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H3CSE Post-Test

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 6hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following are the layers of the hierarchical network model?

a)

Distribution layer

b)

Campus network core layer

c)

Core layer

d)

Access layer

2.

Which of the following are the modules of the H3C modular network architecture?

a)

Disaster recovery

b)

VPN access

c)

Server farm

d)

WAN distribution

3.

Common designs for the core layer of a large-sized LAN include

a)

Single-core

b)

Dual-core

c)

Multi-node ring

d)

Full mesh

4.

Which of these technologies can implement redundancy in large-sized networks?

a)

VRRP

b)

MSTP

c)

SMart Link

d)

Dynamic Routing Protocol

5.

Which of the following redundancy protocols is most suitable for a dual-homed network?

a)

STP

b)

RRPP

c)

Smart Link

d)

VRRP

6.

IRF provides link and node redundancy.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

IEEE 802.10 inserts a VLAN tag .... in the Ethernet frame header.

a)

Before the source MAC field

b)

After the source MAC field

c)

Before the destination MAC field

d)

After the destination MAC field

8.

The Tag Control Information (TCl) field comprises the following elements:

a)

TPID

b)

Priority

c)

CFI

d)

VLAN ID

9.

Which of the following statements are TRUE about the PVID

a)

The PVID of an access port is the VLAN that it belongs to, and is not configurable.

b)

Atrunk or hybrid port allows multiple VLANs, and you can set the PVID of a trunk or hybrid port.

c)

After you use the undo vian command to delete the VLAN that an access port is in, the PVID of the access port changes to VLAN 1.

d)

After you use the undo vlan command to delete a VLAN which is the default VLAN of a hybrid or trunk port, the default VLAN of the port does not change.

10.

Which of the following statements are TRUE about a trunk port?

a)

The trunk ports of a switch can connect only to switches.

b)

A trunk port does not change the VLAN tag of any incoming VLAN tagged frame.

c)

A trunk port always sends a frame out with its VLAN tag unchanged, regardless of whether the VLAN ID of the frame is the same as the PVID of the trunk port or not.

d)

To change a trunk port into a hybrid port, you must configure the port as an access port first.

11.

Which of the following statements are TRUE about Private VLANs ?

a)

The Private VLAN function is implemented by using hybrid ports and the shared VLAN learning mechanism.

b)

Secondary VLANs are isolated at Layer 2, and cannot communicate with one another.

c)

Secondary VLANs are isolated at Layer 3, and cannot communicate with one another.

d)

The shared VLAN mechanism refers to synchronizing the MAC address entries from the secondary VLANs to the Private VLAN, with the outgoing port unchanged.

12.

Which of the following scenarios is local proxy ARP suitable for?

a)

Two PCs in the same VLAN but isolated by port isolation require Layer 3 communication.

b)

Hosts on the same IP subnet but connected to different Layer 3 interfaces requireLayer 3 communicate.

c)

Hosts in different sub-VLANs of a super VLAN require Layer 3 communication.

d)

Hosts in different secondary VLANs of an Private VLAN require Layer 3 communication.

13.

Why do Layer-3 switches replace routers to implement inter-VLAN routing?

a)

In the single-arm routing method that implements inter-VLAN routing through a router, packets are delayed due to the round trip time on the trunk link.

b)

Routers are more expensive than switches.

c)

Most low-end and mid-range routers use software to forward packets, and thus have low speed, causing bottlenecks.

d)

Layer-3 switches use hardware to forward packets, thus have large throughput and high speed, and avoid delay and instability brought by using external links.

14.

Which parts are involved in Layer-3 forwarding on a Layer-3 switch?

a)

Routing protocols

b)

Platform software protocol stack

c)

Hardware

d)

Driver code

15.

STP port roles include:

a)

Root port

b)

Designated port

c)

Backup port

d)

Alternate port

16.

In spanning tree calculation, the priority vector includes ...

a)

Root ID

b)

Root Path Cost

c)

Forwarding Delay

d)

Bridge ID

e)

Port ID

17.

What are the differences between RSTP and STP

a)

RSTP has less port states

b)

RSTP has more port roles

c)

They use different BPDU formats and sending modes

d)

RSTP delivers rapid convergence upon topclogy changes

18.

RSTP mechanisms include ?

a)

Edge port mechanism

b)

Root port rapid convergence mechanism

c)

Designated port rapid convergence mechanism

d)

Backup port rapid convergence mechanism

19.

Which of the following statements about MSTP is correct?

a)

MSTP generates multiple spanning trees based on instances.

b)

An instance can contain one or more VLANs, and each VLAN can map only to one instance.

c)

MSTP implement load sharing for traffic among instances.

d)

MSTP is defined in IEEE 802.1s.

20.

Which of the following parameters do the switches in the same MST region have?

a)

Region name

b)

Revision level

c)

VLAN-to-instance mappings

d)

Switch name

21.

The STP protection mechanisms include ?

a)

BPDU guard

b)

Root guard

c)

Loop guard

d)

TC BPDU guard

22.

Which of the following statements about BPDU guard are correct?

a)

An edge port transitions to a non-edge port when it receives a BPDU.

b)

BPDU guard is configured in port view.

c)

BPDU guard is configured in system view.

d)

With BPDU guard enabled, edge ports are shut down when a BPDU is received.

23.

Which of the following about high availability is true?

a)

The availability of a product refers to the capability to implement specific functions in specific time under certain conditions.

b)

A higher availability means a longer time for a product to operate normally.

c)

MTBF means “Mean Time Between Failures.

d)

High availability is MTBF/MTTR.

24.

The high availability design of a campus network mainly focuses on:

a)

Device price

b)

Stacking technology

c)

Device redundancy

d)

Link redundancy

25.

Which of the following statements about link aggregation is correct?

a)

Link aggregation combines multiple physical Ethemet ports into one logical aggregation group.

b)

The upper layer entities of the link aggregation service consider the physical links in the same aggregation group as one logical link.

c)

Link aggregation allows you to increase bandwidth by distributing traffic across the member ports in a single aggregation group.

d)

The member ports in the same aggregation group cannot dynamically back up each other.

26.

Which of the following configurations does not participate in operational key calculations?

a)

GVRP

b)

MSTP

c)

QinQ configuration

d)

VLAN configuration

27.

Which of the following technologies can remove network loops on a dual-homed network?

a)

STP

b)

RRPP

c)

Trunk

d)

Smart Link

28.

The features of Smart Link include:

a)

Dedicated to dual uplink networks

b)

Subsecond convergence

c)

Easy to configure

d)

Can be used with STP

29.

RRPP stands for :

a)

Fast Ring Protect Protocol

b)

Rapid Ring Protect Protocol

c)

Fast Ring Protection Protocol

d)

Rapid Ring Protection Protocol

30.

Each device on an RRPP ring is referred to as a node. The role of a node can be:

a)

Masternode

b)

Slavenode

c)

Edgenode

d)

Assistant-edgenode

31.

The VRID of a VRRP group can be configured as ...

a)

0

b)

1

c)

255

d)

256

32.

The authentication modes supported by VRRP include

a)

No authentication

b)

Simple text authentication

c)

MDS5 authentication

d)

SHA authentication

33.

IRF fabric management inloves ?

a)

Topology collection

b)

Topology election

c)

Master election

d)

IRF fabric maintenance

34.

Which of the following are true about an IRF fabric that comprises distributed chassis switches ?

a)

The AMB of the master is the AMB of the IRF fabric

b)

The SMB of the master is one of the SMBs of the IRF Fabric

c)

The AMB of a slave si the AMB of the IRF fabric

d)

The SMBs of the slaves are the SMBs of the IRF fabric

35.

Which of the following statements about SPT are correct?

a)

In an SPT, the path from the multicast source to each receiver is the optimal.

b)

In an SPT, each router maintains an (*, G) entry.

c)

In an SPT, each router maintains an (S, G) entry.

d)

Different multicast sources have independent SPTs rooted at themselves.

36.

Which of the following statements about RPT are correct?

a)

Building of a RPT is initiated by receivers.

b)

In an RPT, each router maintains (*, G) entries.

c)

in an RPT, each router maintains (S, G) entries.

d)

The multicast sources send multicast data to their receivers. The RPs receive the multicast data and forward the data to the receivers.

37.

Which of the following statements about multicast protocol classification are correct?

a)

Multicast protocols fall into dense mode and parse mode.

b)

Multicast routing protocols can be divided into intra-domain and inter-domain protocols.

c)

Intra-domain multicast protocols include DVMRP, MOSPF, and PIM.

d)

MSDP is an inter-domain multicast routing protocol.

38.

The mechanisms used in PIM-DM include:

a)

Flood-and-prune mechanism

b)

Graft mechanism

c)

Assert mechanism

d)

State refresh mechanism

39.

Which of the following tasks must be completed before you perform Layer 3 multicast configuration?

a)

Enter IGMP view

b)

Specify the IGMP version

c)

Configure the PIM protocol

d)

Enable multicast routing globally by using the multicast routing command

40.

Which of the following statements about PIM are true?

a)

To configure PIM-DM, you only need to enable PIM-DM in interface view

b)

To configure PIM-SM, you need to enable PIM-SM and finish RP-related and C-BSR-related configurations. If it is required to specify a device as the DR of a sharednetwork segment, you also need to configure the priority for DR election.

c)

You can configure PIM in VLAN view.

d)

You can configure PIM in VLAN interface view.

41.

What does network security mean?

a)

Make sure users can access network resources at will.

b)

Ensure the security of the internal LAN.

c)

Block illegal access to the internal LAN.

d)

Ensure the security of data exchanged between the intemal network andexternal network.

42.

Which of the following behaviors are not security threats or hacking behaviors?

a)

Use existing backdoors to obtain network administrators’ passwords.

b)

Log in to your own computer to change data.

c)

Use electronic eavesdropping technologies to obtain the passwords of key departments.

d)

Use software tools to attack network devices.

43.

Which of the following access services does AAA support?

a)

FTP

b)

Telnet

c)

PPP

d)

Portal

44.

RADIUS is based on (....), and TACACS + is based on (....).

a)

IP

b)

TCP

c)

UDP

d)

802.1X

45.

Which of the following are 802.1X entities?

a)

Client

b)

Device

c)

Terminal

d)

Authentication server

46.

MAC authentication does not require any client software. However, the user must input the username and password to trigger MAC authentication.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Which of the following are supported by EAD fast deployment?

a)

Before 802.1X authentication, users can access specific subnets.

b)

Users failing 802.1X authentication can access specific subnets.

c)

Before a user passes 802.1X authentication, the user's HTTP requests are redirected to a specified URL.

d)

When a user passes 802.1X authentication, the user's HTTP requests are redirected to a specified URL.

48.

Which of the following is a portal authentication mode?

a)

Direct authentication

b)

EAP authentication

c)

Re-DHCP authentication

d)

Layer 3 authentication

49.

To configure a device as an SSH server and set the authentication method to publickey, which of the following configurations are required?

a)

Enable the SSH server function.

b)

Generate a local key pair.

c)

Create an SSH user, set the authentication method to publickey, and specify the public key.

d)

Specify the authentication mode and protocol type for the user interfaces.

50.

Which of the following statements about SFTP are not true?

a)

SFTP is a feature in SSH1.

b)

SFTP is the short for secure FTP.

c)

SFTP and SSH are two independent security protocols

d)

You can set the service type to SFTP or all when configuring a user on the SFTP server

51.

What are the major objectives of campus network management and maintenance?

a)

Ensure normal network operation through periodic or real-time monitoring of network devices and terminals

b)

Locate and remove failures

c)

Provide fast responses to new requirements through system upgrade and capacity expansion

d)

Deploy the latest network management system

52.

How to simplify network management and maintenance?

a)

Use unified network management

b)

Use cluster technology

c)

Use IRF technology

d)

Use standard protocols

53.

The basic functions of network management defined by the ISO include

a)

Fault management

b)

Configuration management

c)

Accounting management

d)

Performance management

54.

Which of the following descriptions about SNMP are correct?

a)

SNMPv1 uses community name for authentication.

b)

SNMPv2 adds the features of manager-to-manager communication and bulk information transfer

c)

SNMPv2c uses authentication and encryption

d)

SNMPv3 defines security mechanisms and access control rules

55.

The TLVs that must be contained in an LLDPDU include

a)

Chassis 1D TLV

b)

Port ID TLV

c)

Time to Live TLV

d)

System Name TLV

56.

LLDP operating modes include?

a)

TxRx

b)

Tx

c)

Rx

d)

default

57.

An aggregation part can be used as a source port.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

In remote port mirroring, the ports in the probe VLAN must be disabled from MAC address learning

a)

True

b)

False

59.

The current NTP version is

a)

v0

b)

v1

c)

v2

d)

v3

60.

In symmetric mode, the active peer can synchronize the passive peer and vise versa.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Which multicast MAC address is the IP address 228.129.129.129 mapped to?

a)

01-00-5E-00-01-01

b)

00-01-5E-11-81-81

c)

01-00-5E-01-81-81

d)

00-01-5E-00-81-81

62.

Which of the following statements are correct about the multicast architecture?

a)

Generally, routers and hosts run multicast routing protocols in between.

b)

Generally, routers run multicast group management protocols in between.

c)

Generally, hosts and routers run multicast group management protocols in between.

d)

The commonly-used inter-domain multicast routing protocol is Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP).

63.

Which of the following mechanisms are supported by multicast group management protocols?

a)

Join- and leave-group

b)

Multicast group maintenance by router

c)

Querier election

d)

Report suppression

64.

Which of the following messages are supported by IGMPv2?

a)

general query

b)

group-specific query

c)

membership report

d)

leave group message

65.

IP voice deployment includes?

a)

PoE

b)

QoS

c)

Voice packet identification

d)

Digital/analog conversion

66.

Commonly used H3C access control technologies include

a)

802.1X

b)

Portal authentication

c)

MAC authentication

d)

Port security

67.

The default Hold timer of GVRP is?

a)

5 centiseconds

b)

10 centiseconds

c)

20 centiseconds

d)

60 centiseconds

68.

Which field of a received frame does a switch check first?

a)

VLAN attribute

b)

Destination MAC address

c)

Source MAC address

d)

Destination IP address

e)

Source IP address

69.

A spanning tree calculation process includes?

a)

Root bridge election

b)

Root port calculation

c)

Designated port calculation

d)

Alternate port calculation

70.

A typical large-sized LAN comprises the?

a)

Core Layer

b)

Distribution Layer

c)

Access Layer

d)

Network Layer

71.

Which layer is responsible for data/information control based on complex policies?

a)

Distribution layer

b)

Core Layer

c)

Access Layer

72.

The most widely used network devices for a LAN are…

a)

Hubs

b)

Switches

c)

Routers

d)

Servers

73.

Which of the following protocols should be included in the multicast deployment on an IP network?

a)

PIM

b)

RPF

c)

IGMP

d)

GMRP

74.

Which of the following statements are TRUE about MVRP?

a)

MVRP provides a generic framework for devices in a switched LAN to register and de-register attribute values with one other

b)

MVRP is a physical entity

c)

MVRP has four timers: Periodic, Join, Leave and LeaveAll timer

d)

The Multiple VLAN Registration Protocol (MVRP) is an MRP application, used to advertise and learn VLAN configuration for devices

75.

The protocol-based VLAN feature is available only on …. Ports

a)

Access port

b)

Trunk port

c)

Hybrid port

d)

All types of port above

76.

Which tables are contained in the switch hardware for longest prefix match?

a)

MAC address table

b)

L3 Table

c)

ARP Table

d)

DEF_IP table

77.

A spanning tree calculation process includes

a)

Root bridge election

b)

Root port calculation

c)

Designated port calculation

d)

Alternate port calculation

78.

STP limitations include

a)

STP cannot remove loops

b)

STP cannot implement load sharing between VLANs

c)

STP does not provide fast convergence

d)

STP convergence mechanisms are not flexible

79.

The default STP priority of switches is

a)

0

b)

4096

c)

32768

d)

61440

80.

Which of the following

calculation processes is involved in MSTP?

a)

CST calculation

b)

IST calculation

c)

MST calculation

d)

MSTI calculation performed after the IST calculation

81.

Which of the following statements about root guard are correct?

a)

The root bridge is superseded by another bridge upon receiving a higher-priority BPDU

b)

With root guard enabled, ports on the root bridge are set to the listening state and stop forwarding packets upon receiving higher-priority BPDUs

c)

If a port does not receive any higher-priority BPDU when it transitions from the listening state to the forwarding state, the port reverts to the original state

d)

Root guard is configured in port view

82.

Campus network link redundancy technologies include

a)

Link aggregation

b)

Trunk

c)

RRPP

d)

Smart Link

83.

What does LACP stand for?

a)

Link Aggregation Contain Protocol

b)

Link Aggregation Control Protocol

c)

Link Polymerization Contain Protocol

d)

Link Polymerization Control Protocol

84.

Encapsulated by IEEE 802.3, a flush message contains which of the following fields

a)

Destination MAC

b)

Source MAC

c)

Destination IP

d)

Control VLAN ID

85.

The role of a node an an RRPP ring can be?

a)

Primary port

b)

Secondary port

c)

Edgeport

d)

Protected port

86.

VRRP packet types include?

a)

Hello

b)

Init

c)

Authentication

d)

Advertisement

87.

if a joinning switch is using a boot file version different from the master, the switch

a)

Boots normally if the automatic boot file updating function is disabled

b)

Cannot reboot normally if the automatic boot file updating function is disabled

c)

Reboots normally if the automatic boot file updating function is enabled

d)

Cannot Reboot normally if the automatic boot file updating function is enabled

88.

Which of the following statements are correct about multicast models?

a)

In the ASM model, receivers cannot choose multicast sources through multicast group management protocols

b)

In the ASM model, if a receiver wants to receive multicast data from specific sources, the upper layer must work to filter extra data

c)

In the SSM model, receivers can choose both multicast groups and multicast sources

d)

In the SSM model, receivers know the positions of the multicast sources in advance by other means

89.

Which of the following group record types are supported by the report message in IGMPv3 ?

a)

Current status change record

b)

Filtering mode change record

c)

Source list change record

d)

Group change record

90.

Which of the following statements about the multicast distribution tree models are correct?

a)

There are two types of multicast distribution trees: SPT and RPT

b)

An SPT is rooted at the multicast source, and the path from the multicast source to each receiver is the optimal

c)

The RPT is rooted at the RP, and the path from the root to each receiver might not be the optimal

d)

In a RPT, the routers maintain simple entry information, saving the memory spaces

91.

Rules of RP election include?

a)

The C-RP with a higher priority becomes the RP

b)

If there is a tie in priority, the C-RPs perform hash functions and the C-RP with the highest resulting hash value wins

c)

If there is a tie in priority, the C-RPs perform hash functions and the C-RP with the highest resulting hash value wins

d)

If there is a tie in priority, the C-RPs perform hash functions and the C-RP with the highest resulting hash value wins

92.

Which of the following statements about RP and BSR are true?

a)

In PIM-SM, an RP can be manually configured or dynamically elected

b)

To configure dynamic RP election, you can configure the routers that you want to use as the RP as C-RPs. It is a good practice to configure routers in the backbone network as C-RPs

c)

APIM-SM domain can have only one BSR

d)

The BSR is responsible for collecting and advertising RP information in the PIM-SM domain

93.

Which protocols does the AAA framework often use?

a)

RADIUS

b)

PPPOE

c)

802.1X

d)

TACACS+

94.

Which of the following are incorrect about port security?

a)

A port in autoLearn mode changes to secure mode after learning the maximum number of secure MAC addresses

b)

A port in user_ogin mode performs 802.1X authentication on users, and allows only one user to access.

c)

A user that passes MAC authentication on a port in macAddress OrUserLoginSecure can also perform 802.1X authentication

d)

Aport in macAddressElseUserLoginSecure mode performs MAC authentication on 802.1X frames, and if the MAC authentication fails, performs 802.1X authentication on such frames

95.

In portal authentication, Layer 2 authentication mode identifies users by (__); Layer 3 authentication mode identifies users by (___).

a)

User IP address

b)

User MAC address

c)

User IP and MAC addresses

d)

User IP and MAC addresses

96.

Which of the following descriptions about MIB are correct?

a)

AMIB is a tree structure

b)

Each node in a MIB tree is identified by a globally unique name and the numeric labels of the child nodes under the same parent node must be unique too

c)

Only leaf nodes in a MIB are manageable. Leaf nodes are read-only or read-write

d)

Each scalar node in a MIB tree uniquely identifies a managed device and index is not needed to access such nodes

97.

An LLDPDU can contain more than one?

a)

Time to Live TLV

b)

End Of LLDPDU TLV

c)

Port And Protocol VLAN ID

d)

Network Policy TLV

98.

You can configure up to …. Source port

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

Unlimited

99.

The work modes of NTP include?

a)

Client/server mode

b)

Broadcast mode

c)

Broadcast mode

d)

Symmetric mode

100.

Which of the following are correct about VLAN interfaces on a Layer-3 switch?

a)

You can create the same number of VLAN interfaces as the number of VLANs supported by the switch

b)

VLAN interfaces are virtual interfaces

c)

Each VLAN interface can have only one IP address

d)

Each VLAN interface can be configured with one primary IP address, and multiple secondary IP addresses

101.

The mechanisms used in PIM-SM include?

a)

Join mechanism

b)

Multicast source registration mechanism

c)

Switchover from RPT to SPT

d)

Switchover from RPT to SPT

102.

Common network management features include( )

a)

SNMP

b)

Mirroring

c)

Mirroring

d)

NTP

103.

The MVRP registration mode of a port can be Normal, Fixed, or Forbidden. If you want to configure MVRP registration mode for a port, what the link type of the port must be?

a)

Access

b)

Hybrid

c)

Trunk

d)

Access, Hybrid, or Trunk

104.

Which of the following value must the TPID field take for an 802.1Q tagged Ethernet frame?

a)

0x8000

b)

0x8100

c)

0x8200

d)

0x8300

105.

Available VLAN assignment methods include ( ).

a)

Port-based VLAN assignment

b)

Protocol-based VLAN assignment

c)

IP-based VLAN assignment

d)

IP subnet-based VLAN assignment

106.

Which of the following statements are true about the relationship between a super VLAN and its sub-VLANs ( ).

a)

A super VLAN has only a Layer 3 interface, and it does not contain any physical ports

b)

A super VLAN represents a set of sub-VLANs and provides Layer 3 forwarding services for these sub-VLANs

c)

A sub-VLAN contains only physical ports, and you cannot create a VLAN interface for a sub-VLAN

d)

A super VLAN interface enables Layer 3 communication for its sub-VLANs

e)

A super VLAN interface is UP only if any of its sub-VLAN has an UP physical port

107.

A TCN BPDU is generated when

a)

A port on the bridge transitions to the forwarding state, and the bridge has at least one designated port

b)

A port on the bridge transitions from the forwarding or learning state to the blocking state

c)

A port on the bridge transitions from the listening state to the blocking state

d)

A port on the bridge transitions from the blocking state to the listening state

108.

Which of the following statements about the hello time are correct?

a)

A larger hello time value is superior

b)

A smaller hello time value is superior.

c)

A smaller hello time value is superior

d)

The default value of the heilo time is 2 seconds

109.

Which of the following statements about the edge port are correct?

a)

Edge ports can directly transition to the forwarding state immediately

b)

You can configure a port that connect two switches as an edge port

c)

An edge port transitions to a non-edge port when it receives a BPDU

d)

The edge port does not trigger any topology change when it transitions to the forwarding state

110.

Which of the following statements about the P/A mechanism are correct?

a)

After a one-way handshake with the peer bridge, a designated port rapidly transitions to the forwarding state

b)

The prerequisite of the P/A mechanism is that it must be performed on a point-to-point link

c)

In a synchronization process, a bridge blocks all ports except the edge ports to eliminate possible loops on the bridge

d)

If a designated port receives no Agreement BPDU after it sends out a Proposal BPDU, the port switches to work in STP mode, in which the port waits 30 seconds before transitioning to the forwarding state

111.

Which of the following statements about the MSTP P/A mechanism is correct? (Choose all correct answers.)

a)

The upstream MSTP bridge sends out proposal BPDUs with the proposal and agreement bits set

b)

When receiving the BPDU with both proposal and agreement bits set, the downstream bridge synchronize data and sends back an agreement BPDU

c)

When receiving an agreement BPDU, the designated port of the upstream bridge rapidly transitions to the forwarding state

d)

To implement rapid convergence through the P/A mechanism between an upstream RSTP switch and a downstream MSTP switch, configure No Agreement Check.

112.

Which of the following statements about loop guard are correct?

a)

Congested or unidirectional links may cause loops

b)

The loop guard function enabled on a port takes effect when the BPDU saved by the port ages

c)

If the root port changes to another role, the port transitions to the discarding state, and stops forwarding packets. No loop occurs during the port role changes. The port will be in discarding state until it receives a BPDU and becomes the root port again

d)

This function applies to root, alternate, and backup ports in MSTP

113.

Which of the following statements about TC BPDU guard are correct?

a)

Aswitch flushes its MAC address table entries upon receiving TC BPDUs

b)

With TC BPDU guard, you can set the maximum number of immediate address entry flushes that the switch can perform within 10 seconds after it receives the first TC BPDU

c)

For the TC BPDUs received in excess of the limit, the switch performs an address entry flush only when the timer expires. This prevents frequent flushing of forwarding address entries

d)

TC BPDU guard is configured in system view

114.

Which of the following about device redundancy technologies are correct?

a)

In a campus network, there are many types of faults, and device faults are the most common one

b)

The simplest way to avoid impact of device faults is redundancy design

c)

Device and component redundancy can reduce the impact of device faults on user services to the lowest

d)

All network devices support component redundancy

115.

What is the full name of IRF ?

a)

Intelligent Flexible Framework

b)

Intelligent Resilient Framework

c)

Intelligent Resilient Framework

d)

Intelligent Resilient Framework

116.

Which of the following is true about IRF link anggregation

a)

you can aggregate physical IRF ports for link redundancy

b)

you cannot aggregate physical IRF ports for link redundancy

c)

IRF supports cross-chassis link aggregation

d)

IRF does not support cross-chassis link aggregation

117.

Which of the following statements about IGMP snooping are correct ?

a)

IGMP snooping is a Layer 3 multicast protocol

b)

A router port is a port on a Layer 2 switch that leads toward a Layer 3 multicast device

c)

A member port is a port on a Layer 2 switch that leads toward multicast group members

d)

Upon receiving a report message, the IGMP snooping switch forwards it to all ports in the VLAN except the port receiving the message

118.

Which of the following statements about multicast VLAN are correct?

a)

In traditional multicast programs-on-demand mode, when hosts in different VLANs require the same multicast data, the router needs to forward a separate copy of the data for each user VLAN to the Layer 2 switch

b)

With the multicast VLAN feature, the router only needs to forward the multicast data in the multicast VLAN

c)

IGMP snooping manages router ports in the multicast VLAN

d)

IGMP snooping manages member ports in the sub-VLANs

119.

Which of the following statements about RPF are correct?

a)

The RPF check is based on the source IP addresses of the multicast packets

b)

When performing an RPF check, a router automatically chooses an optimal unicast route to the source IP address of the multicast packet by searching its unicast routing table

c)

For a packet traveling along the SPT from the multicast source to the receivers or the RP, the packet source for RPF check is the multicast source

d)

For a packet traveling along the RPT from the RP to the receivers, the packet source for RPF check is the RP

120.

Which of the following descriptions about PIM-SSM are correct?

a)

SSM is defined in RFC 4607 and the SSM model provides a solution to sourcespecific multicast

b)

PIM-SSM uses neighbor discovery, DR election, and join mechanisms

c)

The neighbor discovery and DR election mechanisms in PIM-SSM are the same as those used in PIM-SM

d)

PIM-SSM must be used with IGMPv3