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WorksheetsEsophagus
Total questions: 20
Worksheet time: 20mins
A 58-year-old alcoholic man with Child's C cirrhosis and portal hypertension presents with abrupt onset hematemesis. He has been admitted previously for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis but nothing like this has ever happened before. On exam, his pulse rate is 110 beats/min and his blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg. He is awake and alert, and his abdomen is soft and nontender. His hematocrit is 25%, and his white blood cell count is unremarkable. The most appropriate initial therapy includes balanced crystalloid resuscitation, blood transfusion, and
Observation
Endoscopic stent placement
nitroglycerin and vasopressin
Octreotide
Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt
Six hours after vomiting heavily following binge drinking after a Cleveland Browns football game, a 34-year-old alcoholic man arrives at the ED with complaints of dysphagia and chest pain. On exam, he is febrile, tachycardic, and normotensive. Esophagography shows contrast material on the left side of the chest at the lower third portion of the esophagus. After fluid resuscitation and antibiotics, the most appropriate next step in management includes
nasogastric tube decompression and observation
endoscopic evaluation of the injury and stenting
left posterolateral thoracotomy, primary repair, intercostal muscle flap, and drain placement
right thoracotomy, primary repair, and gastrostomy tube placement
laparotomy, esophagectomy, and cervical esophagostomy
A 72-year-old woman with a history of GERD presents with worsening dysphagia and weight loss. Workup is ordered, including an esophagogram that reveals a distal esophageal mass. An EUS with biopsy confirms the diagnosis of esophageal adenocarcinoma with a T1b lesion. There are no positive lymph nodes, and there is no invasion of surrounding structures. Which of the following is true regarding this lesion?
This lesion will likely spread via submucosal lymphatic channels
This lesion may be treated with chemotherapy alone
Neoadjuvant chemotherapy is indicated if N0 disease is present
This lesion extends into the muscularis propria
The depth of tumor is not related to lymph node involvement
An 18-year-old man with Prader-Willi syndrome and developmental delay is brought to the ED with abrupt onset pain in the neck. On exam, he is drooling and there is blood-tinged saliva noted. He does not converse at baseline, but his nursing aid noted he had been pointing to the middle of his neck several times and grimacing on the way to the ED. Laboratory studies are unremarkable. The most appropriate initial step in establishing a diagnosis includes
Chest X-ray
Upper endoscopy
Esophagography
CT chest and abdomen
Operative exploration
A 65-year-old man presents to the office with difficulty swallowing and a 30-lb weight loss. He has a 45-pack year history of smoking. He undergoes upper endoscopy, and biopsy which is consistent with T2N0 squamous cell cancer 4cm from the upper esophageal sphincter. PET/CT scan demonstrates no metastatic lesions. What is the best definitive therapy?
Esophagectomy alone
Endoscopic resection
Radiation therapy alone
Neoadjuvant chemoradiation therapy followed by esophagectomy
Definitive chemoradiation therapy
Which of the following is the proper approach to esophagomyotomy for achalasia?
6.5cm incision of the circular muscle fibers of the distal esophagus
6.5cm splitting of the longitudinal muscle fibers of the distal esophagus
6.5cm splitting of longitudinal and circular muscle fibers of the distal esophagus
6.5cm incision of the circular muscle fibers of the distal esophagus plus 2cm of the proximal gastric muscle fibers
6.5cm division of the circular and longitudinal muscle fibers of the distal esophagus plus 2cm of the proximal gastric muscle fibers
Which of the following provides the blood supply to the abdominal esophagus?
Direct aortic branches
bronchial arteries
inferior thyroid artery
left gastric artery
right gastric artery
A 35-year-old man with presents with 6 weeks of burning postprandial epigastric pain that is worse at night, along with daily sour brash. He denies any dysphagia or weight loss. Physical examination shows a soft, nontender abdomen. What is the best next step in management?
lifestyle modification and ambulatory esophageal pH monitoring
esophageal manometry followed by appropriate antireflux surgery
proton pump inhibitor therapy
upper endoscopy
H. pylori breath test and triple therapy if positive
A 31-year-old man presents to the ED 1 hour after ingesting a bottle of drain cleaner in a suicide attempt. His pulse rate is 101/min, his blood pressure is 144/78 mm Hg, and his oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. He is complaining of chest pain and nausea. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
nasogastric tube insertion and early intubation
CT of the chest and abdomen
administration of neutralizing agents
right video-assisted thoracoscopic irrigation and drainage
administration of glucocorticoids and nasogastric tube insertion
A 68-year-old man is profoundly acidotic in the SICU after a transhiatal esophagectomy for esophageal cancer. An ischemic gastric conduit is suspected. Which artery is responsible for the blood supply to a gastric conduit after esophagectomy?
right gastroepiploic artery
left gastroepiploic artery
left gastric artery
right gastric artery
gastroduodenal artery
A 35-year-old woman presents with a 6-week history of dysphagia. An esophagogram demonstrates a classic bird's beak obstruction. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?
calcium channel blockers
botox injection
pneumatic dilation
Heller esophgagomyotomy with Dor fundoplication
Heller esophagomyotomy with Nissen fundoplication
Which of the following is true regarding the pressure measurements of the lower esophageal sphincter?
Resting pressure is 0 mm Hg
Pressure during swallowing is 10-20 mm Hg
Resting pressure is 10-20 mm Hg
Pressure during swallowing is 50-70 mm Hg
Resting pressure is 50-70 mm Hg
Esophageal motility issues are a common manifestation of scleroderma. Which of the following best describes findings consistent with scleroderma?
low-amplitude, simultaneous contractions with high lower esophageal sphincter pressure
peristalsis waves propagate at a rate of 0.2–0.4 cm/sec
high-amplitude, lengthy (> 6 sec) contractions with normal lower esophageal sphincter pressure
absent peristaltic contractions with normal or decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure
normal amplitude contractions with high lower esophageal sphincter pressure
A 71-year-old man presents with a 1-month history of progressively worsening dysphagia and a 20-lb weight loss over the past 3 months. He undergoes an upper endoscopy: a 3-cm mass is encountered, with the epicenter of the mass located 1 cm above the GE junction. A biopsy is taken that reveals adenocarcinoma. Further workup with EUS reveals tumor invading the muscularis propria. PET-CT shows no metastatic disease. He is otherwise healthy and exercises 3 times a week. The most appropriate next step in management includes
chemotherapy alone
total esophagectomy and regional lymphadenectomy
endoscopic mucosal resection
neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by esophagectomy and proximal gastrectomy with regional lymphadenectomy
neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by total esophagectomy and total gastrectomy with regional lymphadenectomy
A 64-year-old man with an esophageal adenocarcinoma of the mid-esophagus is undergoing an esophagogastrectomy. After the tumor is resected and the gastric conduit is made, the anastomosis is ready to be created but, unfortunately, the gastric conduit does not reach the mid-esophagus. What is the next best step in order to create a tension-free anastomosis?
divide the right gastric artery
mobilize more of the proximal esophagus
divide the splenic artery
perform a Kocher maneuver
divide the azygous vein
A 34-year-old obese male with a history of asthma presents to the clinic requesting surgery for a 1-year history of heartburn. He denies nausea, dysphagia, or vomiting, but on review of systems, he reports his asthma has worsened over the past 3 months to the point where he is coughing frequently and using his inhaler daily despite no recent allergen exposure. He takes a PPI twice daily. An upper endoscopy performed 6 months ago was unremarkable. The most appropriate next step in management includes
addition of an H2 antagonist
barium swallow
upper endoscopy
esophageal pH monitoring
esophageal manometry
A 55-year-old man presents with a 3-month history of dysphagia and is found to have 4-cm non-circumferential esophageal leiomyoma in the mid-esophagus. Which of the following best describes the appropriate treatment of this patient?
extramucosal enucleation with subsequent closure of the myotomy through the right thorax
extramucosal enucleation with subsequent closure of the myotomy through the left thorax
extramucosal enucleation and subsequent closure of the myotomy through the abdomen
esophageal resection through the right thorax
nonoperative surveillance
Which of the following findings on biopsy of the distal esophagus confers an increased malignancy risk?
columnar epithelium with mucous secreting goblet cells
stratified squamous epithelium
eosinophilic infiltration of the epithelium
apoptosis and lysosomal accumulation
hypertrophy and elongation of the luminal border
During a transhiatal esophagectomy, as you are dissecting the mid esophagus out of the mediastinum, the anesthesiologist tells you that there is a large air leak and she is having difficulty ventilating the patient. What should you do?
Pack the mediastinum with a moist gauze, and immediately close and open the right chest.
Immediately close the abdominal incision, and transfer the patient to the ICU.
Continue with the operation, and use the stomach to close the airway leak.
Ask the anesthesiologist to replace the endotracheal tube with a different one.
Ask Bertke to call in Dr Jackson from OR 11
A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of a 2-year history of severe heartburn. He undergoes a trial of proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy for 3 months with minimal improvement of his symptoms. He then has 24-hour pH monitoring and manometry. These studies show a percent time of 2.4% of pH less than 4 with normal motility. What is the best next step?
Proceed with observation; the man's symptoms are not likely related to reflux.
Perform antireflux surgery (eg, Nissen fundoplication).
Continue current PPI therapy.
Increase the dose and frequency of the PPI and observe for at least a total of 1 year prior to offering antireflux surgery.
Discontinue PPI therapy.
