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SRTC Quiz Chap 33 & 34

Total questions: 20

Worksheet time: 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The maxillae form which of the following structures?

a)

Lower jaw

b)

Cheek bones

c)

Upper jaw

d)

Forehead

2.

What is another name for the zygomatic bone?

a)

Temporal

b)

Malar

c)

Maxillae

d)

Mandible

3.

To which of the following sections of the spine are the ribs attached?

a)

Lumbar

b)

Cervical

c)

Thoracic

d)

Sacral

4.

Which portions of the spine are the most vulnerable to injury?

a)

Thoracic and sacra

b)

Thoracic and lumbar

c)

Cervical and lumbar

d)

Cervical and sacra

5.

As pressure within the cranium increases, which of the following is the result?

a)

Increased blood pressure, increased pulse

b)

Increased blood pressure, decreased pulse

c)

Decreased blood pressure, increased pulse

d)

Decreased blood pressure, decreased pulse

6.

Which of the following causes worsening of the damage in a brain injury?

a)

Administration of 100% oxygen

b)

Improper management of airway and ventilation

c)

Failure to keep the patient awake and talking

d)

Allowing seepage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the ears or nose

7.

A 17-year-old girl was injured when her car was struck from behind while she was stopped at a red light. She is complaining of a headache with neck and back pain. You suspect she has sustained a(n):

a)

extension injury.

b)

distraction injury.

c)

compression fracture.

d)

whiplash injury.

8.

Which of the following is the underlying cause of neurogenic shock?

a)

Extreme emotional response to paralysis

b)

Failure of the heart to adequately pump blood

c)

Blood loss from damaged spinal blood vessels

d)

Failure of the nervous system to control the diameter of blood vessels

9.

Your patient is a 30-year-old female involved in a motorcycle crash. She was not wearing a helmet and struck her head on the pavement. She is unresponsive and has a blood pressure of 152/110 mmHg. Her pulse is 60 beats per minute and respirations are 8 breaths per minute and shallow. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention?

a)

Hyperventilate at a rate of 24 breaths per minute using supplemental oxygen.

b)

Carefully rotate the patient's head to check for trauma.

c)

Log-roll the patient onto a short spine board.

d)

Provide cervical spine immobilization.

10.

Your patient has been injured by a fall down a flight of steps. He is alert and oriented but complains of back and neck pain. You immobilize him on a long spine board with a cervical collar on his neck as a precaution because you know that the:

a)

lumbar area is rarely injured due to the rib support.

b)

thoracic spine is especially vulnerable to injury.

c)

cervical spine is not supported by other bony structures.

d)

coccyx is easily dislocated.

11.

What is the definition of multiple trauma?

a)

A trauma in which the patient has more than one serious injury

b)

Multiple injuries that affect more than one body system

c)

A trauma that requires the response of multiple agencies

d)

A trauma in which there are multiple casualties

12.

What is the definition of multisystem trauma?

a)

One or more injuries that affect more than one body system

b)

A trauma in which there are multiple casualties

c)

Trauma in which the patient has more than one serious injury

d)

A trauma that requires the response of multiple agencies

13.

Multiple trauma and multisystem trauma patients are situations in which the EMT is expected to perform which of the following?

a)

Provide the best quality care possible, including definitive care on scene.

b)

Practice outside the scope of practice in order to provide the greatest good.

c)

Make decisions beyond what is usually called for.

d)

Respond above and beyond the call of duty.

14.

You respond to a 22-year-old male patient who fell while exiting the local bar. Bystanders state he drank at least 10 beers and could not keep his balance. Physical exam reveals that the patient is alert to verbal stimuli only. He has Glasgow Coma Scale scores of 3, 4, and 6; slurred speech; and an obvious scalp laceration to the back of his head. He is refusing treatment and transport and wants his friends to drive him home. The nearest hospital is 5 minutes away, a Level II Trauma Center is 10 minutes away, and a Level I Full Service Trauma Center is 30 minutes away. Which of these is the most appropriate facility for the patient?

a)

The nearest community facility

b)

Level II Trauma Center

c)

Level I Trauma Center

d)

Nowhere, because the patient is an adult and refusing care

15.

Based on the following presentations of patient injuries, which one would be considered most severe according to the anatomic criteria of the CDC trauma triage guidelines, justifying immediate transportation to a trauma center?

a)

Open (compound) midshaft femur fracture

b)

Midline cervical spine pain

c)

Closed head injury

d)

Flail chest

16.

An adult fall meets trauma triage criteria set forth by the CDC if it is greater than:

a)

25 feet.

b)

10 feet.

c)

20 feet.

d)

15 feet.

17.

A respiratory rate of less than ________ or greater than ________ in cases of trauma is a criterion for immediate transportation to a trauma center according to the CDC physiologic guidelines.

a)

8; 32

b)

10; 29

c)

5; 45

d)

12; 20

18.

You are dispatched to a motorcycle crash with one patient involved. What on-scene intervention is inappropriate for this patient?

a)

Manually stabilizing the cervical spine.

b)

Begin chest compressions.

c)

Extensively splint the patient's injuries.

d)

Suction vomit and secretions from the airway.

19.

According to CDC guidelines, a systolic blood pressure (BP) of less than ________ indicates a patient should be transported to a trauma center.

a)

100

b)

90

c)

80

d)

110

20.

What are the three elements of the Revised Trauma Score?

a)

GCS, systolic blood pressure, and pulse rate

b)

GCS, systolic blood pressure, and respiratory rate

c)

Level of consciousness, systolic blood pressure, and pulse rate

d)

GCS, pulse rate, and respiratory rate