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Pharm Week 8/9 Test 3

Total questions: 59

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Glycogenolysis

a)

Glucose to Glucagon

b)

Amino Acid to Glycogen

c)

Glycogen to Glucose

d)

Amino Acid to Glucose

2.

Gluconeogenesis

a)

Amino Acid to Glucose

b)

Glucose to Glycogen

c)

Glycogen to Glucose

d)

Amino Acid to Glycogen

3.

Glucagon is produced where

a)

Alpha cells of pancreas

b)

Beta cells of pancreas

c)

Delta cells of pancreas

d)

Gamma Cells of pancreas

4.

Insulin is released in response to decreased blood glucose

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Select all that are secreted from Beta cells of pancreas

a)

Insulin

b)

Glucagon

c)

Amylin

d)

Pepsin

6.

Select the incretins that enhance glucose stimulated insulin secretion in B cells following food ingestion

a)

GLP-1

b)

DPP-4

c)

GIP

d)

Glucagon

7.

Which incretin slows gastric emptying, decreases glucagon secretion, and stimulates satiety

a)

GLP-1

b)

GIP

8.

Which adipose tissue hormone stimulates the hypothalamus to decrease appetite

a)

Adiponectin

b)

Leptin

c)

GIP

d)

DPP-4

9.

Which of the following is described best by a resistance to insulin leading to a relative deficiency of insulin secretion

a)

Type 1 DM

b)

Type 2 DM

c)

Pre-Diabetes

d)

Gestational Diabetes

10.

Caution concentration of insulin

a)

U-100

b)

U-200

c)

U-500

d)

U-300

11.

Which of the following types of Insulin can be administered IV

a)

Regular

b)

Rapid Acting

c)

Mixtures

d)

Long Acting

12.

U-100 3mL pen contains how many units of Insulin

a)

33.3 Units

b)

103 Units

c)

30 Units

d)

300 Units

13.

Insulin’s that end in LIN R class (NovoLIN R, HumuLIN R)

a)

Rapid Acting

b)

Short Acting

c)

Intermediate Acting

d)

Long Acting

14.

Short acting insulin’s should be taken:

a)

Once in the morning

b)

15 mins before meal

c)

30 mins before meal

d)

Once at night

15.

Analog Insulin’s are found in what category

a)

Long acting Insulins

b)

Intermediate acting Insulins

c)

Short acting Insulins

d)

Rapid acting insulins

16.

Glulisine (Apidra) class

a)

Rapid acting insulin

b)

Short acting insulin

c)

Long acting insulin

d)

Ultra long acting insulin

17.

Select the Rapid acting BIOSIMILARS that can be taken with meal or after

a)

Apidra

b)

Insulin Aspart

c)

Insulin Lispro aabc

d)

NovoLOG

18.

Select the inhaled Rapid acting Insulin that shouldn’t be taken with chronic lung disease pts

a)

Apidra (Glulisine)

b)

Afrezza (technosphere)

c)

Aspart (NovoLOG)

d)

Lispro (HumaLog)

19.

How are basal Insulins typically taken

a)

Oral

b)

IV

c)

Subcutaneously

20.

Insulin Glargine (Lantus) Class

a)

Rapid acting

b)

Short acting

c)

Long Acting

d)

Ultra Long acting

21.

Select the U-300 Insulin Glargine Analog

a)

Lantus

b)

Basaglar

c)

Detemir

d)

Toujeo

22.

Which of the following basals is typically given twice a day due to a shorter half-life

a)

Insulin Detemir (Levemir)

b)

Insulin Glargine (Lantus)

c)

NPH

d)

Insulin Degludec (Tresiba)

23.

Insulin Degludec (Tresiba) Class

a)

Rapid Acting

b)

Short Acting

c)

Intermediate acting

d)

Ultra-Long acting

24.

Which of the following shouldn’t be thrown away for cloudy appearance

a)

Tresiba

b)

Lemevir

c)

Glargine

d)

NPH Insulin

25.

NPH insulin class

a)

Rapid Acting

b)

Short Acting

c)

Intermediate acting

d)

Long acting

26.

HumuLIN 70/30

a)

70% Aspart protamine and 30% insulin aspart

b)

70% Lispro protamine and 30% lispro injection

c)

70% Lispro protamine and 30% regular

d)

70% NPH and 30% regular

27.

NovoLog 70/30

a)

NPH and regular

b)

Apart protamine and insulin aspart

c)

Lispro protamine and lispro injection

d)

NPH and Insulin Aspart

28.

Lispro protamine + lispro injection

a)

Nuvolog Mix

b)

HumuLIN Mix

c)

HumaLOG mix

29.

What is true about dosing insulin (Select all)

a)

2 units / kg

b)

Around 50/50 basal/bolus

c)

Around 75/25 basal/bolus

d)

.5 units/ kg

30.

Correction Factor= How much one unit of insulin will drop glucose levels

a)

True

b)

False

31.

DPP-4 helps initiate GIP and GLP-1 effect after eating

a)

True

b)

False

32.

There is increased glucose reabsorption by SGLT transporters in the kidney in patients with T2 diabetes

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Select all of the injectable agents used for type 2 diabetes

a)

GLP-1 Receptor agonists

b)

Thiazolidinediones

c)

Amylin mimetics

d)

Insulins

34.

Insulin has the highest efficacy for A1C

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Drug class that inhibits ATP dependent K+ channels in Beta cells and squeezes insulin out like a sponge

a)

SGLT-2 inhibitors

b)

Sulfonureas

c)

Amylin Mimetics

d)

TZDs

36.

Select the side effects seen in Sulfonylureas

a)

Weight loss

b)

Weight Gain

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Hyperglycemia

37.

Select the first gen sulfonylurea

a)

Tolbutamide

b)

Glyburide

c)

Glimepiride

d)

Pramlintide

38.

GLUCOSE DEPENDENT class that inhibit K+ channels in Beta Cells and squeeze insulin release from functional Beta Cells

a)

Meglitinides

b)

TZD

c)

SGLT-2 inhibitors

d)

DPP-4 inhibitor

39.

Repaglinide and Nateglinide Class

a)

TZD

b)

DPP-4 inhibitors

c)

Meglitinides

d)

SGLT-2 inhibitors

40.

Select all true about metformin MOA

a)

Primary effect on Liver, Decreases hepatic glucose production

b)

Secondary effect on peripheral tissue, increase of uptake in fat and muscle

c)

Decrease insulin sensitivity

d)

Increases insulin secretion

41.

Side effects with metformin

a)

Weight loss

b)

ASCVD Benefit

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Renal Dosing necessary

e)

Lactic Acidosis

42.

Which eGFR level is contraindicated with Metformin use

a)

>60

b)

45-60

c)

30-45

d)

<30

43.

Drug class with strong Gamma effects, who’s primary’s effect is increase uptake of insulin in peripheral tissue, secondary effect is decrease glucose production in liver

a)

SGLT-2 Inhibitor

b)

DPP-4

c)

Sulfonylureas

d)

TZD inhibitors

44.

Rosglitazone and Pioglitazone Class

a)

SGLT-2 Inhibitor

b)

DPP-4 Inhibitor

c)

Sulfonylureas

d)

TZD inhibitors

45.

Which TZD is linked to Bladder Cancer

a)

Rosiglitazone

b)

Pioglitazone

46.

TZDs have a severe ADR of HF, Macular Edema, Bone fractures

a)

True

b)

False

47.

TZD that increases risk of MI

a)

Rosiglitazone

b)

Pioglitazone

48.

Your patient is at risk for HF, which DPP-4 inhibitor should you avoid prescribing

a)

Sitagliptin

b)

Saxagliptin

c)

Linagliptin

d)

Alogliptin

49.

Drugs that end in “gliptin” class

a)

DPP-4 Inhibitors

b)

SGLT-2 Inhibitors

c)

TZD inhibitors

d)

Sulfonylureas

50.

Drugs that end in “gliflozin” class

a)

DPP-4 Inhibitors

b)

Sulfonylureas

c)

TZD inhibitors

d)

SGLT-2 Inhibitors

51.

Select the SGLT-2 inhibitor that LACKS any beneficial cardiac effects

a)

Empagliflozin

b)

Canagliflozin

c)

Dapagliflozin

d)

Ertugliflozin

52.

Select the SGLT-2 inhibitor that is beneficial for T2DM, decreases the risk of MACE, AND decreases the risk of End stage Kidney disease

a)

Empagliflozin

b)

Canagliflozin

c)

Dapagliflozin

d)

Ertugliflozin

53.

Select all of the GLP-1 agonists that decrease the risk of MACE, and have renal benefits

a)

Dulaglutide

b)

Exenatide

c)

Liraglutide

d)

Lixisenatide

e)

Semaglutide

54.

When adding Insulin to a patient with Type 2 DM regimen, what should you start with

a)

10 units Bolus

b)

15 units Bolus

c)

10 units Basal

d)

15 units basal

55.

Select the Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors (GI ADRs)

a)

Sitagliptin

b)

Empagliflozin

c)

Acarbose

d)

Miglitol

56.

Pramlintidine class

a)

Sulfonylurea

b)

Amylin Mimetic

c)

DPP-4 Inhibitor

d)

SGLT-2 inhibitor

57.

When to start treating for hypoglycemia -BG level

a)

Less than 100

b)

Less than 50

c)

Less than 70

d)

Greater than 140

58.

Levothyroxine class

a)

Antithyroid agent

b)

Thyroid replacement

c)

Sulfonylurea

d)

DPP-4 inhibitor

59.

Methimazole class

a)

Antithyroid agent

b)

Thyroid replacement

c)

Sulfonylurea

d)

GLP-1 inhibitor