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WorksheetsWomens Health
Total questions: 10
Worksheet time: 10mins
A 36-year-old woman is noted to have a 2-cm palpable breast mass noted on physical examination. A mammogram is performed suggestive of a cyst.
Ultrasound confirms a cystic mass. A fine-needle aspiration is performed with 8 cc of blood-colored fluid obtained. The mass is no longer palpable.
Which of the following is the next best step for this patient?
Expectant management as the prognosis is excellent
Send the fluid for cytology
Lumpectomy and lymph node dissection
Tamoxifen therapy
A 26-year-old woman is referred for genetic counseling because her mother died from breast cancer, and her sister has been diagnosed with breast cancer.The patient is noted to have a BRCA1 mutation. Which of the following best describes the genetic transmission of this disorder?
Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
X-linked dominant
X-linked recessive
A 49-year-old woman is noted to have a 1.5-cm mass of the right breast. It is nontender, and there are no skin changes or adenopathy. The mammogram and ultrasound findings are normal. A core needle biopsy reveals an infiltrating
intraductal carcinoma. Which of the following would most significantly impact on the patient’s prognosis?
Hormone receptor status
Lymph node status
Size of the primary cancer
Presence of skin changes
A 35-year-old G0P0 woman complains of right breast redness and tenderness. The patient denies a family history of breast or ovarian cancer. Whichof the following is the next best step in managing this patient?
Antibiotic therapy to cover Staphylococcus aureus
Biopsy of the breast
Ultrasound of the breast
Begin combination chemotherapy
A 32-year-old P1 woman presents with an 8-month history of amenorrhea. A pregnancy test is negative. TSH and prolactin levels are normal. The FSH level is elevated at 40 IU/ L. Which of the following is the most likelycomplication for this patient?
She is at significant risk for endometrial cancer
She is at increased risk for ovarian cancer.
She is at increased risk for osteoporosis
She is at increased risk for multiple gestations
A 32-year-old G0P0 woman is noted to have irregular menses and hirsutism.
Which of the following is consistent with polycystic ovarian syndrome?
Elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone level
Finding of a 9-cm right ovarian mass
Vaginal bleeding after a 5-day course of progesterone oral therapy
DEXA scan showing osteopenia
A 35-year-old woman has had irregular menstrual cycles since high school. She frequently misses cycles and has never been pregnant. When she has cycles, they are very light and last for only a few days. She has had mild-to moderate comedonal and pustular acne since late adolescence and in recent years has developed some hair growing under her chin. She denies taking any medications or history of other gynecologic or medical problems. Which of the following is the most appropriate evaluation for the initial workup of her problem?
SerumTSH
Serum estradiol
Urine cortisol
SerumFSH
Which of the following statements regarding postmenopausal osteoporosis is true?
the most rapid loss of bone density occurs within the first 5 years of menopause
surgical menopause is a lower risk factor for osteoporosis than natural menopause
the protective effects of estrogen on bone density are maintained after discontinuation
all women should undergo bone density testing at menopause
A 51-year-old woman has been experiencing progressive symptoms of profuse night sweats and frequent hot flushes occurring both day and night. She finds her emotional state increasingly labile. She is also experiencing sleep disturbances and anxiety. She denies any weight loss or bowel complaints. Her last period was approximately 12 months ago. She has no history of medical problems or affective disorders. Her pulse is 78 beats per minute, and her blood pressure is 122/74 mm Hg. Her pelvic examination reveals dry atrophic external genitalia, a small anteverted uterus, and no adnexal masses. The rest of her examination is completely normal. What is the most effective treatment option for this patient?
estrogen with progestin therapy (hormone therapy [HT])
antidepressants
estrogen alone (estrogen therapy [ET])
progestin/progesterone alone
A 24-year-old woman comes to your office with a 2-day history of dysuria accompanied by painful genital lesions that have coalesced to form ulcers. The patient also has fever, malaise, myalgias, and a headache. There is no previous history of this condition. She has had three sexual partners in the past and inconsistently uses barrier contraceptive methods. The most likely diagnosis is:
herpes simplex infection
chancroid
e. primary syphilis
c. lymphogranuloma venereum
