferret out the effects of more than one Independent Variable. She will use a _____ design.

a)

Pearson Product-Moment r

b)

Spearman rank order rho

c)

factorial

d)

Solomon four-group

51.

Regardless of the shape, the ______ will always be the high point when a distribution is displayed graphically.

a)

degrees of freedom (df)

b)

mean

c)

median

d)

mode

52.

A group of first-semester graduate students in counseling took an experimental counseling exam that was much more difficult than the NCE. All of the students scored very low. A distribution of their scores would

a)

always be a bimodal distribution

b)

be positively skewed

c)

be negatively skewed

d)

produce a curve with a long tail to the left side of the graph

53.

Nine of the world's finest counselor educators are given an elementary exam on counseling theory. Needless to say all of them scored extremely high. The distribution of scores would most likely be

a)

a bell shaped curve

b)

positively skewed

c)

negatively skewed

d)

indicative that more information would be necessary

54.

Billy received an 82 on his college math final. This is Billy's raw score on the test. A raw score simply refers to the number of items correctly answered. A raw score is expressed in the units by which it was originally obtained. The raw score is not altered mathematically. Billy's raw score indicates that

a)

he is roughly a B student

b)

he answered 82@ correctly

c)

his percentile rank is 82

d)

more information is obviously necessary

55.

A distribution with class intervals can be graphically displayed via a bar graph also called a

a)

histogram

b)

sociogram

c)

genogram

d)

genus

56.

The x axis is used to plot the IV scores. The x axis could also be called the _____ on your exam.

a)

y axis

b)

abscissa

c)

DV

d)

vertical axis

57.

The y axis is used to plot the frequency of the DVs. The y axis could also be called the _____ on your exam.

a)

ordinate

b)

abscissa

c)

IV

d)

horizontal axis

58.

The range is a measure of variance and usually is calculated by determining the difference between the highest and the lowest score. Thus, on a test where the top score was a 93 and the lowest score was a 33 out of 100, the range would be

a)

61

b)

77

c)

59

d)

more information is necessary

59.

One trend is that women are moving into more careers that in the past were populated by males. Women workers are often impacted by the “glass ceiling phenomenon.” Assuming that a counselor’s behavior is influenced by the phenomenon, which statement would he most likely make when conducting a career counseling session with a female client who wants to advance to a higher position?

a)

“Your ability to advance in the corporate world is generally based on your mother’s attitude toward work. Can you tell me a little about that?”

b)

“Actually, women can advance quite rapidly in the corporate world. I support you 100%. I’d say you should be optimistic and go for the position.”

c)

“Let’s be rational: A woman can only advance so far. You really have very little if any chance of becoming a corporate executive. I’m here to help you cope with this reality.”

d)

“In most cases a female will work in a position that is at the same level as her father. Did your dad ever work as a corporate executive?

60.

One major category of career theory is known as the trait-factor (also called the trait-and-factor) approach. It has also been dubbed the actuarial or matching approach. This approach:

a)

attempts to match conscious and unconscious work motives.

b)

attempts to match the worker and the work environment (job factors). The approach thus makes the assumption that there is one best or single career for the person.

c)

attempts to match career behavior with attitudes.

d)

attempts to match cognition with the workload.

61.

Which statement is not true of the trait-and-factor approach to career counseling?

a)

The approach attempts to match the person’s traits with the requirements of a job.

b)

The approach usually relies on psychometric information.

c)

The approach is developmental and thus focuses on career maturity

d)

The approach is associated with the work of Parsons and Williamson.

62.

Edmund Griffith Williamson’s work (or the so-called Minnesota Viewpoint) purports to be scientific and didactic, utilizing test data from instruments such as the:

a)

Rorschach and the TAT.

b)

Binet and the Wechsler.

c)

BDI and the MMPI.

d)

Minnesota Occupational Rating Scales.

63.

Roe was the first career specialist to utilize a two-dimensional system of occupational classification utilizing

a)

unconscious and preconscious.

b)

fields and levels.

c)

yin and yang.

d)

transactional analysis nomenclature.

64.

In terms of genetics, Roe’s theory would assert that:

a)

genetics play a very minor role in career choice.

b)

genetics help to determine intelligence and education, and hence this influences one’s career choice.

c)

genetics are important while upbringing is not.

d)

genetics are important while the unconscious is not.

65.

A 37-year-old Caucasian male states during a counseling session that he is working as a clerk at Main Street Plumbing. This verbalization depicts the client’s:

a)

career.

b)

lifestyle.

c)

job or position.

d)

occupation

66.

Edwin Bordin felt that difficulties related to job choice:

a)

are indicative of neurotic symptoms.

b)

are indicative of inappropriate reinforcers in the environment.

c)

are related to a lack of present moment awareness.

d)

are the result of irrational cognitions.

67.

A client who becomes a professional football player because he unconsciously likes to hurt people would be utilizing _______ according to Brill’s theory of career choice.

a)

subliminal.

b)

sublimation.

c)

suppression.

d)

introjection.

68.

Most experts in the field of career counseling would classify Roe, Brill, and Holland as _______ theorists.

a)

behavior modification.

b)

ego psychologists.

c)

experiential.

d)

personality.

69.

In terms of genetics, Roe’s theory would assert that:

a)

genetics play a very minor role in career choice.

b)

genetics help to determine intelligence and education, and hence this influences one’s career choice.

c)

genetics are important while upbringing is not.

d)

genetics are important while the unconscious is not.

70.

Holland’s theory would predict that the vice president of the United States would be:

a)

artistic

b)

social

c)

enterprising

d)

realistic

71.

Holland did indeed believe in career stereotypes. In other words the person psychologically defines himself or herself via a given job. Thus, a bookkeeper or a clerical worker would primarily fit into the _______ category.

a)

artistic

b)

conventional

c)

realistic

d)

social

72.

In regard to an individual’s behavioral style or so-called modal orientation, Holland believed that:

a)

every person has a pure or discrete orientation that fits perfectly into one of the six categories.

b)

occupational measures like the Strong Vocational are for the most part useless.

c)

most people are not pure personality types and thus can best be described by a distribution of types such as Realistic, Social, Investigative (RSI)

d)

Option one and two

73.

Developmental career theorists view career choice as an ongoing or so-called longitudinal process rather than a single decision made at one point in time. The pioneer theorists in this area— who were the first to forsake the matching models—were:

a)

Super and Roe

b)

Hoppock and Holland.

c)

Ginzberg, Ginsburg, Axelrad, and Herma.

d)

Brill and Bordin.

74.

Initially, Ginzberg and his associates viewed career choice as irreversible and the result of compromises between wishes and realistic possibilities. This theory identified three stages of career development:

a)

informal, formal, and concrete.

b)

fantasy (birth to age 11), tentative (ages 11 to 17), and realistic (age 17 to early 20s).

c)

sensorimotor, formal, and concrete.

d)

oral, anal, and phallic.

75.

The most popular developmental career theorist is Donald Super. Super emphasizes:

a)

id impulses

b)

the critical parent

c)

the self-concept

d)

ego strength

76.

The decision-making theory, which refers to periods of anticipation and implementation/adjustment, was proposed by

a)

Crites.

b)

Holland

c)

David Tiedeman and Robert O'Hara.

d)

Super

77.

A fairly recent model to explain career development is the decision approach. The Gelatt Decision Model created by Harry B.Gelatt refers to information as “the fuel of the decision.” The Gelatt Model asserts that information can be organized into three systems

a)

predictive, value, and decision.

b)

internal, external, and in between.

c)

predictive, external, and internal.

d)

internal and external

78.

When career counselors speak of the OOH they are referring to:

a)

the Occupational Options Handbook.

b)

the Occupational Outlook Handbook.

c)

the Career Options Occupational Titles.

d)

the Optional Occupations Handbook.

79.

A counselor with a master’s degree who is working for minimum wage at a fast-food restaurant due to a lack of jobs in the field is a victim of:

a)

unemployment.

b)

underemployment.

c)

the phi phenomenon.

d)

the risky shift phenomenon.

80.

The Guide for Occupational Exploration (GOE) was published by the U.S. Department of Labor. The guide lists groups of jobs listed in:

a)

14 interest areas

b)

6 interest areas

c)

3 interest areas

d)

175 interest areas

81.

A client who likes her flower arranging job begins doing flower arranging in her spare time on weekends and after work. This phenomenon is best described as:

a)

the contrast effect

b)

sublimation

c)

the compensatory effect

d)

spillover

82.

The Strong Interest Inventory (SCII) is based on John Holland’s theory. The test assumes that a person who is interested in a given subject will experience:

a)

satisfaction in a job with workers who have different interests.

b)

satisfaction in a job in which those working in the occupation have similar interests

c)

generalized anxiety if he or she is placed in a job where people have similar interests.

d)

the best results if he or she fi nishes the inventory in one hour or less.

83.

At a case staffing, one career counselor says to another, “The client’s disability suggests she can only physically handle sedentary work.” This technically implies:

a)

the client will not need to lift over 10 pounds.

b)

the client will not need to lift over 100 pounds.

c)

the client will be standing a lot.

d)

the client could walk or stand up to six hours daily

84.

An SDS score will reveal:

a)

career aptitude

b)

the personality via projective measures.

c)

the individual’s three highest scores based on Holland’s personality types.

d)

spillover personality tendencies.

85.

In terms of leisure time and dual-career families:

a)

dual-career families have more leisure time.

b)

dual-career families have the same amount of leisure time as families with one wage earner.

c)

dual-career families have less leisure time.

d)

dual-career families have more weekend leisure time.

86.

One major category of career theory is known as the trait-factor (also called the trait-and-factor) approach. It has also been dubbed the actuarial or matching approach. This approach:

a)

attempts to match conscious and unconscious work motives.

b)

attempts to match the worker and the work environment (job factors). The approach thus makes the assumption that there is one best or single career for the person

c)

attempts to match career behavior with attitudes

d)

attempts to match cognition with the workload

87.

Which statement is not true of the trait-and-factor approach to career counseling?

a)

The approach attempts to match the person’s traits with the requirements of a job.

b)

The approach usually relies on psychometric information.

c)

The approach is developmental and thus focuses on career maturity.

d)

The approach is associated with the work of Parsons and Williamson.

88.

Edmund Griffith Williamson’s work (or the so-called Minnesota Viewpoint) purports to be scientific and didactic, utilizing test data from instruments such as the:

a)

Rorschach and the TAT.

b)

Binet and the Wechsler.

c)

BDI and the MMPI.

d)

Minnesota Occupational Rating Scales.

89.

Appraisal is defined as? (Rosenthal)

a)

The process of estimating of attributes

b)

Testing which is always performed in a group setting

c)

Testing which is always performed on a single individual

d)

A pencil and paper measurement of assessing attributes

90.

The part of the assessment process wherein the professional counselor assigns meaning to the data is known as? (NCE Genius)

a)

evaluation

b)

interpretation

c)

description

d)

test

91.

The format of an essay test is known as?

a)

subjective

b)

objective

c)

very precise

d)

concise

92.

The process that involves the gathering and documenting of client information is:

a)

evaluation

b)

interpretation

c)

test

d)

assessment

93.

William Wundt founded one of the first psychological laboratories to conduct:

a)

experimental research

b)

physiological research

c)

quantitative research

d)

qualitative research

94.

Measurement, in counseling is the process of:

a)

describing all human attributes in great detail

b)

defining the magnitude of human attributes and behavior

c)

describing the behavioral expression in great detail

d)

defining and estimating the magnitude of thought that is responsible for various behavior expressions

95.

What is a normative format?

a)

Each item depends on the item before it

b)

Each item depends on the items after it

c)

The client must possess an IQ within the normal range

d)

Each item is independent of all other items

96.

A timed typing test used to hire secretaries would be:

a)

a power test

b)

neither a speed test or a power test

c)

a speed test

d)

an ipsative measure

97.

What does a personality or interest inventory measure?

a)

typical performance

b)

minimum performance

c)

unconscious traits

d)

self-esteem by always relying on a Q-Sort design

98.

Which type tests use a limited testing time to prevent perfect scores?

a)

evaluative tests

b)

speed tests

c)

performance tests

d)

power tests

99.

When the measure of constructs that theoretically should be related, are actually observed to be related to one another, then this type of validity is known as?

a)

face validity

b)

convergent validity

c)

construct validity

d)

discriminant validity

100.

A test that is administered to one examinee at a time?

a)

subjective test

b)

objective test

c)

performance test

d)

individual test

101.

Which of the following is not a factor that affects reliability?

a)

test length

b)

range restrictions

c)

test difficulty

d)

speed test

102.

Which test provides consistency in administration and score to ensure freedom from examiner bias?

a)

speed test

b)

subjective test

c)

power test

d)

objective test

103.

The purpose of the 16 Personality Questionnaire is to:

a)

look into the 16 primitive personality traits normal people have

b)

personalities of a serial killer

c)

the basic personality of criminals

d)

the 16 types of personality that people with high IQ have

104.

Which of the following is not a form of validity but is often confused as one?

a)

convergent validity

b)

face validity

c)

predictive validity

d)

discriminant validity

105.

SAT10 and MAT are types of commonly administered

a)

motor growth tests

b)

survey achievement batteries

c)

cognitive functioning tests

d)

physical tests

106.

Validity is concerned with:

a)

the extent to which useful and related deductions can be derived from the result of the instrument

b)

how well an instrument measures the variable it is set to measure

c)

what an instrument measures

d)

all of the options

107.

When an individual's test scores are compared to his own previous score, the research is doing which of the following?

a)

Ipsative assessment

b)

criterion-referenced assessments

c)

external assessment

d)

rational assessments

108.

What do achievement tests measure?

a)

knowledge

b)

skill

c)

both knowledge and skill

d)

none of these

109.

In a spiral test...

a)

the items get progressively easier

b)

the difficulty of the items remain constant

c)

the client must answer each question in a specified period of time

d)

the items get progressively more difficult

110.

In a cyclical test

a)

the items get progressively easier

b)

the difficulty of the items remains constant

c)

you have several sections which are spiral in nature

d)

the client must answer each question in a specified period of time

111.

The test battery is considered

a)

a horizontal test

b)

a vertical test

c)

a valid test

d)

a reliable test

112.

The most critical factors in test selection are

a)

the length of the test and number of people who took the test in the norming process

b)

horizontal versus vertical

c)

validity and reliability

d)

spiral versus cyclical format

113.

Which is more important? validity or reliability?

a)

reliability

b)

They are equally important

c)

validity

d)

It depends on the test in question

114.

If a counselor is looking for a test that provides consistent results, they are looking for:

a)

reliability

b)

validity

c)

information that is not available

d)

magnifying an unimportant issue

115.

Construct reliability refers to? (Hint: Abstract traits)

a)

height

b)

weight

c)

ego strength

d)

the ability to name all men who served as US presidents

116.

A reliable test is _____ valid.

a)

always

b)

90% of the time

c)

not always

d)

80%

117.

A career counselor is using a test for job selection purposes, an acceptable reliability coefficient is

a)

.20

b)

.55

c)

.80

d)

.70

118.

A reliability coefficient of 1.00 indicates

a)

a lot of variance in a test

b)

a score with a high level of error

c)

a perfect score which has no error

d)

a typical correlation on most psychological and counseling tests

119.

Erickson presented an eight-stage theory of human development, the last stage of which he entitled “integrity vs. despair”. A person’s challenge in this stage is to achieve acceptance of the finality of life. Erickson postulated that such acceptance could be achieved only if the person had _______________.

a)

reached a parallel level of moral development.

b)

established an economic environment such that the person need not be concerned about having good living conditions.

c)

successfully met the challenges of the previous stage.

d)

developed the ability to distinguish among the various roles the individual had filled in life.

120.

A counselor was hired to develop educational activities that would promote development of gender-fair (i.e. non-sex-role stereotypic) attitudes among older elementary school age children. The counselor decided to develop the activities within the context of social learning theory. Which of the following activities would be most appropriate for use by the counselor?

a)

having the children view movies that depict males in so-called traditionally feminine occupations (i.e. nursing) or activities (i.e. ironing) and vice versa.

b)

providing some reward (i.e. small candy) to children who make gender-fair statements during a discussion of “what people do when they grow up”

c)

instructing the children how to ask their parents what their parents’ beliefs are about appropriate roles for women and men.

d)

having the children share what they believe are each of their parent’s feelings about activities they do (i.e. active and passive play behaviors).

121.

Epigenetic theorists emphasize the importance of ____________.

a)

nature

b)

nurture

c)

the combination of nature and nurture

d)

none of the options

122.

In Ivan Pavlov’s famous experiments with dogs, the conditioned stimulus was ________.

a)

the salvation

b)

the meat powder

c)

the bell, buzzer, or tone

d)

none of the above

123.

In classical conditioning, when people present a conditioned stimulus at the same time as the unconditioned stimulus, they are using ________________.

a)

backward conditioning

b)

simultaneous conditioning

c)

retroactive conditioning

d)

delayed conditioning

124.

_____________ is the most successful form of conditioning.

a)

backward conditioning

b)

simultaneous conditioning

c)

retroactive conditioning

d)

delayed conditioning

125.

John B. Watson is most well-known for his experiments involving

a)

a rat

b)

dogs

c)

ducklings

d)

cats

126.

_______is a best known for the theory of operant conditioning.

a)

Ivan Pavlov

b)

B.F. Skinner

c)

John B. Watson

d)

Albert Bandura

127.

Children learn object permanence in the _______ stage of Piaget's theory of cognitive development.

a)

sensorimotor

b)

preoperational

c)

concrete operational

d)

formal operational

128.

Animism refers to_______

a)

only being able to focus on one aspect of a problem at a time

b)

thinking that humans created everything in the world.

c)

giving life to lifeless objects

d)

the belief that actions cannot be reversed.

129.

Freud believed that fixation results from_________.

a)

over-gratification

b)

under-gratification

c)

both over-gratification and under-gratification

d)

none of the above

130.

A person who obeys group rules and seeks familial acceptance is in the _____ stage of Loevinger's ego development theory.

a)

integrated

b)

conformist

c)

self-awareness

d)

conscientious

131.

Freud's stages are psychosexual while Erik Erikson's stages are

a)

psychmetric

b)

psychodiagnostic

c)

psychopharmacological

d)

psychosocial

132.

The statement "the ego is dependent on the id" would most likely reflect the work of______.

a)

Erik Erikson

b)

Sigmund Freud, who created psychodynamic theory.

c)

Jay Haley

d)

Arnold Lazarus, William Perry, and Robert Kegan

133.

________ expanded on Piaget's conceptualization of moral development.

a)

Erik Erikson

b)

Lev Vygotsky

c)

Lawrence Kohlberg

d)

John B. Watson

134.

In Kohlberg's first or preconventional level, the individual's moral behavior is guided by

a)

psychosexual stages

b)

consequences

c)

periodic fugue states

d)

counterconditioning

135.

The zone of proximal development

a)

was pioneered by Lev Vygotsky

b)

was pioneered by Jean Piaget and Lawrence Kohlberg

c)

emphasized organ inferiority

d)

both option one and three

136.

John Bowlby, the British psychiatrist, is most closely associated with ______.

a)

the work of psychologist and pediatrician, Arnold Gesell, a maturationist.

b)

developmental stage theories

c)

bonding and attachment

d)

the unconscious mind

137.

The researcher who is well is known for his work with maternal deprivation and isolation in rhesus monkeys is

a)

Harry Harlow

b)

John Bowlby

c)

Lawrence Kohlberg

d)

all of the options

138.

In Freudian theory, attachment is a major factor______

a)

in the preconscious ind

b)

in the mind of the child in latency

c)

which evolves primarily during the oral stage

d)

both option one and three

139.

When developmental theorists speak of nature or nurture they really mean

a)

how much heredity or environment interact to influence development

b)

that the focus is skewed in favor of biological attributes

c)

a theory proposed by B.F. SKinner's colleagues

d)

both options one and three

140.

A person who lives by their individual conscience and universal ethical principles

a)

has according to Kohlberg, reached the highest stage of moral development

b)

is in the preconventional level

c)

is the postconventional level of self-accepted moral principles

d)

both option one and three

141.

An empiricist view of development would be

a)

psychometric

b)

behavioristic

c)

against the use of formal statistical testing

d)

both options two and three

142.

A theorist who views developmental changes as quantitative is said to be an empiricist. The antithesis of this position holds that developmental strides are qualitative. What is the name given to this position?

a)

behaviorism

b)

organicism

c)

statistical developmentalism

d)

none of the options

143.

According to freudians, if a child is severely traumatized, the child may __________ a given psychosexual stage.

a)

skip

b)

become fixed at

c)

ignore

d)

both options one and three

144.

Which theorist would be most likely to say that aggression is an inborn tendency?

a)

Carl Rogers

b)

B.F. Skinner

c)

Frank Parsons

d)

Konrad Lorenz

145.

Robert Kegan speaks of a "holding environment" in counseling in which

a)

the client is urged to relive a traumatic experience in an encounter group

b)

biofeedback training is highly recommended

c)

the client can make meaning in the face of a crisis and can find new direction

d)

the activity of meaning making is discouraged

146.

Most experts in the field of counseling agree that

a)

no one theory completely explains developmental processes; thus, counselors ought to be familiar with all the major theories

b)

Eriksonian theory should be used by counselors practicing virtually.

c)

A counselor who incorporates Piaget's stages into their thinking would not necessarily need knowledge of rival therapeutic viewpoints.

d)

A realistic counselor needs to pick one developmental theory in the same manner that they pick up a psychotherapeutic persuasion.

147.

A counselor is working with a family who just lost everything in a fire. The counselor will ideally focus on_____.

a)

Maslow's higher-order needs, such as self-actualization.

b)

Building accurate empathy of family members.

c)

Maslow's lower-order needs, such as physiological and safety needs.

d)

The identified parent

148.

Equilibration is

a)

a term which emphasizes the equality between the sexes

b)

performed via the id according to the Freudians

c)

A synonym for concrete operational thought

d)

The balance between what one takes in and that which is changed

149.

What are the three basic group leadership styles?

a)

directive, nondirective, and semipassive

b)

autocratic, democratic, and laisse faire

c)

relaxed, anxious, and tense

d)

assertive, nonassertive, and aggressive

150.

A group has

a)

membership that can be defined

b)

some degree of unity and interaction

c)

a shared purpose

d)

all of the options

151.

Which theorist's work has been classified as a preface to the group movement?

a)

Freud

b)

Jung

c)

Jessie B. Davis

d)

Adler

152.

Group cohesiveness refers to

a)

forces which tend to bind group members together

b)

an analysis of group content

c)

a common co-leadership style

d)

a style of leadership

153.

One advantage of group work is that a counselor can see more clients in a given period of time. One disadvantage is that a counselor can be too focused on group processes and

a)

thus individual issues are not properly examined

b)

the group becomes too behavioristic

c)

both options one and three

d)

thus the group focuses too much on content

154.

T-groups often stress ways employees can express themselves in an effective manner. The "T" in T-group merely stands for:

a)

techniques

b)

taxonomy

c)

training

d)

testing

155.

AA (Alcoholics Anonymous) group is an example of what type of group

a)

T-group; training group

b)

self-help or support group

c)

psychotherapy group

d)

marathon group

156.

A counselor is conducting a screening for clients who wish to participate in a counseling group which will meet Tuesday nights at his private practice office. Which client would most likely be the poorest choice for a group member?

a)

a shy librarian

b)

an anxious salesman with no group exerience

c)

an extremely hostile and belligerent construction worker

d)

a student with 16 hours toward their M.Ed in counseling

157.

A counselor is screening clients for a new group at the college counseling center. Which client would most likely be the poorest choice for a group member?

a)

a first year student who is suicidal and sociopathic

b)

a second year student who stutters

c)

a graduate student with a facial tic

d)

a fourth year student with OCD tendencies

158.

A screening for group members can be done in a group or privately. Although private screening interviews are not as cost effective or as time efficient, many group leaders feel they are superior inasmuch as private screening sessions

a)

intensify transference

b)

encourage catharsis

c)

intensify abreaction

d)

are generally superior in terms of counselor/client interaction

159.

Groups can be open or closed. The two differ in that

a)

open groups are limited to hospital settings

b)

in an open group members can socialize between group meetings

c)

closed groups aways employ coleaders

d)

closed groups allow no new members after the group begins

160.

One major advantage of a closed group versus an open group is

a)

cost effectiveness

b)

it promotes cohesiveness

c)

it lessens counselor burnout

d)

it allows the members to meet less frequently

161.

One major disadvantage of a closed group versus an open group is that

a)

if everyone quits, you will be left with no group members

b)

closed groups cannot provide depth therapy

c)

it promotes paranoid feelings in group members

d)

closed groups are much more structured

162.

The number of people in an open group is generally

a)

more stable than in a closed group

b)

much smaller after an extended period of time than in a closed group

c)

significantly larger than in a closed group

d)

more dependent on the group leader's marketing skills than in a closed group

163.

When a group member is speaking, it is best for the counselor to

a)

try to face the group member

b)

not face the group member, as this does not appear genuine in a group setting

c)

smile while listening

d)

suppress genuine emotion

164.

Groups promote the concept of universality, which suggests that

a)

we are unique and so are our problems

b)

there is a universal way to solve nearly any difficulty

c)

both options one and two

d)

we are not the only ones in the world with a given problem

165.

The autocratic or authoritarian leader may give orders to the group, while the laissez faire leader

a)

assigns a group member as the authoritarian

b)

has a hands off policy and participates very little

c)

has the most desirable style of leadership

d)

nearly always run open ended groups

166.

When comparing the autocratic, democratic, and laissez faire styles

a)

the autocratic is the most desirable

b)

the laissez faire is the most desirable

c)

the authoritative/democratic is the most desirable

d)

there is no difference in effectiveness in regards to leadership style

167.

A group with more than one leader is said to utilize coleaders. Co-leadership is desirable because

a)

the group can go on even if one leader is absent

b)

two leaders can focus on group dynamics better than one leader

c)

leaders can process their feelings between sessions

d)

all of the answer options

168.

Most experts would agree that an effective adult counseling group has ______ members.

a)

9 to 12

b)

3 to 5

c)

11 to 16

d)

5 or 6 to 8

169.

During the initial session of a group the leader explains that no smoking and cursing will be permitted. This is known as

a)

setting ground rules

b)

ambivalent transference

c)

blocking

d)

scapegoating

170.

Group members assume roles within a group. Which of the following is not a group role?

a)

energizer

b)

scapegoat

c)

gatekeeper

d)

reactive schnizophrenic

171.

A group member who insists on asking other members inappropriate questions is known as a Peeping Tom or

a)

an energizer

b)

a scapegoat

c)

an interrogator

d)

a follower

172.

The follower goes along with whatever the rest of the group thinks. From a personality standpoint the follower is

a)

aggressive

b)

assertive

c)

practicing excitation

d)

nonassertive

173.

In a healthy group, members

a)

assume a role and never change it

b)

have no roles

c)

are flexible and can change roles

d)

sped a great deal of time practicing tole reversal

174.

The final group stage (also called the termination stage) is geared toward

a)

developing intimacy

b)

working through power and control issues

c)

exploration

d)

breaking away

175.

Which group was most instrumental in opposing counselor licensure?

a)

social workers

b)

psychiatrists

c)

psychologists

d)

AAMFT members

176.

By passing the NCE, a counselor can attain the ____given via NBCC.

a)

NCC, a generic certification for counselors

b)

NCC, a speciality mental health certification for counselors

c)

NCC, national certification for school counselors

d)

MAC, master additions counselor

177.

Ethical guidelines were first created for the helping professions in 1953 when the American Psychological Association (APA) published the first code of ethics. The National Association of Social Workers (NASW) created their code in 1960, and in 1961, the organization that is now ACA adopted ethics for counselors. Ethics always describe

a)

laws

b)

universal principles which apply to all helpers

c)

standards of conduct imposed by the ACA and NBCC

d)

all of the options

178.

The landmark 1969 case, Tarasoff v. the Board of Regents of the University of California illuminated

a)

difficulties caused when a counselor has sex with a client

b)

ethical issues in relation to research

c)

the duty to warn a client in imminent danger

d)

the impact of an impaired professional

179.

State laws can govern title usage and practice, however, they do not govern

a)

accreditation

b)

counselor licensure

c)

psychologist licensure

d)

involuntary commitment to state psychiatric facilities

180.

One major difference between the psychology versus the counseling movement seems to be that

a)

the psychologists are working to eliminate practitioners with less than a doctorate, while the counselors are not

b)

counselors are working to give up test for licensure

c)

psychology boards are made up primarily of psychiatrists

d)

in most states psychologists do not need to take an exam

181.

Counselor certification

a)

is synonymous with licensure

b)

is synonymous with program certification

c)

recognized that you have reached a given level of competence and thus are authorized to use a title

d)

is primarily a legal process

182.

Virginia was the first state to license counselors in 1976. The APGA (later AACD and now ACA) division that was initially the most instrumental in pushing for licensing was the

a)

American College Personnel Association

b)

American School Counselor Association

c)

Association for Specialists in Group Work

d)

American Counselor Education and Supervision

183.

You are a licensed professional counselor in one state but will soon relocate to another state. The new state informs you that they will grant you reciprocity or so-called endorsement. You will thus

a)

simply need to take the licensing test in the new state

b)

be permitted to practice in the new state based on your current credentials without taking another exam

c)

need to take numerous graduate courses

d)

not be allowed to practice until you serve an internship

184.

One possible negative aspect of counselor licensure is that

a)

counselors would receive more third-party payments

b)

counselors might be accepted as providers by insurance companies

c)

counselors may not be as creative during their graduate work and simply take courses aimed at fulfilling the requirements to take the licensure exam

d)

it will take business away from psychologists

185.

A counselor wins the lottery and closes her practice without telling her clients. The counselor's course of action is best described as

a)

a multiple relationship

b)

defamation

c)

abandonment

d)

nonmaleficence

186.

A counselor who sports NCC after their name

a)

will need not concern themselves with continuing education

b)

will need to complete three graduate courses every 10 years

c)

will never receive credit for workshops but should attend for their own personal growth nevertheless

d)

will need a specified amount of continuing education contact hours before they can be rectified, or they will need to take the NCE again

187.

Your sexual attraction toward your client is hindering the counseling process. You should

a)

continue treatment but be honest and empathic with the client

b)

ignore your feeling; after all you are a professional

c)

explain this to the client and then refer the client to another provider

d)

continue to see the client but ignore psychosexual topics

188.

Computers are now being used in various counseling settings. Counselors speak of computer-assisted counseling (CAC) and computer-manger counseling (CMC). An office that employs a computer to schedule clients would be an example of

a)

CMC

b)

CAC

c)

an ethical violation

d)

the misuse of computer, through the practice is ethical

189.

A counselor education has created a research study. He is using students as research subjects. This is commonplace.

a)

Student participation can be mandatory as part of a counseling course

b)

Student participation can be mandatory for students who have finished their coursework and are completing a dissertation, thesis or required scholarly paper.

c)

Participation or lack of it cannot impact the student's academic standing

d)

According to ethics, the student cannot participate in the research if they not currently enrolled in the counselor educator's class.

190.

A statement of disclosure could include all except:

a)

a list of the courses the counselor took in graduate school

b)

The counselor's qualifications, office hours, and billing pollcies

c)

Emergency procedures and therapy techniques utilized

d)

A statement that confidentiality is desirable, but cannot be guaranteed in a group setting

191.

In regard to state law and privileged communication, counselors must be aware that

a)

privileged communication exists in every state in the union for LPCs

b)

laws are unclear and may vary from state to state

c)

there are no laws which govern this issue

d)

state psychology laws are applicable in this respect

192.

You are a counselor in a state that does not legally support privilege communication. You refuse to testify in court. In this situation

a)

ACA will back you for doing the ethical thing

b)

NBCC will back you if, and only if, you have attained NCC status

c)

you need not testify if your case was supervised by a licensed psychologist and/or psychiatrist

d)

you could be held in contempt of court

193.

During a counseling session a 42-year old male client threatens suicide. You should

a)

keep it a secret as the client is not a minor

b)

call the state child abuse/neglect hotline even though he is an adult

c)

call his wife and mention that a serious problem exists but be very careful not to discuss the issue of suicide since to do so would violate the client's confidentiality

d)

contact his wife and advise her of possible suicide precautions

194.

Nosology refers to a system of classification. Name the nosological system(s) utilized by professional counselors who diagnose clients.

a)

DSM

b)

ICD

c)

both answer options one and two

d)

The Rogerian classification system

195.

Traditionally, _____counseling has caused the most ethical concerns.

a)

behavioral

b)

person-centered

c)

humanistic

d)

reality therapy

196.

The DSM-5 no longer uses a multiaxial classification system or GAF scale. Diagnostic codes have _____digits.

a)

four or five

b)

two

c)

nine (which correspond to the DOT)

d)

12

197.

A counselor educator is giving a seminar on the SDM-5. She gives the students a handout and lists hoarding disorder and obsessive-compulsive disorder as both having the same 300.3 code. This most likely explanation is

a)

that this could be correct since two diagnoses can share a single code

b)

it is a typo on her handout

c)

this is a trick question since the counselor educator must be quoting an ICD code

d)

she is a researcher and thus does not realize all disorders have unique codes

198.

Consulting is included in ethical guidelines. Consultations can be best defined as

a)

a voluntary relationship between a professional helper and a help-needing individual that is generally longer than supervision

b)

a brand or paradigm of long-term psychotherapy

c)

in systematic process based on classical conditioning

d)

a voluntary relationship between a professional help and a help-needing individual, group or social unit in which the consultant helps define or solve problems related to clients, the client system, or work-related issues

199.

The therapeutic alliance can also be called the:

a)

working alliance

b)

psychological contact

c)

empathetic understanding

d)

none of the above

200.

There are three models that address why clients can be resistant to therapy. These are the

a)

Negative social influences, defense mechanisms, projection

b)

Anxiety control, noncompliance, negative social influences

c)

Defense mechanisms, low openness, unwillingness to change

201.

Wellness is a state of

a)

physical wellbeing

b)

spiritual wellbeing

c)

psychological wellbeing

d)

all answer choices

202.

Which of the following is not a basic counseling skill?

a)

self-disclosure

b)

questioning

c)

parroting

d)

paraphrasing

203.

A counselor collaborates with clients to set goals in the _______ stage of counseling

a)

initial

b)

action

c)

termination

d)

all of the answer choices

204.

The five factor models breaks personality down to which of the following:

a)

Conscientiousness, agreeableness, introversion, extroversion, and openness

b)

Empathic understanding, agreeableness, extroversion, openness

c)

Openness, conscientiousness, agreeableness, extroversion, neuroticism

d)

extroversion, introversion, neuroticism, Conscientiousness, agreeableness

205.

The indivisible self-model of wellness is based on the ______psychological theory:

a)

Freud's

b)

Adler's

c)

Roger's

d)

Ellis'

206.

There are ____ key stages of counseling

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

207.

Which stage in the counseling process can be defined by “helping clients target the issue and set goals that are specific, obtainable, observable, and relevant”.

a)

relationship building stage

b)

action stage

c)

action/intervention stage

d)

intervention stage

e)

termination stage

208.

How many types of consultation can be employed according to Caplan’s mental health consultation model?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

209.

What is the “stages of change “model also referred as?”

a)

substance abuse model

b)

change model

c)

transtehoretical model

d)

substance abuse transtheoretical model

210.

Which of the following are not established organizations?

a)

AHC

b)

IAMFC

c)

APA

d)

AFA

211.

The _____ operates according to the reality principle

a)

id

b)

ego

c)

superego

d)

none of the answer choices

212.

Archetypes are a part of which theorist’s work?

a)

Adler's

b)

Jung's

c)

Freud's

213.

Contingency contracts are a part of which theory?

a)

psychoanalysis

b)

behaviorism

c)

solution-focused

d)

existentialism

214.

The theory most concerned with irrational thoughts is:

a)

gestalt therapy

b)

reality therapy

c)

rational emotive therapy

d)

cognitive therapy

215.

Viktor Frankl is the father of logotherapy. Logotherapy refers to

a)

healing through meaning

b)

healing through unconsciousness

c)

logic cures

d)

all of the answer choices