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Applied Path Exam 1

Total questions: 117

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Who comprises the anatomic pathology staff?

a)

Lab Assistant/Accessioner

b)

Pathologists' Assistant

c)

Pathologist

d)

Histotech

e)

Students

2.

What are the phases of the anatomic pathology workflow?

a)

Pre Analytic

b)

Analytic

c)

Post Analytic

d)

Distributive

3.

Which phase of the anatomic pathology specimen workflow includes specimen procurement, accessioning, and grossing?

a)

Pre Analytic

b)

Analytic

c)

Post Analytic

d)

Distributive

4.

Which phase of the anatomic pathology specimen workflow includes processing, embedding, sectioning, staining, and case assembly?

a)

Pre Analytic

b)

Analytic

c)

Post Analytic

d)

Distributive

5.

Which phase of the anatomic pathology specimen workflow includes case sign out, intraoperative procedures such as frozen section?

a)

Pre Analytic

b)

Analytic

c)

Post Analytic

d)

Distributive

6.

Which phase of the anatomic pathology specimen workflow can lead to an adverse patient event?

a)

Pre Analytic

b)

Analytic

c)

Post Analytic

d)

Any of the phases

7.

What does RACE stand for?

a)

Run, Alert, Cry, Evacuate

b)

Rescue, Alarm, Cry, Extinguish

c)

Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish

d)

Run, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish

8.

This symbol displayed on a fire extinguisher means that it is meant to extinguish what type of fire?

a)

Ordinary combustibles such as trash, paper, wood and textiles

b)

Flammable liquids

c)

Electrical equipment

d)

Combustible metal

e)

Combustible cooking media

9.

This symbol displayed on a fire extinguisher means that it is meant to extinguish what type of fire?

a)

Ordinary combustibles such as trash, paper, wood and textiles

b)

Flammable liquids

c)

Electrical equipment

d)

Combustible metal

e)

Combustible cooking media

10.

This symbol displayed on a fire extinguisher means that it is meant to extinguish what type of fire?

a)

Ordinary combustibles such as trash, paper, wood and textiles

b)

Flammable liquids

c)

Electrical equipment

d)

Combustible metal

e)

Combustible cooking media

11.

This symbol displayed on a fire extinguisher means that it is meant to extinguish what type of fire?

a)

Ordinary combustibles such as trash, paper, wood and textiles

b)

Flammable liquids

c)

Electrical equipment

d)

Combustible metal

e)

Combustible cooking media

12.

This symbol displayed on a fire extinguisher means that it is meant to extinguish what type of fire?

a)

Ordinary combustibles such as trash, paper, wood and textiles

b)

Flammable liquids

c)

Electrical equipment

d)

Combustible metal

e)

Combustible cooking media

13.

What type of extinguisher is associated with this symbol?

a)

Halon

b)

Water

c)

Dry powder

d)

Foam

e)

Carbon dioxide

14.

What type of extinguisher is associated with this symbol?

a)

Halon

b)

Water

c)

Dry powder

d)

Foam

e)

Carbon dioxide

15.

What type of extinguisher is associated with this symbol?

a)

Halon

b)

Water

c)

Dry powder

d)

Foam

e)

Carbon dioxide

16.

What type of extinguisher is associated with this symbol?

a)

Halon

b)

Water

c)

Dry powder

d)

Foam

e)

Carbon dioxide

17.

What type of extinguisher is associated with this symbol?

a)

Halon

b)

Water

c)

Dry powder

d)

Foam

e)

Carbon dioxide

18.

How to properly use a fire extinguisher, "PASS?"

a)

Pause, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

b)

Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

c)

Pull, Aim, Scream, Sweep

d)

Pause, Aim, Scream, Sweep

19.

What are chemical hazards we will encounter in the lab?

a)

Formalin and Xylene

b)

HCl/Decalcifiers

c)

Mounting media

d)

Stains/Fixatives

e)

Alcohol

20.

What hazard is represented by this GHS (Global Harmonized System) symbol?

a)

Oxidizers

b)

Aquatic Toxicity

c)

Acute Toxicity

d)

Gases under pressure

e)

Explosives

21.

What hazard is represented by this GHS (Global Harmonized System) symbol?

a)

Oxidizers

b)

Aquatic Toxicity

c)

Acute Toxicity

d)

Gases under pressure

e)

Explosives

22.

What hazard is represented by this GHS (Global Harmonized System) symbol?

a)

Oxidizers

b)

Corrosion

c)

Acute Toxicity

d)

Gases under pressure

e)

Explosives

23.

What hazard is represented by this GHS (Global Harmonized System) symbol?

a)

Oxidizers

b)

Corrosion

c)

Acute Toxicity

d)

Gases under pressure

e)

Explosives

24.

What hazard is represented by this GHS (Global Harmonized System) symbol?

a)

Oxidizers

b)

Corrosion

c)

Acute Toxicity

d)

Gases under pressure

e)

Explosives

25.

What hazard is represented by this GHS (Global Harmonized System) symbol?

a)

Oxidizers

b)

Corrosion

c)

Acute Toxicity

d)

Gases under pressure

e)

Explosives

26.

What hazard is represented by the yellow part of the safety diamond?

a)

Fire

b)

Reactivity

c)

Health

d)

Specific Hazard

27.

What hazard is represented by the blue part of the safety diamond?

a)

Fire

b)

Reactivity

c)

Health

d)

Specific Hazard

28.

What hazard is represented by the red part of the safety diamond?

a)

Fire

b)

Reactivity

c)

Health

d)

Specific Hazard

29.

What hazard is represented by the white part of the safety diamond?

a)

Fire

b)

Reactivity

c)

Health

d)

Specific Hazard

30.

If a "W" was present in the white part of the safety diamond, what does that indicate?

a)

Use water

b)

Wash with detergent

c)

Use no water

d)

Use spit

31.

If a "COR" was present in the white part of the safety diamond, what does that indicate?

a)

Corrosive

b)

Coarse

c)

Can oxidize reagents

d)

Use spit

32.

If a "ALK" was present in the white part of the safety diamond, what does that indicate?

a)

Alcoholic

b)

Acid likes to kill

c)

Alkaline

d)

Alkali

33.

What is the permissible exposure limit (PEL) for formaldehyde in the workplace?

a)

0.25 ppm

b)

0.50 ppm

c)

0.75 ppm

d)

1.00 ppm

34.

What is the short term exposure limit (STEL) for formaldehyde over a 15 minute period?

a)

0.5 ppm

b)

0.75 ppm

c)

1.00 ppm

d)

2.00 ppm

35.

What is the action level for formaldehyde when there is increased industrial hygiene monitoring and initiation of worker medical surveillance?

a)

0.25 ppm

b)

0.50 ppm

c)

0.75 ppm

d)

1.00 ppm

36.

What are examples of occupational hazards in the lab?

a)

Grossing station

b)

Accessioning label maker

c)

Cryostat

d)

Cassette labeler

e)

Stryker saw

37.

What is the minimum PPE?

a)

Gloves

b)

Headband

c)

Apron

d)

Eye wear

38.

What is contained within radioactive prostate seeds?

a)

iodine-125

b)

plutonium-125

c)

palladium-103

d)

mercury-103

39.

Examples of non-ionizing (low frequency) radiation:

a)

Powerlines

b)

Microwaves

c)

Remote controls

d)

X-ray

e)

Cell phones

40.

What are the types of ionizing (high frequency) radiation?

a)

Alpha

b)

Beta

c)

X-ray

d)

Gamma

41.

Which type of ionizing (high frequency) radiation involves heavy, positively charged helium atoms?

a)

Alpha

b)

Gamma

c)

Beta

d)

X-ray

42.

Which type of ionizing (high frequency) radiation involves lighter, negatively charged electrons?

a)

Alpha

b)

Gamma

c)

Beta

d)

X-ray

43.

Which type of ionizing (high frequency) radiation involves true electromagnetic waves?

a)

Alpha

b)

Gamma

c)

Beta

d)

X-ray

44.

Which type of ionizing (high frequency) radiation involves photons of pure energy?

a)

Alpha

b)

Gamma

c)

Beta

d)

X-ray

45.

Which type of ionizing (high frequency) radiation has the highest ionization ability?

a)

Alpha

b)

Gamma

c)

Beta

d)

X-ray

46.

Which type of ionizing (high frequency) radiation has the lowest ionization ability?

a)

Alpha

b)

Gamma

c)

Beta

d)

X-ray

47.

Which type of ionizing (high frequency) radiation has the highest penetration ability?

a)

Alpha

b)

Gamma

c)

Beta

d)

X-ray

48.

Which type of ionizing (high frequency) radiation has the lowest penetration ability?

a)

Alpha

b)

Gamma

c)

Beta

d)

X-ray

49.

Roentgen - unit of measuring (a)   exposure

50.

RAD (_______ _________ ________) - the amount of energy deposited in any medium

a)

radiation acquired deposit

b)

radiation acquired dose

c)

radiation absorbed dose

d)

radiation absorbed deposit

51.

REM (________ _________ _________) - combines the amount of energy that is deposited in human tissue along with the medical effects of the given type of radiation

a)

radiation equivalent man

b)

radiation equivalent mean

c)

radiation exposure man

d)

radiation exposure mean

52.

What does prompt fixation prevent?

a)

Autolysis

b)

Cellular swelling

c)

Putrefaction

d)

Necrosis

53.

Which fixative is meant for bone marrow and lymph nodes?

a)

B5

b)

Bouin's

c)

Paraformaldehyde

d)

Carnoy's

e)

Zenker's

54.

Which fixative is meant for GI tissue?

a)

B5

b)

Bouin's

c)

Paraformaldehyde

d)

Carnoy's

e)

Zenker's

55.

Which fixative is meant for lymph nodes and fat clearing?

a)

B5

b)

Bouin's

c)

Paraformaldehyde

d)

Carnoy's

e)

Zenker's

56.

Which fixative is meant for electron microscopy, especially kidney?

a)

B5

b)

Bouin's

c)

Paraformaldehyde

d)

Glutaraldehyde

e)

Zenker's

57.

Which fixative is meant for fluorescence studies?

a)

B5

b)

Bouin's

c)

Paraformaldehyde

d)

Glutaraldehyde

e)

Zenker's

58.

Which fixative is meant for nuclear chromatin, connective tissue and some cytoplasmic features?

a)

B5

b)

Bouin's

c)

Paraformaldehyde

d)

Glutaraldehyde

e)

Zenker's

59.

What are effects the fixative picric acid has on tissue?

a)

Softens tissue

b)

Causes shrinkage

c)

Causes swelling

d)

Coagulates proteins

e)

Increases alcohol penetration

60.

What are effects the fixative acetic acid has on tissue?

a)

Softens tissue

b)

Causes shrinkage

c)

Causes swelling

d)

Coagulates proteins

e)

Lysis of red blood cells

61.

What are effects the fixative chloroform has on tissue?

a)

Softens tissue

b)

Causes shrinkage

c)

Clears fatty tissues

d)

Coagulates proteins

e)

Increases alcohol penetration

62.

What are effects the fixative alcohol has on tissue?

a)

Softens tissue

b)

Causes shrinkage

c)

Causes swelling

d)

Coagulates proteins

e)

Increases alcohol penetration

63.

If a section of tissue is cut perfectly (2.5 x 1.5 x 0.3 cm), how long would it take to fix?

a)

1 hour

b)

1 and a half hours

c)

2 hours

d)

2 and a half hours

64.

What are the concentrations of alcohol for the dehydration part of the process?

a)

50%

b)

70%

c)

80%

d)

90%

e)

100%

65.

What does "clearing" with xylene do to the tissue?

a)

Removes alcohol

b)

Rehydrates

c)

Coagulates proteins

d)

Removes opacity of the tissue

66.

What chemicals can be used as clearing agents?

a)

Xylene

b)

Acetic acid

c)

Butanol

d)

Chloroform

67.

How thick should sections of renal tissue be cut on a microtome?

a)

1-3 microns

b)

2-3 microns

c)

6-15 microns

d)

6-12 microns

68.

How thick should sections of bone marrow be cut on a microtome?

a)

1-3 microns

b)

2-3 microns

c)

6-15 microns

d)

6-12 microns

69.

How thick should sections of tissue needed for nerve histochemical staining be cut on a microtome?

a)

1-3 microns

b)

2-3 microns

c)

6-15 microns

d)

6-12 microns

70.

How thick should sections of tissue needed for amyloid demonstration be cut on a microtome?

a)

1-3 microns

b)

2-3 microns

c)

6-15 microns

d)

6-12 microns

71.

What is the chromophore component of a stain?

a)

colorless powder but carried a color producing agent

b)

a solution to mix the chromogen in

c)

colored compound, but no tissue affinity

d)

salt forming compound, it makes a reactive site

e)

the end product. a color product with the ability to dissociate because of a salt

72.

What is the benzene component of a stain?

a)

colorless powder but carried a color producing agent

b)

a solution to mix the chromophore in

c)

colored compound, but no tissue affinity

d)

salt forming compound, it makes a reactive site

e)

the end product. a color product with the ability to dissociate because of a salt

73.

What is the chromogen component of a stain?

a)

colorless powder but carried a color producing agent

b)

a solution to mix the chromophore in

c)

colored compound, but no tissue affinity

d)

salt forming compound, it makes a reactive site

e)

the end product. a color product with the ability to dissociate because of a salt

74.

What is the auxochrome component of a stain?

a)

colorless powder but carried a color producing agent

b)

a solution to mix the chromophore in

c)

colored compound, but no tissue affinity

d)

salt forming compound, it makes a reactive site

e)

the end product. a color product with the ability to dissociate because of a salt

75.

What is the dye component of a stain?

a)

colorless powder but carried a color producing agent

b)

a solution to mix the chromophore in

c)

colored compound, but no tissue affinity

d)

salt forming compound, it makes a reactive site

e)

the end product. a color product with the ability to dissociate because of a salt

76.

What is the mordant component of a stain?

a)

colorless powder but carried a color producing agent

b)

a solution to mix the chromophore in

c)

colored compound, but no tissue affinity

d)

salt forming compound, it makes a reactive site

e)

metal salt used to produce a lake

77.

What is the lake component of a stain?

a)

a colored structure formed by the union of a dye with a salt or hydroxide of a metal

b)

a solution to mix the chromophore in

c)

colored compound, but no tissue affinity

d)

salt forming compound, it makes a reactive site

e)

the end product. a color product with the ability to dissociate because of a salt

78.

Do basic dyes have a positive or negative charge?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

79.

Do acidic dyes have a positive or negative charge?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

80.

Do acidic dyes react with the cationic or anionic groups in tissues?

a)

cationic

b)

anionic

81.

Do basic dyes react with the cationic or anionic groups in tissues?

a)

cationic

b)

anionic

82.

Which stain is best used to demonstrate collagen fibers?

a)

Trichrome

b)

Iron/Prussian Blue

c)

Elastic/Verhoeff van Giesen

d)

Silver stain/Grocott Methenamine Stain

e)

Silver stain/Reticulum

83.

Which stain is best used to demonstrate hemosiderin deposition?

a)

Trichrome

b)

Iron/Prussian Blue

c)

Elastic/Verhoeff van Giesen

d)

Silver stain/Grocott Methenamine Stain

e)

Silver stain/Reticulum

84.

Which stain is best used to demonstrate elastin fibers?

a)

Trichrome

b)

Iron/Prussian Blue

c)

Elastic/Verhoeff van Giesen

d)

Silver stain/Grocott Methenamine Stain

e)

Silver stain/Reticulum

85.

Which stain is used to demonstrate fungi?

a)

Trichrome

b)

Iron/Prussian Blue

c)

Elastic/Verhoeff van Giesen

d)

Silver stain/Grocott Methenamine Stain

e)

Silver stain/Reticulum

86.

Which stain is used to demonstrate reticulin fibers?

a)

Trichrome

b)

Iron/Prussian Blue

c)

Elastic/Verhoeff van Giesen

d)

Silver stain/Grocott Methenamine Stain

e)

Silver stain/Reticulum

87.

Which stain is used to demonstrate mucin?

a)

Trichrome

b)

Iron/Prussian Blue

c)

Elastic/Verhoeff van Giesen

d)

Silver stain/Grocott Methenamine Stain

e)

Alcian Blue and Periodic-acid Schiff Stain (PAS)

88.

Which stain is used to demonstrate mycobacteria?

a)

Acid fast bacilli

b)

Iron/Prussian Blue

c)

Elastic/Verhoeff van Giesen

d)

Silver stain/Grocott Methenamine Stain

e)

Silver stain/Reticulum

89.

Which stain is used to demonstrate amyloid?

a)

Acid fast bacilli

b)

Iron/Prussian Blue

c)

Congo Red

d)

Silver stain/Grocott Methenamine Stain

e)

Silver stain/Reticulum

90.

Which stain is used to demonstrate bacteria?

a)

Acid fast bacilli

b)

Iron/Prussian Blue

c)

Congo Red

d)

Gram/Brown Hopps stain

e)

Silver stain/Reticulum

91.

Which special solution is used for transportation of lymph tissue?

a)

RPMI (Roswell Park Memorial Institute)

b)

Michel's Medium

c)

Hanks solution

92.

Which special solution is used to preserve skin and kidney samples for immunofluorescence?

a)

RPMI (Roswell Park Memorial Institute)

b)

Michel's Medium

c)

Hanks solution

93.

Which special solution is used to preserve tissue for cytogenetics?

a)

RPMI (Roswell Park Memorial Institute)

b)

Michel's Medium

c)

Hanks solution

94.

What does EMR stand for?

(a)   medical record

95.

What does EHR stand for?

Electronic (a)   record

96.

What is the SOAP format for therapy?

a)

Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan

b)

Study, Observe, Assess, Plan

c)

Subjective, Objective, Act, Plan

d)

Subjective, Observation, Assessment, Plan

97.

Occipital means.....

a)

back of the head

b)

side of the head

c)

front of the head

d)

top of the head

98.

Photophobia means....

a)

intolerant of sounds

b)

intolerant of lights

c)

double vision

d)

blindness

99.

Phonophobia means....

a)

intolerant of sounds

b)

intolerant of lights

c)

double vision

d)

deafness

100.

Epistaxis means....

a)

runny nose

b)

discharge from the ear

c)

nosebleed

d)

redness

101.

Rhinorrhea means....

a)

runny nose or nasal discharge

b)

discharge from the ear

c)

nosebleed

d)

redness

102.

Otorrhea means....

a)

runny nose or nasal discharge

b)

discharge from the ear

c)

nosebleed

d)

redness

103.

Tinnitus means....

a)

runny nose or nasal discharge

b)

discharge from the ear

c)

nosebleed

d)

ringing in the ear

104.

Only a few steps in the AP laboratory could lead to an adverse patient event.

a)

True

b)

False

105.

The following is true about the H&E staining:

a)

Eosin is a basic dye

b)

Eosin is an acidic dye

c)

Hematoxylin is an acidic dye

d)

Hematoxylin, as a part of the tissue-mordant-hematoxylin complex acts as a basic dye.

106.

A 47 y.o. male is diagnosed with squamous carcinoma of the lung. Lung cancer is currently the most frequently diagnosed major cancer in the world. About 80% of lung cancers occur in active smokers of those who have stopped smoking recently. Which component of the medical history would most support this contributing factor:

a)

Social history

b)

Family history

c)

Allergies

d)

Medication history

107.

An adjuvant treatment is a treatment.....

a)

that is given in after to the primary treatment to enhance its effectiveness and reduce the chance of the tumor recurring

b)

given prior to the main or primary treatment

c)

that is intended to relieve symptoms, but not cure disease

108.

An neoadjuvant treatment is a treatment.....

a)

that is given in after to the primary treatment to enhance its effectiveness and reduce the chance of the tumor recurring

b)

given prior to the main or primary treatment

c)

that is intended to relieve symptoms, but not cure disease

109.

Palliative care is a treatment.....

a)

that is given in after to the primary treatment to enhance its effectiveness and reduce the chance of the tumor recurring

b)

given prior to the main or primary treatment

c)

that is intended to relieve symptoms, but not cure disease

110.

Antiemetic means......

a)

a medication used to induce nausea and vomiting

b)

a medication used to stop or help prevent nausea and vomiting, common side effects of some chemotherapy

c)

medication used to induce hunger, lack of appetite being a common side effect of some chemotherapy

111.

Myalgias means.....

a)

Muscle aches

b)

Joint aches

c)

Eye strain

d)

Nausea

112.

Arthralgias means.....

a)

Muscle aches

b)

Joint aches

c)

Eye strain

d)

Nausea

113.

Emesis means......

a)

Swelling

b)

Vomiting

c)

Bloody stool

d)

Tarry black stool

114.

Hematemesis means......

a)

Swelling

b)

bloody vomit

c)

Bloody stool

d)

Tarry black stool

115.

Hematochezia means......

a)

Swelling

b)

bloody vomit

c)

Bloody stool

d)

Tarry black stool

116.

Melena means......

a)

Swelling

b)

bloody vomit

c)

Bloody stool

d)

Tarry black stool

117.

BRBPR stands for Bright Red Blood per (a)  

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