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Worksheets111 final review
Total questions: 210
Worksheet time: 2hrs 46mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
(a) is the study of the body’s structure.
2.
(a) is the study of the body’s function.
3.
_________ is the process whereby mRNA is made.
a)
transcription
b)
translation
c)
replication
d)
mRNA editing
4.
Phospholipids orient themselves in aqueous solutions such that __________.
a)
•the polar heads are pointed toward the center of the membrane
b)
•the nonpolar tails are oriented toward the interior of the cell, next to the cytoplasm
c)
•the polar heads and nonpolar tails alternate facing inward
d)
•the polar heads face the interior and exterior of the cell with the tails forming the center of the membrane
5.
the perception of where your body is in space is given by
a)
touch receptors
b)
proprioceptors
c)
tonic receptors
d)
chemoreceptors
6.
_________ is the process whereby protein is made.
a)
transcription
b)
translation
c)
replication
d)
mRNA editing
7.
Which of the following is not an example of simple diffusion?
a)
•Gas exchange in our lungs
b)
•A dissolving sugar cube
c)
•Popcorn odor permeating the room
d)
•A white blood cell engulfing a bacterium
8.
the conversion of a stimulus energy to an electrical signal is known as
a)
adaptation
b)
transduction
c)
perception
d)
sensation
9.
When movement of Na+ ions down their concentration gradient drives the transport of other substances across the cell membrane, it is called___________.
a)
•primary active transport
b)
•secondary active transport
c)
•vesicular transport
d)
•pumping
10.
You would expect that cells that expend a great deal of energy, such as skeletal muscle cells, would have increased quantities of ___________.
a)
•ribosomes
b)
•smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c)
•peroxisomes
d)
•mitochondria
11.
The main function of DNA is to dictate ___________ production.
a)
•protein
b)
•carbohydrate
c)
•lipid
12.
The basic functional unit of living organisms is the __________.
a)
•element
b)
•organism
c)
•cell
d)
•organ
13.
Because of the lipid content, the interior of the cell membrane is __________.
a)
•hydrophobic
b)
•hydrophilic
c)
•water loving
d)
•solid
14.
The sodium-potassium pump __________.
a)
•pumps Na+ and K + out of the cell
b)
•pumps Na + and K + into the cell
c)
•pumps Na + into and K + out of the cell
d)
•pumps Na + out of and K + into the cell
15.
Cells that store large quantities of chemicals to be released do so in structures called ____________.
a)
•snares
b)
•docking sacs
c)
•fusion sacs
d)
•vesicles
16.
Intensely biosynthetic secretory cells such as neurons would be expected to have greater amounts of _________ than other cells.
a)
•centrioles
b)
•lysosomes
c)
•rough endoplasmic reticulum
d)
•peroxisomes
17.
The molecule that interacts with ribosomes to dictate protein production is _______.
a)
•a nucleotide
b)
•DNA
c)
•transfer RNA
d)
•messenger RNA
18.
receptors with smaller receptive fields would have ________ discrimination htan those with large receptive fields
a)
better
b)
worse
c)
the same because it is processed in the cortex
19.
you become unaware of a constant stimulus because your touch receptors
a)
undergo adaptation
b)
are tonic
c)
are transducers
d)
maintain firing but are ignored
20.
When the anatomy of a body part is intimately tied to its specific function, scientists call this the principle of ___________.
a)
•hierarchical organization
b)
•complementary nature of structure and function
c)
•homeostasis
d)
•negative feedback
21.
Which of the following is a correct organization?
a)
•Atoms, cells, molecules, tissues
b)
•Molecules, atoms, cells, tissues
c)
•Atoms, tissues, molecules, cells
d)
•Atoms, molecules, cells, tissues
22.
Which of the following is an example of a negative feedback mechanism?
a)
•During labor, as uterine contractions begin, levels of the hormone, oxytocin, continuously rise to further stimulate more contractions.
b)
•The thyroid gland releases thyroid hormone under the influence of the hormone TSH. TSH release decreases when thyroid hormone levels reach their set point.
c)
•An individual who is incapable of synthesizing thyroid hormone will often develop an enlarged thyroid gland due to continuous TSH stimulation.
23.
Question: Which of the following is the rest and digest division?
a)
Sympathetic
b)
Parasympathetic
c)
Enteric
d)
All autonomic
24.
Question: Which of the following is the fight or flight division?
a)
Sympathetic
b)
Parasympathetic
c)
Enteric
d)
All autonomic
25.
Question: What effect would increased sympathetic stimulation have on heart rate?
a)
increase
b)
decrease
c)
double
d)
nochange
26.
Question: Which brain structure is important for learning and memory?
a)
thalamus
b)
hippocampus
c)
Cerebral cortex
d)
pons
27.
all sensory information passes through the ?
a)
thalamus
b)
hippocampus
c)
Cerebral cortex
d)
pons
28.
Which of these is an autonomic reflex?
a)
Stretch
b)
Withdrawal
c)
Salivation
d)
Crossed extensor
29.
Which of these is NOT found on the surface of the brain?
a)
Fissures
b)
Gyri
c)
sulci
d)
ventricles
30.
Which of these contains neurons that are activated by visual or auditory stimuli?
a)
Hypothalamus
b)
Midbrain
c)
Medulla
d)
Pons
31.
In which space around the brain does CSF circulate?
a)
Subdural space
b)
Superior sagittal sinus
c)
Subarachnoid space
d)
Aqueduct
32.
What is the function of the choroid plexus?
a)
Absorb CSF
b)
Drain CSF
c)
Circulate CSF
d)
Produce CSF
33.
The tough outer layer of the meninges is called ___ mater
a)
dura
b)
arachnoid
c)
pia
34.
Which of these is NOT associated with the medulla oblongata
a)
Cardiac center
b)
respiratory center
c)
pineal gland
d)
coughing reflex
35.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus?
a)
Control of the endocrine system
b)
Regulation of body temperature
c)
Secretion of the hormone melatonin
d)
Autonomic control of vasomotor and cardiovascular centers in the medulla oblongata
36.
Which of the following results in ataxia?
a)
Anesthetics in the thalamus
b)
Trauma to the cerebellum
c)
Effects of alcohol on the hypothalamus
d)
Degeneration of the
37.
Which of these connects the left and right cerebral hemispheres?
a)
Fornix
b)
Cerebral peduncles
c)
Association fibers
d)
Corpus callosum
38.
Damage to the left occipital lobe would result in which of the following?
a)
Numbness in the left side of the body
b)
Loss of right visual field
c)
Deafness in right ear
d)
Inability to speak
39.
Damage to the prefrontal cortex will result in which of the following?
a)
Loss of sensation
b)
Memory lapses
c)
Inability to taste or smell
d)
Poor judgement, personality disorders
40.
Which of these is the main function of the limbic system?
a)
Link conscious to autonomic functions
b)
Generate motor impulses
c)
Generate emotions
d)
Retrieve memories
41.
Which of the cranial nerves supplies sensory function to the face and motor innervation for chewing?
a)
Facial
b)
Trigeminal
c)
Trochlear
d)
Glossopharyngeal
42.
Which of these provides direct input to the primary motor cortex when performing voluntary movements?
a)
Cerebellum
b)
Superior colliculi
c)
Red nucleus
d)
Vestibular nucleus
43.
Which of these is a result of a demyelinating disorder?
a)
Parkinson disease
b)
Alzheimer disease
c)
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
d)
Multiple sclerosis
44.
Which of these is true of the autonomic, but NOT the somatic motor pathways?
a)
CNS motor neurons exert control
b)
Reflexes can stimulate effectors
c)
PNS ganglia are involved
d)
Neurons are multipolar
45.
Which of these is NOT a sympathetic effect?
a)
Constriction of respiratory tract
b)
Dilation of certain arteries
c)
Stimulation of sweat glands
d)
Increased heart rate
46.
Which of the following is the cranial nerve that carries most parasympathetic axons?
a)
Oculomotor
b)
Facial
c)
Glossopharyngeal
d)
Vagus
47.
Which of the following might occur if a person’s right vagus nerve gets transected?
a)
Heart rate increases
b)
Breathing slows
c)
Numbness on right side of body
d)
Inability to empty bladder
48.
Which of the following effectors does NOT receive dual innervation?
a)
Heart
b)
Respiratory airway
c)
Sweat gland
d)
Pancreas
49.
Which part of the brain has primary responsibility for regulating both sympathetic and parasympathetic functions?
a)
Cerebral cortex
b)
Hypothalamus
c)
Limbic system
d)
Thalamus
50.
These are all parts of the brainstem except:
a)
medulla oblongata
b)
midbrain
c)
pons
d)
thalamus
51.
This best describes the function of the hypothalamus:
a)
regulates autonomic nervous
b)
regulates the release of hormones
c)
regulates body temperature
d)
regulates food intake (hunger) and
e)
all of the above
52.
This structure plays a role in the onset of puberty and influences sleep-wake cycles and other biorythms:
a)
mammillary bodies
b)
pineal gland
c)
pituitary gland
d)
olives
e)
intermediate mass
53.
Numerous folds found on the surface of each cerebral hemisphere are called this:
a)
sulci
b)
gyri
c)
folia
d)
fissure
54.
These are the major function of the cerebellum except:
a)
posture
b)
fine motor coordination
c)
learning complex movements
d)
regulates the extent of intentional
e)
mood modification
55.
Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through this
a)
subarachnoid space
b)
subdural space
c)
epidural space
d)
ventricles
e)
a and d only
56.
Cerebrospinal fluid passes into the blood by way of this:
a)
arachnoid granulations
b)
cerebral aqueduct
c)
lateral ventricles
d)
choroid plexus
e)
brachial plexus
57.
The endothelial cells with their tight junctions form the blood-brain barrier, which determines what substances can pass from the blood into the nervous tissue of the brain and spinal cord.
a)
true
b)
false
58.
A cranial nerve may have these functions except:
a)
sensory
b)
somatic motor
c)
parasympathetic
d)
sympathetic
59.
The following cranial nerves are all sensory except:
a)
olfactory
b)
optic
c)
oculomotor
d)
vestibulocohlear
60.
Parts of this cranial nerve must be anesthetized for dental work:
a)
Oculomotor
b)
Trochlear
c)
Trigeminal
d)
Abducens
e)
Facial
61.
A lesion of the glossopharyngeal nerve will result in this
a)
facial palsy
b)
hoarseness
c)
difficulty swallowing
d)
loss of taste
e)
c and d
62.
This region of the cerebrum is important in voluntary motor function, motivation, aggression, the sense of smell and mood:
a)
frontal lobes
b)
parietal lobes
c)
temporal lobes
d)
occipital lobes
63.
The largest area of the somatic sensory cortex contains sensory neurons associated with this region of the body
a)
hand
b)
back
c)
genitals
d)
leg
e)
thigh
64.
The primary motor area is located in this __________ gyrus of each __________ lobe:
a)
precentral; frontal
b)
precentral, parietal
c)
postcentral; frontal
d)
postcentral; parietal
65.
Damage to the cerebellum can result in all of these except:
a)
balance impairment
b)
overshoot when touching an object
c)
increased muscle tone
d)
tremors in hands when trying to perform a task
e)
66.
The reticular activating system can be stimulated by inputs from this:
a)
cerebral cortex
b)
limbic system
c)
visual stimuli
d)
olfactory stimuli
e)
all of these
67.
This statement of brainstem function is true
a)
ascending and descending tracts project through it
b)
contains nuclei of cranial nerves III-IX and X
c)
collateral branches of II project into brainstem nuclei
d)
all are true
68.
This activity is mostly associated with the left cerebral hemisphere in most people:
a)
sensory input from the left side of the body
b)
mathematics and speech
c)
spatial perception
d)
recognition of faces
e)
musical ability
69.
The limbic system is most involved in the control of this:
a)
sleep and wakefulness
b)
maintaining posture
c)
higher intellectual processes
d)
motor coordination
e)
emotions
70.
This ascending spinal pathway (tract) carries light touch, pressure, tickle, and itch sensations to the cerebral cortex:
a)
anterior spinocerebellar
b)
posterior spinocerebellar
c)
spinothalamic
d)
spinoolivary
e)
spinotectal
71.
which pathway carries senscory information about discriminative touch, pressure, vibration and limb position?
a)
posterior funiculus-medial lemnicscus
b)
anterolateral
c)
spinocerebellar
d)
all of these
72.
which pathway carries senscory information about crude touch, pain and temperature?
a)
posterior funiculus-medial lemnicscus
b)
anterolateral
c)
spinocerebellar
d)
all of these
73.
which pathway carries proprioceptive information?
a)
posterior funiculus-medial lemnicscus
b)
anterolateral
c)
spinocerebellar
d)
all of these
74.
The epidermis is made of this tissue:
a)
loose connective tissue
b)
stratified squamous epithelium
c)
dense irregular connective tissue
d)
adipose
75.
These cells are responsible for the ability of the epidermis to resist abrasion and reduce water loss:
a)
melanocytes
b)
Merkel cells
c)
Langerhans cells
d)
keratinocytes
76.
This layer of skin replaces older cells that desquamate with newer cells by mitosis:
a)
stratum granulosum
b)
stratum basale
c)
stratum lucidum
d)
stratum corneum
77.
Thin skin:
a)
lacks a stratum lucidum
b)
contains hair
c)
is found on the back
d)
all of these
78.
Cyanosis, blue tinted skin, is caused by this:
a)
excess carotene
b)
decreased melanin production
c)
decreased oxygen in the blood
d)
increased blood flow
79.
The dermis is made of this kind of tissue:
a)
adipose
b)
epithelium
c)
connective
d)
keratin
80.
This is not associated with the dermis:
a)
melanocytes
b)
nerve endings
c)
lymphatic vessels
d)
hair follicles
81.
This layer contains blood vessels that nourish the epidermis, remove wastes and regulate body temperature:
a)
reticular layer
b)
hypodermis
c)
papillary layer
d)
stratum basale
82.
This layer of cells in the hair forms the surface and contains hard keratin:
a)
medulla
b)
cortex
c)
cuticle
d)
dermal root sheath
83.
The nail is produced mostly by this:
a)
nail bed
b)
nail root
c)
nail fold
d)
nail matrix
84.
These sweat glands are responsible for cooling the body:
a)
merocrine (eccrine)
b)
apocrine
c)
ceruminous
d)
sebaceous
85.
Sebaceous glands produce sebum, prevent drying of the skin, and protect against some bacteria,
a)
true
b)
false
86.
This gland is involved with the production of body odor:
a)
merocrine (eccrine)
b)
apocrine
c)
ceruminous
d)
sebaceous
87.
These glands located in the external auditory meatus (ear canal) produce ear wax:
a)
merocrine (eccrine)
b)
apocrine
c)
ceruminous
d)
sebaceous
88.
The cancer arising from cells of the stratum basale is called
a)
squamous cell carcinoma
b)
basal cell carcinoma
c)
melanoma
d)
spinosum cell carcinoma
89.
The major function of the skin is protection from this:
a)
abrasion
b)
dehydration
c)
ultraviolet light
d)
entry of microorganisms
e)
all of these
90.
This substance is synthesized in the skin and increases blood calcium for normal nerve and muscle function:
a)
vitamin A
b)
vitamin B
c)
vitamin C
d)
vitamin D
91.
This best describes the function of melanin in the skin:
a)
reduces water loss
b)
protects against UV light
c)
helps regulate body temperature
d)
lubricates the skin
92.
The flexible strength of bone is attributed to this:
a)
hydroxyapatite (inorganic portion)
b)
collagen fibers (organic portion)
c)
ligaments
d)
perichondrium
93.
Endochondral ossification begins at this time:
a)
during fetal development
b)
during puberty
c)
adulthood
d)
around age 50
94.
This can be said of intramembranous ossification:
a)
it forms the frontal and parietal bones
b)
fontanels are found between skull bones
c)
osteoblasts lay down matrix around collagen fibers
d)
all of these
95.
In this zone of the epiphyseal plate, new cartilage is produced as the chondrocytes divide and form stacks of cells:
a)
resting cartilage
b)
proliferation
c)
hypertrophy
d)
calcification
96.
When a fracture is healing, these cells move into the fracture site and tear down the damaged bone:
a)
osteoblasts
b)
osteoclasts
c)
osteocytes
d)
chondrocytes
97.
Bone remodeling is involved in this:
a)
bone growth
b)
changes in bone shape
c)
calcium regulation in the body
d)
bone repair
e)
all of these
98.
These kinds of fractures are complete fractures in which the bone breaks into multiple pieces:
a)
spiral
b)
impacted
c)
comminuted
d)
hairline
99.
This kind of tissue has many small spaces, is found mainly in the epiphysis, and is arranged into trabeculae:
a)
compact bone
b)
cancellous (spongy) bone
c)
articular cartilage
d)
endosteum
100.
This hormone stimulates an increased number of osteoclasts which increases blood calcium levels:
a)
parathyroid (PTH)
b)
calcitonin
c)
thyroid
d)
growth
101.
Mechanical stress of bones, such as that caused by weight lifting, is detected by
a)
osteoclasts, which then communicate to osteocytes to increase the size of lacunae.
b)
osteocytes, which then communicate to osteoblasts to increase synthesis of osteoid.
c)
osteoblasts, which then communicate to osteocytes and osteoclasts to deposit more hydroxyapatite.
d)
chondrocytes, which then trigger osteoblasts to increase bone in a lengthwise fashion.
102.
The growing zone of a long bone is known as this:
a)
articular cartilage
b)
diaphysis
c)
epiphyseal line
d)
epiphyseal plate
103.
This best describes the function of red bone marrow:
a)
stores adipose
b)
produces blood cells
c)
stores osteocytes
d)
produces articular cartilage
104.
This structure covers the outer surface of bones and serves as an attachment site for tendons and ligaments:
a)
endosteum
b)
lamellae
c)
periosteum
d)
perichondrium
105.
These joints have no joint cavity and exhibit little or no movement:
a)
fibrous
b)
cartilagenous
c)
synovial
106.
These specialized joints consist of pegs that fit into sockets and are held together by regular collagenous connective tissue:
a)
sutures
b)
syndesmoses
c)
gomphoses
d)
synchondrosis
107.
The joint found in between the intervertebral discs is:
a)
synchondrosis
b)
symphysis
c)
syndesmoses
d)
synostosis
108.
This extension of the synovial membrane extends as a pocket to provide a cushion between structures that would rub against each other:
a)
bursa
b)
tendon sheath
c)
joint capsule
d)
meniscus
109.
These are all hinge joints found between these bones except:
a)
phalanges
b)
humerus and ulna and radius
c)
femur and tibia
d)
atlas and axis
110.
The hip joint is an ellipsoid (condyloid) joint, which is a modified ball and socket joint.
a)
true
b)
false
111.
This synovial joint is the most freely movable:
a)
hinge
b)
saddle
c)
gliding
d)
ball and socket
112.
This ligament can be torn when the knee receives a blow to the anterior surface or if it is hyperextended:
a)
tibial collateral ligament
b)
fibular collateral ligament
c)
anterior cruciate ligament
d)
posterior cruciate ligament
113.
This synovial joint is the most freely movable:
a)
hinge
b)
saddle
c)
gliding
d)
ball and socket
114.
This condition is a severe form of arthritis that is an autoimmune attack against the joint tissue:
a)
osteoarthritis (degenerative)
b)
rheumatoid arthritis
c)
gout
d)
hemophilic arthritis
115.
The weakest joint in the human body is the
a)
Knee
b)
Thumb
c)
Shoulder
d)
Elbow
116.
•Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for
a)
•muscle relaxation.
b)
•muscle fatigue.
c)
•muscle contraction.
d)
•the conduction of neural stimulation to the muscle fiber.
117.
At rest, which molecule is blocking myosin binding sites on actin?
a)
tropomyosin
b)
troponin
c)
nebulin
d)
•titin
118.
What type of ion channel opens in response to an action potential arriving at the axon terminal?
a)
1.Ligand-gated anion
b)
1.Voltage-gated sodium
c)
1.Voltage-gated potassium
d)
1.Ligand-gated cation
e)
1.Voltage-gated calcium
119.
Sprinters typically possess more ________ muscle fibers.
a)
1.slow glycolytic
b)
1.fast glycolytic
c)
1.slow oxidative
d)
1.fast oxidative
120.
•In response to action potentials arriving along the transverse tubules, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases
a)
sodium ions.
b)
•calcium ions.
c)
acetylcholine
d)
•potassium ions.
121.
At the neuromuscular junction, calcium ions act to ________.
a)
1.increase the conduction speed of action potentials transmitted along the sarcolemma
b)
1.release the inhibition on Z discs
c)
1.remove the blocking action of tropomyosin
d)
1.cause ATP binding to actin
e)
1.release synaptic vesicles from the axon terminal
122.
At the saroplasm, calcium ions act to ________.
a)
1.increase the conduction speed of action potentials transmitted along the sarcolemma
b)
1.release the inhibition on Z discs
c)
1.remove the blocking action of tropomyosin
d)
1.cause ATP binding to actin
e)
1.release synaptic vesicles from the axon terminal
123.
What is the name of the enzyme that degrades ACh?
a)
1.Lipase
b)
1.ATPase
c)
1.Acetylcholinesterase
d)
1.Serine hydroxylase
e)
1.N-methyl transferase
124.
The elaborate network of membranes in skeletal muscle cells that functions in calcium storage is the _________.
a)
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Intermediate filament network
d)
Myofibrillar network
e)
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
125.
When a skeletal muscle fiber contracts,
a)
the zones of overlap get larger.
b)
•the H bands and I bands get smaller.
c)
the Z lines get closer together.
d)
•all of the above
126.
Cross-bridges are portions of
a)
myosin molecules.
b)
•troponin molecules.
c)
•actin molecules.
d)
•tropomyosin molecules.
127.
•The thin filaments of striated muscle are made of which protein(s)?
a)
•actin
b)
tropomyosin
c)
troponin
d)
•all of the above
128.
Which of the following is a recognized function of skeletal muscle?
a)
produce movement
b)
•maintain body temperature
c)
•maintain posture
d)
•all of the above
129.
What is the function of T tubules?
a)
They store calcium.
b)
They provide elasticity to the muscle.
c)
Actin and myosin are synthesized here.
d)
They hold the thick filaments to the Z line.
e)
They conduct action potentials from the sarcolemma to the interior of the muscle cell.
130.
Which ion links excitation to contraction in a skeletal muscle fiber?
a)
Sodium
b)
Magnesium
c)
Calcium
d)
Potassium
e)
Chloride
131.
During muscle contraction, all of the following occur EXCEPT ________.
a)
calcium binds to troponin
b)
myosin heads bind to actin
c)
calcium concentrations in the sarcoplasm decrease
d)
ATP is hydrolyzed
e)
calcium concentration in the sarcoplasm increase
132.
Of the following muscle types, which is the only one subject to conscious control?
a)
1.Smooth
b)
1.Skeletal
c)
1.Cardiac
d)
1.All of these muscle types are subject to conscious control.
133.
The smallest functional unit of a muscle fiber is the __________.
a)
1.sarcomere
b)
1.myofibril
c)
1.fascicle
d)
1.myofilament
134.
•The cytoplasm of the neuromuscular synaptic terminal contains vesicles filled with molecules of the neurotransmitter
a)
acetylcholine
b)
•epinephrine.
c)
norepinephrine.
d)
•all of the above
135.
•The delicate connective tissue that surrounds the entire skeletal muscle is the
a)
perimysium.
b)
•endomysium.
c)
superficial fascia
d)
•epimysium.
136.
Triggering of the muscle action potential occurs after
a)
calcium ion binds to channels on the end plate
b)
•acetylcholine binds to chemically gated channels in the motor end plate membrane.
c)
•the nerve action potential jumps across the neuromuscular junction.
d)
•Any of the above can produce an action potential in the muscle cell.
137.
•When calcium ion binds to troponin,
a)
•tropomyosin moves into the groove between the helical actin strands.
b)
•muscle relaxation occurs.
c)
•myosin shortens.
d)
•actin heads will bind to myosin.
138.
•In excitation contraction coupling, calcium ions are released from the
a)
•Transverse tubules
b)
•sarcoplasmic reticulum
c)
•sarcolemma
d)
•myofibrils
139.
•In excitation contraction coupling, calcium binds to ______ and signals ____ to move.
a)
•troponin, tropomyosin
b)
•tropomyosin, troponin
c)
•calmodulin, calcitonin
d)
•troponin, calcitonin
140.
If a second stimulus arrives before the muscle completely relaxes, the subsequent contraction produces more force. This is known as
a)
a twitch.
b)
•complete tetanus.
c)
wave summation
d)
•recruitment.
141.
A single motor neuron together with all the muscle fibers it innervates is called
a)
a motor unit.
b)
a myotome.
c)
an end foot.
d)
•an end plate.
142.
The increase in muscle tension that is produced by increasing the number of active motor units is called
a)
recruitment.
b)
•complete tetanus.
c)
incomplete tetanus.
d)
wave summation
143.
The type of contraction in which the muscle fibers shorten is called
a)
concentric isotonic.
b)
eccentric isotonic.
c)
•isometric.
d)
•treppe.
144.
•In which of the following would the motor units have the greatest number of muscle fibers?
a)
finger muscles
b)
•muscles that control the eyes
c)
hand muscles
d)
•postural muscles of the back
145.
•Increasing the frequency of action potentials would ______ the force of muscle contraction
a)
•increase
b)
•decrease
c)
•not change
146.
•The quickest source of ATP for skeletal muscles is:
a)
•anaerobic respiration
b)
•aerobic respiration
c)
•creatine phosphate
d)
•glycolysis
147.
Which of the following components accounts for the bulk of muscle fiber volume (up to 80%)?
a)
1.Glycosomes
b)
1.Mitochondria
c)
1.Myofibrils
d)
1.Sarcoplasm
148.
During a muscle contraction, muscle fibers shorten when ________.
a)
actin filaments become shorter when they combine with myosin heads
b)
myosin heads rotate when they attach to actin, causing the myosin filaments to fold in the middle
c)
thin myofilaments are pulled toward the center of the sarcomere by the pivoting of the myosin heads
d)
ACh reduces the friction between thin and thick myofilaments, so they slide over each more easily
149.
At the neuromuscular junction, the muscle contraction initiation event is
a)
1.a release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
b)
1.conduction of an electrical impulse down the T tubules
c)
1.binding of acetylcholine to membrane receptors on the sarcolemma
d)
1.sliding of actin and myosin filaments past each other
150.
What would be the response of a muscle fiber treated with an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?
a)
1.There would be a continued muscle fiber contraction in the absence of additional nervous system stimulation.
b)
1.The muscle fiber would be nonresponsive to acetylcholine.
c)
1.Acetylcholine would be retained in the axon ending.
d)
1.The muscle fiber would contract then relax for a prolonged period of time.
151.
The time period between action potential initiation and mechanical activity of a muscle fiber is called the
a)
1.latent period
b)
1.refractory period
c)
1.action potential
d)
1.excitation period
152.
Corpses usually exhibit rigor mortis because __________.
a)
1.ATP hydrolysis is stimulating myosin head attachment to actin
b)
1.a lack of ATP hydrolysis prevents myosin head detachment from actin
c)
1.calcium stores become deficient
d)
1.sodium stores become deficient
153.
Small precise movements are controlled by ______ motor units.
a)
1.small
b)
1.large
c)
1.many
d)
1.few
154.
This level of organization consists of groups of similar looking cells with its surrounding material working together to perform a function:
a)
chemical
b)
cellular
c)
tissue
d)
organ
155.
This is the smallest unit of an organism that carries out the basic function of life:
a)
molecule
b)
organelle
c)
cell
d)
organ
156.
This organ system removes waste products from the blood, regulates pH and water balance:
a)
endocrine
b)
lymphatic
c)
integumentary
d)
urinary
157.
This organ system transports nutrients, waste products, gases and hormones throughout the body and regulates body temperature:
a)
lymphatic
b)
cardiovascular
c)
respiratory
d)
endocrine
158.
The muscular system functions to do this:
a)
produces movement
b)
get rid of wastes
c)
transport nutrients, waste products, gases and hormones throughout the body
d)
provide structure to the body
159.
This characteristic of life involves the passing down of genetic information by the formation of new cells or new organisms:
a)
growth
b)
development
c)
organization
d)
reproduction
160.
The body’s ability to produce energy for muscle contraction during exercise by the break down of glycogen into glucose is this:
a)
growth
b)
metabolism
c)
morphogenesis
d)
development
161.
The body’s ability to maintain itself in a steady state is known as this:
a)
negative feedback
b)
positive feedback
c)
variable
d)
homeostasis
162.
This is an example of positive feedback:
a)
body temperature fluctuates between 99.1 and 98.0
b)
pH levels of urine vary from 5.2 to 7.8 throughout the day
c)
Giving birth
d)
none of these
163.
This statement about negative feedback is true:
a)
maintains homeostasis
b)
deviation from the set point is resisted
c)
keeps parameters in the normal range
d)
all of these are true
164.
The following statement can be said about enzymes:
a)
lowers activation energy of reactions
b)
regulates chemical activities in the body
c)
3D shape is essential for normal function
d)
all of these
e)
b and c only
165.
In the process of transcription, mRNA is copied from this:
a)
ribosomes
b)
DNA
c)
tRNA
d)
rRNA
166.
Enzymes found inside lysosomes digest phagocytized bacteria, nonfunctional organelles, nucleic acids, proteins and lipids.
a)
true
b)
false
167.
Ribosomal subunits are produced by this round cell structure found within the nucleus:
a)
chromosomes
b)
nucleolus
c)
lysosome
d)
mitochondria
168.
These substances may diffuse directly through the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane:
a)
sodium and chloride ions
b)
glucose and amino acids
c)
carbon dioxide and oxygen
d)
entire cells
169.
A red blood cell is placed into an unknown solution. Later, the cells appear to be swollen and some have burst. You conclude that the solution is this:
a)
isotonic
b)
hypotonic
c)
hypertonic
170.
Movement of a solution across a plasma membrane because of a pressure gradient is called this:
a)
diffusion
b)
active transport
c)
osmosis
d)
filtration
171.
These channel proteins are always open and are responsible for the permeability of the plasma membrane to ions:
a)
gated ion channels
b)
nongated ion channels
c)
ligand-gated channels (ligand regulated gates)
d)
voltage-gated ion channels (voltage-regulate gates)
172.
these molecules make up the bilayer found in the cell membrane:
a)
proteins
b)
phospolipids
c)
carbohydrates
d)
cholesterol
173.
Breaking down larger molecules into smaller ones would be considered
a)
1.Anabolic
b)
1.Catabolic
c)
1.Metabolic
d)
1.Easy
174.
A reaction that gives off energy is
a)
1.Exergonic
b)
1.Endergonic
c)
1.Radiant
d)
1.Hot
175.
Which of the following bone cell types is primarily responsible for initiating ossification of bone?
a)
osteoblasts
b)
osteoclasts
c)
osteocytes
d)
chondroblasts
176.
Which two hormones work in opposition to control homeostatic blood levels of calcium via bone remodeling?
a)
thyroid hormones and estrogen
b)
parathyroid hormone and calcitonin
c)
calcitonin and estrogen
d)
parathyroid hormone and estrogen
177.
A muscle contraction increases in strength up to a point because
a)
1.stronger stimuli inhibit motor unit activation
b)
1.recruitment occurs and more motor units respond to stronger stimuli
c)
1.more calcium is available in the sarcoplasm
d)
1.additional neurons begin stimulating each muscle fiber
178.
Isometric contractions come into play when an individual is ________.
a)
1.jumping
b)
1.walking uphill
c)
1.lifting a heavy object
d)
1.maintaining an upright posture
179.
A sprinter is more likely to depend on _______ respiration to generate ATP, whereas a Tour de France cyclist is more likely to rely on __________ respiration.
a)
1.anaerobic; aerobic
b)
1.aerobic; anaerobic
c)
1.aerobic; aerobic
d)
1.anaerobic; anaerobic
180.
•The longest lasting source of ATP for skeletal muscles is:
a)
•anaerobic respiration
b)
•aerobic respiration
c)
•creatine phosphate
d)
•glycolysis
181.
small-diameter, many capillaries, low glycogen reserves, and many mitochondria are characteristics of
a)
slow fibers.
b)
•red muscles.
c)
fast fibers.
d)
•intermediate fibers.
182.
•In the cross bridge cycle, the active sites are exposed, cross bridges are formed and then
a)
•cross bridge detachment
b)
•myosin reactivation
c)
•myosin head pivoting
d)
•active sites covered
183.
•The central nervous system is composed of the ______
a)
•brain and spinal cord
b)
autonomic nervous system
c)
•cranial nerves
d)
•peripheral nerves
184.
•A neuron with one axon and 2 or more dendrites is called
a)
tripolar
b)
bipolar
c)
unipolar
d)
multipolar
185.
•A neuron where the axon and dendrites are continuous is called
a)
tripolar
b)
bipolar
c)
unipolar
d)
multipolar
186.
Which of the following is not a function of the neuroglia?
a)
formation of the myelin sheath
b)
•secretion of cerebrospinal fluid
c)
maintenance of blood-brain barrier
d)
•phagocytosis
e)
•all of these are functions of neuroglia
187.
A chemical that blocked voltage gated sodiumm channels would have what effect on a neuron?
a)
it would not be able to generate graded potentials
b)
it would not be able to generate action potentials
c)
the resting membrane potential would be more positive
d)
the resting membrane potential would be more negative
188.
In the process of continuous action potential propagation,
a)
the action potential is triggered by graded depolarization of the initial segment.
b)
at threshold, sodium channels begin to open rapidly.
c)
local currents depolarize the region just adjacent to the active zone.
d)
all of the above
189.
During depolarization, the neurolemma is most permeable to _______.
a)
1.sodium ions
b)
1.potassium ions
c)
1.calcium ions
d)
1.chloride ions
190.
When 2 EPSPs arrives at different synapses at the same time, what occurs?
a)
•spatial summation
b)
•inhibition of the impulse
c)
•temporal summation
d)
•decrease in speed of impulse transmission
191.
A threshold stimulus immediately ________.
a)
opens voltage-gated potassium channels
b)
opens voltage-gated sodium channels
c)
inactivates voltage-gated sodium channels
d)
closes voltage-gated sodium channels
e)
closes voltage-gated potassium channels
192.
The Phase of the action potential where sodium channels inactivate and potassium channels open is known as ________.
a)
depolarization
b)
repolarization
c)
hyperpolarization
d)
return to resting
e)
excitation
193.
The membrane potential returns to the resting state due to ________.
a)
an action potential in that segment
b)
a depolarizing current that brings the adjacent segment to threshold
c)
a repolarizing current that brings the adjacent segment to threshold
d)
all of the above
e)
a and b
194.
The refractory period occurs when ________.
a)
voltage-gated sodium channels are open and potassium channels are closed
b)
voltage-gated sodium channels are inactivated and potassium channels are open
195.
Action potential propagation in myelinated axons is known as ________.
a)
continuous conduction
b)
gradual conduction
c)
constant conduction
d)
spontaneous conduction
e)
saltatory conduction
196.
In myelinated axons, action potential occurs ________ and they propagate ________.
a)
in myelinated segments; slowly
b)
in myelinated segments; rapidly
c)
at nodes of Ranvier; slowly
d)
at nodes of Ranvier; rapidly
e)
in myelinated and unmyelinated segments; rapidly
197.
The ear functions for ___________.
a)
balance
b)
hearing
c)
both balance and hearing
198.
The ear contains ______.
a)
mechanoreceptors
b)
photoreceptors
c)
chemoreceptors
d)
proprioceptors
199.
Rod cells and cone cells are located in the
a)
organ of Corti
b)
retina
c)
iris
d)
cornea
200.
These cells proliferate to replace lost olfactory cells:
a)
basal cells
b)
mitral cells
c)
olfactory hairs
d)
tufted cells
201.
Taste from different regions of the tongue are carried by these cranial nerves except:
a)
facial (VII)
b)
glossopharyngeal (IX)
c)
vagus (X)
d)
hypoglossal (XII)
202.
Umami (savory) tastes result in depolarization of cells by this mechanism:
a)
Na+ diffuses through Na+ channels of gustatory hairs
b)
diffusion of H+ into the cell through H+ channels
c)
amino acids bind to receptors on gustatory hairs
d)
1 and 2
203.
This statement about aqueous humor is true:
a)
is found in the anterior compartment of the eye
b)
is produced by the ciliary processes
c)
provides nutrition for the cornea and lens
d)
helps maintain intraocular pressure
e)
all of these
204.
Axons in the optic nerve from the right eye travel here:
a)
all to the right occipital lobe
b)
all to the left occipital lobe
c)
all to the thalamus
d)
most to the thalamus, some to the superior colliculus
e)
some to right occipital lobe and left occipital lobe
205.
A higher pitch of a sound is a result of an increase in the _____________ of the sound wave.
a)
frequency
b)
amplitude
c)
resonance
d)
1 and 2
206.
Damage to sensory structures in the semicircular canals primarily affects the ability to detect this:
a)
linear acceleration
b)
movement of the head in all directions
c)
the position of the head relative to the ground
d)
the position of the limbs
207.
The lens normally focuses light onto this:
a)
optic disc
b)
iris
c)
macula lutea
d)
cornea
e)
pupil
208.
Movement of otoliths located in the macula, is translated by the brain into specific information about head position and acceleration.
a)
true
b)
false
209.
This best describes the relationship between olfaction and gustation:
a)
gustatory hairs can also detect odorants
b)
olfactory hairs can also detect tastants
c)
olfactory sensations provide information about a substance that may be thought
d)
there is no relationship between the olfactory and gustatory senses
e)
210.
What type of receptor detects pain
a)
photoreceptor
b)
nociceptor
c)
mechanoreceptor
d)
baroreceptor
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