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H3CSE PostTest

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 3hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following are the layers of the hierarchical network model?

a)

Distribution layer

b)

Campus network core layer

c)

Core layer

d)

Access layer

2.

Which of the following are the modules of the H3C modular network architecture?

a)

Disaster recovery

b)

VPN access

c)

Server farm

d)

WAN distribution

3.

Common designs for the core layer of a large-sized LAN include

a)

Single-core

b)

Dual-core

c)

Multi-node ring

d)

Full mesh

4.

Which of these technologies can implement redundancy in large-sized networks?

a)

VRRP

b)

MSTP

c)

SMart Link

d)

Dynamic Routing Protocol

5.

Which of the following redundancy protocols is most suitable for a dual-homed network?

a)

STP

b)

RRPP

c)

Smart Link

d)

VRRP

6.

IRF provides link and node redundancy.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

IEEE 802.10 inserts a VLAN tag .... in the Ethernet frame header.

a)

Before the source MAC field

b)

After the source MAC field

c)

Before the destination MAC field

d)

After the destination MAC field

8.

The Tag Control Information (TCl) field comprises the following elements:

a)

TPID

b)

Priority

c)

CFI

d)

VLAN ID

9.

Which of the following statements are TRUE about the PVID

a)

The PVID of an access port is the VLAN that it belongs to, and is not configurable.

b)

Atrunk or hybrid port allows multiple VLANs, and you can set the PVID of a trunk or hybrid port.

c)

After you use the undo vian command to delete the VLAN that an access port is in, the PVID of the access port changes to VLAN 1.

d)

After you use the undo vlan command to delete a VLAN which is the default VLAN of a hybrid or trunk port, the default VLAN of the port does not change.

10.

Which of the following statements are TRUE about a trunk port?

a)

The trunk ports of a switch can connect only to switches.

b)

A trunk port does not change the VLAN tag of any incoming VLAN tagged frame.

c)

A trunk port always sends a frame out with its VLAN tag unchanged, regardless of whether the VLAN ID of the frame is the same as the PVID of the trunk port or not.

d)

To change a trunk port into a hybrid port, you must configure the port as an access port first.

11.

Which of the following statements are TRUE about Private VLANs ?

a)

The Private VLAN function is implemented by using hybrid ports and the shared VLAN learning mechanism.

b)

Secondary VLANs are isolated at Layer 2, and cannot communicate with one another.

c)

Secondary VLANs are isolated at Layer 3, and cannot communicate with one another.

d)

The shared VLAN mechanism refers to synchronizing the MAC address entries from the secondary VLANs to the Private VLAN, with the outgoing port unchanged.

12.

Which of the following scenarios is local proxy ARP suitable for?

a)

Two PCs in the same VLAN but isolated by port isolation require Layer 3 communication.

b)

Hosts on the same IP subnet but connected to different Layer 3 interfaces requireLayer 3 communicate.

c)

Hosts in different sub-VLANs of a super VLAN require Layer 3 communication.

d)

Hosts in different secondary VLANs of an Private VLAN require Layer 3 communication.

13.

Why do Layer-3 switches replace routers to implement inter-VLAN routing?

a)

In the single-arm routing method that implements inter-VLAN routing through a router, packets are delayed due to the round trip time on the trunk link.

b)

Routers are more expensive than switches.

c)

Most low-end and mid-range routers use software to forward packets, and thus have low speed, causing bottlenecks.

d)

Layer-3 switches use hardware to forward packets, thus have large throughput and high speed, and avoid delay and instability brought by using external links.

14.

Which parts are involved in Layer-3 forwarding on a Layer-3 switch?

a)

Routing protocols

b)

Platform software protocol stack

c)

Hardware

d)

Driver code

15.

STP port roles include:

a)

Root port

b)

Designated port

c)

Backup port

d)

Alternate port

16.

In spanning tree calculation, the priority vector includes ...

a)

Root ID

b)

Root Path Cost

c)

Forwarding Delay

d)

Bridge ID

e)

Port ID

17.

What are the differences between RSTP and STP

a)

RSTP has less port states

b)

RSTP has more port roles

c)

They use different BPDU formats and sending modes

d)

RSTP delivers rapid convergence upon topclogy changes

18.

RSTP mechanisms include ?

a)

Edge port mechanism

b)

Root port rapid convergence mechanism

c)

Designated port rapid convergence mechanism

d)

Backup port rapid convergence mechanism

19.

Which of the following statements about MSTP is correct?

a)

MSTP generates multiple spanning trees based on instances.

b)

An instance can contain one or more VLANs, and each VLAN can map only to one instance.

c)

MSTP implement load sharing for traffic among instances.

d)

MSTP is defined in IEEE 802.1s.

20.

Which of the following parameters do the switches in the same MST region have?

a)

Region name

b)

Revision level

c)

VLAN-to-instance mappings

d)

Switch name

21.

The STP protection mechanisms include ?

a)

BPDU guard

b)

Root guard

c)

Loop guard

d)

TC BPDU guard

22.

Which of the following statements about BPDU guard are correct?

a)

An edge port transitions to a non-edge port when it receives a BPDU.

b)

BPDU guard is configured in port view.

c)

BPDU guard is configured in system view.

d)

With BPDU guard enabled, edge ports are shut down when a BPDU is received.

23.

Which of the following about high availability is true?

a)

The availability of a product refers to the capability to implement specific functions in specific time under certain conditions.

b)

A higher availability means a longer time for a product to operate normally.

c)

MTBF means “Mean Time Between Failures.

d)

High availability is MTBF/MTTR.

24.

The high availability design of a campus network mainly focuses on:

a)

Device price

b)

Stacking technology

c)

Device redundancy

d)

Link redundancy

25.

Which of the following statements about link aggregation is correct?

a)

Link aggregation combines multiple physical Ethemet ports into one logical aggregation group.

b)

The upper layer entities of the link aggregation service consider the physical links in the same aggregation group as one logical link.

c)

Link aggregation allows you to increase bandwidth by distributing traffic across the member ports in a single aggregation group.

d)

The member ports in the same aggregation group cannot dynamically back up each other.

26.

Which of the following configurations does not participate in operational key calculations?

a)

GVRP

b)

MSTP

c)

QinQ configuration

d)

VLAN configuration

27.

Which of the following technologies can remove network loops on a dual-homed network?

a)

STP

b)

RRPP

c)

Trunk

d)

Smart Link

28.

The features of Smart Link include:

a)

Dedicated to dual uplink networks

b)

Subsecond convergence

c)

Easy to configure

d)

Can be used with STP

29.

RRPP stands for :

a)

Fast Ring Protect Protocol

b)

Rapid Ring Protect Protocol

c)

Fast Ring Protection Protocol

d)

Rapid Ring Protection Protocol

30.

Each device on an RRPP ring is referred to as a node. The role of a node can be:

a)

Masternode

b)

Slavenode

c)

Edgenode

d)

Assistant-edgenode

31.

The VRID of a VRRP group can be configured as ...

a)

0

b)

1

c)

255

d)

256

32.

The authentication modes supported by VRRP include

a)

No authentication

b)

Simple text authentication

c)

MDS5 authentication

d)

SHA authentication

33.

IRF fabric management inloves ?

a)

Topology collection

b)

Topology election

c)

Master election

d)

IRF fabric maintenance

34.

Which of the following are true about an IRF fabric that comprises distributed chassis switches ?

a)

The AMB of the master is the AMB of the IRF fabric

b)

The SMB of the master is one of the SMBs of the IRF Fabric

c)

The AMB of a slave si the AMB of the IRF fabric

d)

The SMBs of the slaves are the SMBs of the IRF fabric

35.

Which of the following statements about SPT are correct?

a)

In an SPT, the path from the multicast source to each receiver is the optimal.

b)

In an SPT, each router maintains an (*, G) entry.

c)

In an SPT, each router maintains an (S, G) entry.

d)

Different multicast sources have independent SPTs rooted at themselves.

36.

Which of the following statements about RPT are correct?

a)

Building of a RPT is initiated by receivers.

b)

In an RPT, each router maintains (*, G) entries.

c)

in an RPT, each router maintains (S, G) entries.

d)

The multicast sources send multicast data to their receivers. The RPs receive the multicast data and forward the data to the receivers.

37.

Which of the following statements about multicast protocol classification are correct?

a)

Multicast protocols fall into dense mode and parse mode.

b)

Multicast routing protocols can be divided into intra-domain and inter-domain protocols.

c)

Intra-domain multicast protocols include DVMRP, MOSPF, and PIM.

d)

MSDP is an inter-domain multicast routing protocol.

38.

The mechanisms used in PIM-DM include:

a)

Flood-and-prune mechanism

b)

Graft mechanism

c)

Assert mechanism

d)

State refresh mechanism

39.

Which of the following tasks must be completed before you perform Layer 3 multicast configuration?

a)

Enter IGMP view

b)

Specify the IGMP version

c)

Configure the PIM protocol

d)

Enable multicast routing globally by using the multicast routing command

40.

Which of the following statements about PIM are true?

a)

To configure PIM-DM, you only need to enable PIM-DM in interface view

b)

To configure PIM-SM, you need to enable PIM-SM and finish RP-related and C-BSR-related configurations. If it is required to specify a device as the DR of a sharednetwork segment, you also need to configure the priority for DR election.

c)

You can configure PIM in VLAN view.

d)

You can configure PIM in VLAN interface view.

41.

What does network security mean?

a)

Make sure users can access network resources at will.

b)

Ensure the security of the internal LAN.

c)

Block illegal access to the internal LAN.

d)

Ensure the security of data exchanged between the intemal network andexternal network.

42.

Which of the following behaviors are not security threats or hacking behaviors?

a)

Use existing backdoors to obtain network administrators’ passwords.

b)

Log in to your own computer to change data.

c)

Use electronic eavesdropping technologies to obtain the passwords of key departments.

d)

Use software tools to attack network devices.

43.

Which of the following access services does AAA support?

a)

FTP

b)

Telnet

c)

PPP

d)

Portal

44.

RADIUS is based on (....), and TACACS + is based on (....).

a)

IP

b)

TCP

c)

UDP

d)

802.1X

45.

Which of the following are 802.1X entities?

a)

Client

b)

Device

c)

Terminal

d)

Authentication server

46.

MAC authentication does not require any client software. However, the user must input the username and password to trigger MAC authentication.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Which of the following are supported by EAD fast deployment?

a)

Before 802.1X authentication, users can access specific subnets.

b)

Users failing 802.1X authentication can access specific subnets.

c)

Before a user passes 802.1X authentication, the user's HTTP requests are redirected to a specified URL.

d)

When a user passes 802.1X authentication, the user's HTTP requests are redirected to a specified URL.

48.

Which of the following is a portal authentication mode?

a)

Direct authentication

b)

EAP authentication

c)

Re-DHCP authentication

d)

Layer 3 authentication

49.

To configure a device as an SSH server and set the authentication method to publickey, which of the following configurations are required?

a)

Enable the SSH server function.

b)

Generate a local key pair.

c)

Create an SSH user, set the authentication method to publickey, and specify the public key.

d)

Specify the authentication mode and protocol type for the user interfaces.

50.

Which of the following statements about SFTP are not true?

a)

SFTP is a feature in SSH1.

b)

SFTP is the short for secure FTP.

c)

SFTP and SSH are two independent security protocols

d)

You can set the service type to SFTP or all when configuring a user on the SFTP server

51.

What are the major objectives of campus network management and maintenance?

a)

Ensure normal network operation through periodic or real-time monitoring of network devices and terminals

b)

Locate and remove failures

c)

Provide fast responses to new requirements through system upgrade and capacity expansion

d)

Deploy the latest network management system

52.

How to simplify network management and maintenance?

a)

Use unified network management

b)

Use cluster technology

c)

Use IRF technology

d)

Use standard protocols

53.

The basic functions of network management defined by the ISO include

a)

Fault management

b)

Configuration management

c)

Accounting management

d)

Performance management

54.

Which of the following descriptions about SNMP are correct?

a)

SNMPv1 uses community name for authentication.

b)

SNMPv2 adds the features of manager-to-manager communication and bulk information transfer

c)

SNMPv2c uses authentication and encryption

d)

SNMPv3 defines security mechanisms and access control rules

55.

The TLVs that must be contained in an LLDPDU include

a)

Chassis 1D TLV

b)

Port ID TLV

c)

Time to Live TLV

d)

System Name TLV

56.

LLDP operating modes include?

a)

TxRx

b)

Tx

c)

Rx

d)

default

57.

An aggregation part can be used as a source port.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

In remote port mirroring, the ports in the probe VLAN must be disabled from MAC address learning

a)

True

b)

False

59.

The current NTP version is

a)

v0

b)

v1

c)

v2

d)

v3

60.

In symmetric mode, the active peer can synchronize the passive peer and vise versa.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Which multicast MAC address is the IP address 228.129.129.129 mapped to?

a)

01-00-5E-00-01-01

b)

00-01-5E-11-81-81

c)

01-00-5E-01-81-81

d)

00-01-5E-00-81-81

62.

Which of the following statements are correct about the multicast architecture?

a)

Generally, routers and hosts run multicast routing protocols in between.

b)

Generally, routers run multicast group management protocols in between.

c)

Generally, hosts and routers run multicast group management protocols in between.

d)

The commonly-used inter-domain multicast routing protocol is Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP).

63.

Which of the following mechanisms are supported by multicast group management protocols?

a)

Join- and leave-group

b)

Multicast group maintenance by router

c)

Querier election

d)

Report suppression

64.

Which of the following messages are supported by IGMPv2?

a)

general query

b)

group-specific query

c)

membership report

d)

leave group message

65.

IP voice deployment includes?

a)

PoE

b)

QoS

c)

Voice packet identification

d)

Digital/analog conversion

66.

following value must the TPID field take for an 802.1Q tagged

a)

0x8000

b)

0x8100

c)

0x8200

d)

0x8300

67.

The default Hold timer of GVRP is?

a)

5 centiseconds

b)

10 centiseconds

c)

20 centiseconds

d)

60 centiseconds

68.

Which field of a received frame does a switch check first?

a)

VLAN attribute

b)

Destination MAC address

c)

Source MAC address

d)

Destination IP address

e)

Source IP address

69.

A spanning tree calculation process includes?

a)

Root bridge election

b)

Root port calculation

c)

Designated port calculation

d)

Alternate port calculation

70.

A typical large-sized LAN comprises the?

a)

Core Layer

b)

Distribution Layer

c)

Access Layer

d)

Network Layer