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Quiz 1 Derm

Total questions: 122

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The nerve endings, sweat glands, sebaceous glands, and hair follicles are located in what region of the skin?

a)

Hypodermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Epidermis

2.

Dermal edema can cause an itchy, transient, elevated lesion with variable branching erythema is referred to as a?

a)

Papule

b)

Ephelis

c)

Seborrheic keratosis

d)

Wheal

3.

Malignant skin lesions typically can have one or more of these concerning features?

a)

Asymmetry

b)

Irregular borders

c)

Variegated color

d)

Larger than 1/4 inch

e)

Evolving

4.

ABC's of melanoma

a)

Asymmetry

b)

Borders

c)

Color

d)

Diameter

e)

Evolving

5.

Melanoma is strongly linked to acquired mutations associated with?

a)

Aging

b)

UV exposure

c)

Microwaves

d)

Chemotherapy

6.

Actinic keratosis a benign lesion of the skin that does NOT have the potential to become SCC?

a)

True

b)

False

7.

An appendage tumor that occurs predominantly on the palms and soles where sweat glands are numerous is ?

a)

Syringomas

b)

Cylindromas

c)

Pilomatricomas

d)

Eccrine poroma

8.

What is the most common skin cancer related to sun exposure in the elderly?

a)

Squamous cell carcinoma

b)

Melanoma

c)

Basal cell carcinoma

d)

Sebaceous carcinoma

9.

The classic gross features of a melanoma that are distinctly different from a benign lesion are?

a)

Variations in color

b)

Elevation of more than 3mm

c)

Zones of white or flesh colored hypopigmentation

d)

Irregular borders

e)

Development of a cyst

10.

A benign pigmented lesion that spontaneously presents in middle age and older individuals as a single lesion or multiple small lesions is likely to be?

a)

Papule

b)

Ephelis

c)

Seborrheic keratosis

d)

Macule

11.

Another term for the common freckle is?

E (a)  

12.

A potential precursor to melanoma that demonstrates atypia and irregularity in appearance is what type of nevus?

a)

Dysplastic nevus

b)

Congenital nevus

c)

Halo nevus

d)

Spitz nevus

e)

Blue nevus

13.

An elevated dome or elevated flat shaped lesion 5mm or less in greatest dimension is a?

a)

Bulla

b)

Pustule

c)

Papule

d)

Ulcer

14.

One more time Liz, what are the layers of the skin?

a)

Stratum basale

b)

Stratum granulosum

c)

Stratum spinosum

d)

Stratum lucidum

e)

Stratum corneum

15.

A self-induced deep scratch breaking the epidermis that is often related to a psychosomatic disorder is called?

a)

Fissure

b)

Excoriation

c)

Ulcer

d)

Lichenification

16.

A lesion that breaks apart or crumbles is?

a)

Scale

b)

Wheal

c)

Crust

d)

Plaque

17.

The thick skin present on the hands and feet displays hair?

a)

True

b)

False

18.

A lesion that displays a stalk is considered?

P (a)  

19.

Four functions of the skin:

a)

Body temperature regulation

b)

Sensory

c)

Release of hormones

d)

Plays a role in the immune system

e)

Store water, fat, and vitamin D

20.

Sentinel lymph nodes are never done on melanoma cases because they often have false positive results?

a)

True

b)

False

21.

A tumor with ductal (apocrine or eccrine) differentiation, that usually occurs on the forehead and scalp is called?

a)

Cylindroma

b)

Sebaceous adenoma

c)

Sebaceous carcinoma

d)

Syringoma

22.

The period of time between radial and vertical growth in a melanoma is unpredictable?

a)

True

b)

False

23.

A benign skin lesion associated with salivary glands that often develops on the head or face is called?

a)

Cylindroma

b)

Sebaceous adenoma

c)

Pilomatricoma

d)

Syringoma

24.

What tumor arises from the meibomian glands of the eyelid and may follow an aggressive course replete with systemic metastases?

a)

Syringocarcinomas

b)

Sebaceous carcinoma

c)

Eccrine carcinoma

d)

Apocrine carcinoma

25.

Although most melanoma arises in the skin, there are four areas of the body that are common sites to this lesion. What are they?

a)

Axilla

b)

Meninges

c)

Eye

d)

Esophagus

e)

Oral and anal mucosal surfaces

26.

A thickened, hyperpigmented skin lesion with a “velvet-like” texture that most commonly appears in the flexural areas and is sometimes associated with an underlying malignancy is?

a)

Erythema mulitforme

b)

Psoriasis

c)

Acanthosis nigricans

d)

Ichthyosis

27.

A flat skin lesion that is no more than 5 mm that is distinguishable from the surrounding skin is called a?

a)

Papule

b)

Bulla

c)

Nevus

d)

Macule

28.

A hallo nevus displays an infiltrate of what type of cells surrounding the nevus cells?

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Melanocytes

d)

Keratinized squamous cells

29.

The skin replaces itself after how many days?

a)

10-15 days

b)

45-47 hours

c)

120-150 days

d)

45-47 days

e)

10-15 hours

30.

Large congenital nevi have a low risk for melanoma?

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Three other names for the common skin tag are?

a)

Acrochordon

b)

Epithelial inclusion cyst

c)

Follicular inclusion cyst

d)

Fibroepithelial polyp

e)

Squamous papilloma

32.

What cutaneous tumor is locally aggressive and associated with mutations that activate the Hedgehog pathway signaling?

a)

Squamous cell carcinoma

b)

Melanoma

c)

Basal cell carcinoma

d)

Sebaceous carcinoma

33.

A hair follicle tumor derived from hair matrix cells is?

a)

Cylindroma

b)

Sebaceous adenoma

c)

Pilomatricoma

d)

Syringoma

34.

In-situ and microinvasive Melanomas that lack the capacity to metastasize display what growth phase?

a)

Radial growth

b)

Superficial spreading

c)

Vertical growth

35.

Lesions with eccrine differentiation, that usually occur as multiple, small, tan papules in the vicinity of the lower eyelids are?

a)

Cylindroma

b)

Meiboma

c)

Sebaceous adenoma

d)

Syringoma

36.

The primary function of the fat layer of the skin is?

a)

Insulation

b)

Nutrient resource

c)

Water resource

d)

Reservoir of immune cells

37.

A deep lesion that destructs the skin and possibly the subcutaneous tissue is referred to as?

a)

Fissure

b)

Excoriation

c)

Ulcer

d)

Lichenification

38.

A blue nevus is often confused with what other skin lesion clinically?

a)

Squamous cell carcinoma

b)

Melanoma

c)

Basal cell carcinoma

d)

Sebaceous carcinoma

39.

Separation of the nail plate from the nail bed is called?

O (a)  

40.

A thickened, leathery, rough area of skin resulting from constant itching is called?

a)

Excoriation

b)

Lichenification

c)

Ephelis

d)

Lentigo

41.

Are the majority of diagnosed melanomas a germline mutation or sporadic?

a)

Germline mutation

b)

Sporadic

42.

The most common place for a man to get a melanoma is their legs and in women, their back?

a)

True

b)

False

43.

A fluid filled blister that is greater than 5mm is called?

a)

Bulla

b)

Pustule

c)

Vesicle

d)

Papule

44.

One of the complications of am epithelial or follicular inclusion cyst is that they can recur?

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Cancerous skin lesions that sometimes can be confused with metastatic adenocarcinoma because of their tendency to form gland-like structures are?

a)

Eccrine carcinomas

b)

Sebaceous carcinomas

c)

Apocrine carcinomas

d)

Meibosarcoma

46.

A well-differentiated, locally aggressive primary tumor of the skin resembling a dermatofibroma that presents usually on the trunk as a firm (indurated) plaques is?

Dermatofibrosarcoma (a)  

47.

A term that means crack or split is called a?

a)

Fissure

b)

Excoriation

c)

Ulcer

d)

Lichenification

48.

What is a good predictor of metastasis in a melanoma?

a)

Breslow thickness

b)

Clark levels

49.

Apocrine tumors of the skin are most typically malignant?

a)

True

b)

False

50.

A dermatofibroma may increase and decrease in size over time?

a)

True

b)

False

51.

A Spitz nevus is often confused with what lesion in children due to it’s red color?

a)

Eczema

b)

Hemangioma

c)

Macule

d)

Melanoma

52.

The presence and number of if lymphocytes invading a melanoma is a good diagnostic indicator of predicted outcome?

a)

True

b)

False

53.

A discrete pus-filled raised lesion is called?

a)

Bulla

b)

Pustule

c)

Vesicle

d)

Papule

54.

A fluid filled blister that is less than 5mm is called?

a)

Bulla

b)

Pustule

c)

Vesicle

d)

Papule

55.

What percentage of melanomas are inherited?

a)

10-15%

b)

25-35%

c)

50-60%

d)

65-75%

56.

An appendage tumor that occurs predominantly on the palms and soles where sweat glands are numerous is ?

a)

Eccrine poroma

b)

Apocrine poroma

c)

Eccrine carcinoma

d)

Apocrine carcinoma

57.

An elevated lesion greater than 5mm in greatest dimension that is dome shaped or flat is referred to as?

a)

Plaque

b)

Papule

c)

Nodule

d)

Bulla

58.

A lesion that demonstrates hyperkeratosis of the lip is?

a)

Benign fibrous histiocytoma

b)

Verrucae

c)

Urticaria

d)

Actinic cheilitis

59.

The most important cause of cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma is?

a)

DNA damage from UV light

b)

DNA damage from chemotherapy

c)

DNA damage from dehydration

d)

DNA damage from viral infection

60.

Periodic severe sunburns are the most important factor contributing melanomas?

a)

True

b)

False

61.

A larger, darker freckle that does not fade over time is called?

L (a)  

62.

Clark levels refer to depth of invasion of a melanoma in mm?

a)

True

b)

False

63.

A t-cell lymphoma of the skin that presents with scaly, red-brown patches; raised, scaling plaques and fungating nodules (sometimes confused with psoriasis is?

a)

Mycosis molditis

b)

Mastocytosis fungoides

c)

Mycosis fungoides

d)

Mastocytosis pigmentosis

64.

A t-cell malignancy in the blood that can present as erythroderma is?

a)

Sezary Syndrome

b)

Mycosis fungoides

c)

Urticaria pigmentosa.

d)

Pemphigus vulgaris

65.

A term or sign associated with stroking the skin from Mastocytosis is?

a)

Dorner sign

b)

Darier sign

c)

Darth vader sign

d)

Darter sign

66.

Approximately one half of all cases of Mastocytosis are diagnosed as?

a)

Sezary Syndrome

b)

Mycosis fungoides

c)

Urticaria pigmentosa.

d)

Pemphigus vulgaris

67.

Systemic Mastocytosis can result from certain triggers such as food, changes in temperature, alcohol, and certain medications?

a)

True

b)

False

68.

An inherited epidermal maturation disorder associated with chronic, excessive keratin buildup (hyperkeratosis) that results clinically in fishlike scales is?

a)

Seborrheic Dermatitis

b)

Spongiosis

c)

Urticaria

d)

Ichthyosis

69.

An autosomal dominant or acquired epidermal maturation disorder that may be associated with lymphoid and visceral malignancies is?

Ichthyosis v (a)  

70.

The medical term for hives is?

a)

Seborrheic Dermatitis

b)

Spongiosis

c)

Urticaria

d)

Ichthyosis

71.

Angioedema can be seen in what layers of the skin in urticaria?

a)

Epidermis

b)

Stratum basale

c)

Deeper dermis

d)

Subcutaneous fat

72.

Persistent episodes of urticaria may be an indicator of what two possible underlying diseases?

a)

Collagen vascular disorders

b)

T cell-mediated inflammatory reactions (type IV hypersensitivity)

c)

Acanthosis

d)

Hodgkin lymphoma

73.

What does acanthosis mean?

a)

Dermal hyperplasia

b)

Epidermal hyperplasia

c)

Epidermal metaplasia

d)

Dermal metaplasia

74.

Which stage of eczema presents as lichenification?

a)

Acute

b)

Sub acute

c)

Chronic

75.

The three stages of eczema always occur in a progressive manner?

a)

True

b)

False

76.

The hypersensitivity reaction that presents in Erythema Multiforme may be caused by which preceding factors?

a)

Infections

b)

Exposure to certain drugs

c)

Prolonged exposure to UV light

d)

Carcinomas and lymphomas

e)

Collagen vascular diseases

77.

What lesions may coexist in the presentation of Erythema Multiforme?

a)

Macules

b)

Papules

c)

Vesicles

d)

Bullae

e)

Targetoid lesions

78.

A febrile form of Erythema Multiforme involving not only the skin but also the lips and oral mucosa, conjunctiva, urethra, and genital and perianal areas is?

a)

Sezary syndrome

b)

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

c)

Porphyria

d)

Erythema induratum

79.

Psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory dermatosis that appears to have an autoimmune basis. Approximately 15% of those who suffer from this also have?

a)

Associated arthritis

b)

Associated hypertension

c)

Diabetes

d)

Anemia

80.

Psoriasis may be linked to conditions such as myopathy, enteropathy, and AIDS?

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Stress, hormonal changes or illness, harsh detergents, cold or dry weather, and medications such as psoralen, interferon and lithium can be triggers to what common to what chronic inflammatory dermatosis?

a)

Psoriasis

b)

Dermatosis papulosa nigra

c)

Seborrheic keratoses

d)

Seborrheic Dermatitis

82.

The 6 P’s “pruritic, purple, polygonal, planar, papules, and plaques” is associated with what skin lesion?

a)

Psoriasis

b)

Dermatosis papulosa nigra

c)

Seborrheic keratoses

d)

Lichen planus

83.

Squamous cell carcinoma has been noted to occur in chronic mucosal and para-mucosal lesions of lichen planus?

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Lichen Planus is usually self-limited, (resolves1 to 2 years after onset, but leaves post inflammatory hyperpigmentation?

a)

True

b)

False

85.

Bullous lesions can be caused by acquired or inherited defects in proteins that interfere with the mechanical stability of the skin?

a)

True

b)

False

86.

The common variant of pemphigus is?

a)

Pemphigus vulgaris

b)

Pemphigus vegetans

c)

Pemphigus foliaceus

d)

Pemphigus erythematosus

e)

Paraneoplastic pemphigus

87.

All forms of pemphigus are autoimmune and caused by what autoantibody?

a)

IgM

b)

IgA

c)

IgG

d)

IgE

88.

A bullous condition affecting primarily the elderly that is caused by autoantibodies to IgG and presents as tense bullae filled with clear fluid involving erythematous or normal-appearing skin (2cm-8cm) is called?

Bullous p (a)  

89.

A rare disorder characterized by urticaria and grouped vesicles that genetically predisposes individuals develop lgA antibodies to dietary gluten is?

a)

Dermatitis Herpetiformis

b)

Epidermolysis Bullosa

c)

Seborrheic Dermatitis

d)

Porphyria

90.

A non-inflammatory blistering disorder associated uncommon inborn or acquired disturbances of porphyrin metabolism is?

a)

Dermatitis Herpetiformis

b)

Epidermolysis Bullosa

c)

Seborrheic Keratoses

d)

Porphyria

91.

Inflammatory and noninflammatory acne can coexist?

a)

True

b)

False

92.

Acne vulgaris may be induced or exacerbated by which of the following?

a)

Certain drugs

b)

Occupational exposures

c)

Heavy clothing

d)

Cosmetics

e)

Tropical climates

93.

Androgens do not increase sebum production in acne?

a)

True

b)

False

94.

Inflammatory acne is often treated with what?

a)

Topical steroids

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Hope and a prayer

95.

A synthetic vitamin A derivative 13-cis-retinoic acid (isotretinoin) can dramatically improve what condition?

a)

Acne

b)

Eczema

c)

Psoriasis

d)

Chicken pox

96.

Panniculitis is an inflammatory reaction in the subcutaneous adipose tissue that may preferentially affect what two tissues

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Lobules of fat

c)

Connective tissue that separates lobules

d)

Nerve bundles

97.

The two main forms of panniculitis are:

a)

Erythema moderna

b)

Erythema nodosum

c)

Erythema vulgaris

d)

Erythema induratum

98.

Erythema nodosum can be associated with what specific infections?

a)

β-hemolytic streptococcal infection

b)

tuberculosis

c)

coccidioidomycosis

d)

histoplasmosis

e)

leprosy

99.

A biopsy of a deep wedge of tissue to generously sample the subcutis is usually required for histologic diagnosis of Erythema nodosum?

a)

True

b)

False

100.

An uncommon type of panniculitis that affects primarily adolescents and menopausal women, is a vasculitis associated with deep vessels, and is often associated with underlying disease is?

a)

Erythema moderna

b)

Erythema nodosum

c)

Erythema vulgaris

d)

Erythema induratum

101.

A rare form of relapsing febrile nodular panniculitis is?

a)

Lupus erythematosus

b)

Weber-Christian disease

c)

Sezary Syndrome

d)

Factitial panniculitis

102.

B-cell lymphomas and Lupus can cause panniculitis?

a)

True

b)

False

103.

A secondary panniculitis caused by self-inflicted trauma or injection of foreign or toxic substances is?

a)

Lupus erythematosus

b)

Weber-Christian disease

c)

Sezary Syndrome

d)

Factitial panniculitis

104.

There are over 150 types of HPV infections that cause warts?

a)

True

b)

False

105.

Anogenital warts are commonly associated with what forms of HPV?

a)

Type 1

b)

Type 4

c)

Type 6

d)

Type 11

106.

The type of HPV associated with Squamous Cell Carcinoma In-situ of the genitalia is?

a)

Type 16

b)

Type 4

c)

Type 6

d)

Type 11

107.

HPV subtypes 5 and 8 are associated with what type of cancer?

a)

Squamous cell carcinoma

b)

Melanoma

c)

Basal cell carcinoma

d)

Sebaceous carcinoma

108.

Two common methods of viral typing are?

a)

restriction fragment length polymorphism

b)

in-situ hybridization

c)

polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

d)

amplified fragment length polymorphism

109.

The most common type of wart fund on the hand is?

a)

Verruca plana

b)

Verruca plantaris

c)

Verruca vulgaris

d)

Verruca salt

110.

The formal name for a venereal wart is?

a)

Verruca plana

b)

Verruca plantaris

c)

Verruca vulgaris

d)

Condyloma acuminatum

111.

Verruca plantaris can be found where?

a)

Plantar aspect of the foot

b)

Dorsal aspect of the foot

c)

Palmer aspect of the hand

d)

Dorsal aspect of the hand

112.

The two most common sites of verruca plana are?

a)

Plantar aspect of the foot

b)

Face

c)

Palmer aspect of the hand

d)

Dorsal aspect of the hand

113.

A common, self-limited viral disease of the skin caused by a poxvirus is?

a)

Molluscum Contagiosum

b)

Impetigo

c)

Lentigo

d)

Condyloma acuminatum

114.

All forms of impetigo are commonly caused by what organism?

a)

Staphylococcus pasteuri

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Staphylococcus schleiferi

d)

Staphylococcus medusa

115.

Pustules surfaced by a dry crusty serum having a honey-colored appearance is clinically indicative of what skin lesion?

a)

Molluscum Contagiosum

b)

Impetigo

c)

Lentigo

d)

Condyloma acuminatum

116.

Tinea capitis is a dermatophytosis of the scalp that affects mostly what age group?

a)

Infants

b)

Children

c)

Adults

d)

Elderly

117.

A relatively uncommon fungal infection of the male beard area is called?

a)

Tinea pedis

b)

Tinea corporis

c)

Tinea cruris

d)

Tinea barbae

118.

Ring worm is a parasite that establishes itself in the subcutaneous tissue and causes a distinctive ring on the skin?

a)

True

b)

False

119.

The fungal infection that most frequently presents in the inguinal areas of obese men during warm weather is?

a)

Tinea pedis

b)

Tinea corporis

c)

Tinea cruris

d)

Tinea barbae

120.

Discoloration, thickening, and deformity of the nail plate is termed?

a)

Onychomycosis

b)

Spongiosis

c)

Urticaria

d)

Ichthyosis

121.

Tinea versicolor is caused by a yeast, not a fungus?

a)

True

b)

False

122.

The proper name for the fungus that causes athlete’s foot is?

a)

Tinea pedis

b)

Tinea corporis

c)

Tinea cruris

d)

Tinea barbae