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Software Testing - Automation

Total questions: 103

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

These are the common test automation frameworks. Select those that apply.

a)

Behaviour Driven Framework

b)

Keyword Driven Framework

c)

Data Driven Framework

d)

Test Driven Development

2.

Record and play is considered "fully automated". True or False.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Test Automation can be done by these roles. Select all that applies

a)

Automation Engineer

b)

Software Development Engineer in Test (SDET)

c)

Quality Control

d)

Quality Engineer

4.

Which should not be automated? Select all that applies.

a)

Tests that haven't passed manual test at least once

b)

Features with unstable requirements

c)

Usability tests

d)

Computations

5.

Which of the Test Automation Process identifies which tests to automate?

a)

Tool Selection

b)

Automation Planning

c)

Automation Design

d)

Scope Definition

6.

Which of the Test Automation Process identifies which Tool will support their needs, skills, and budget?

a)

Tool Selection

b)

Automation Planning

c)

Automation Design

d)

Scope Definition

7.

Which of the Test Automation Process identifies the automation approach and framework

a)

Tool Selection

b)

Automation Planning

c)

Automation Design

d)

Scope Definition

8.

Which of the Test Automation Process wherein the members code their test scripts?

a)

Test Reporting

b)

Test Script Development

c)

Test Execution

d)

Automation Planning

9.

Which of the Test Automation Process wherein tool, test management tool integration, test automation framework setup, tool-specific planning happen?

a)

Test Reporting

b)

Test Script Development

c)

Test Execution

d)

Automation Planning

10.

Which of the Test Automation Process wherein test scripts are ran?

a)

Test Reporting

b)

Test Script Development

c)

Test Execution

d)

Automation Planning

11.

Which of the Test Automation Process wherein the result of the test script execution are reported

a)

Test Reporting

b)

Test Script Development

c)

Test Execution

d)

Automation Planning

12.

Which of the Test Automation Process wherein the test scripts are updated as per requirements

a)

Test Reporting

b)

Test Script Development

c)

Test Maintenance

d)

Automation Planning

13.

This is the scaffolding that provides an execution environment for the automation test scripts

a)

Test Automation

b)

Test Automation Framework

c)

Behaviour Driven Framework

d)

Test Pyramid

14.

Which of these is/are not common misconception/s of Test Automation?

a)

It takes time

b)

Does cover everything

c)

It's one-size fits all

d)

Automation is just a strategy

15.

Define effort and schedule.

4 lines
16.

A developer has wrongly typed a variable name. It comes under which category

a)

error

b)

fault

c)

failure

d)

quality

17.

Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase

a)

Creating test suites from the test cases

b)

Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools

c)

Comparing actual results

d)

Designing the Tests

18.

A city field in software accepts 3 to 25 alpha characters only. Using BVA technique what will be the possible number of combinations?

a)

3, 4, 24, 25

b)

2, 3, 25, 26

c)

2, 3, 24, 25

d)

3, 5, 25, 26

19.

How many test case are required to achieve 100% statement coverage?


Switch PC on

Start "outlook"

IF outlook appears THEN

Send an email

Close outlook

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

20.

How many test cases are required for 100% path coverage?


Read P

Read Q

IF P+Q > 100 THEN

Print “Large”

ENDIF

If P > 50 THEN

Print “P Large”

ENDIF

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

21.

Test Conditions are derived from:

a)

Specifications

b)

Test Cases

c)

Test Data

d)

Test Design

22.

Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

a)

Design based

b)

Big-bang

c)

Bottom-up

d)

Top-down

23.

Functional system testing is:

a)

testing that the system functions with other systems

b)

testing that the components that comprise the system function together

c)

testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole

d)

testing the system performs functions within specified response times

24.

Which of the following activities differentiate a walkthrough from a formal review?

a)

A walkthrough does not follow a defined process

b)

For a walkthrough individual preparation by the reviewers is optional

c)

A walkthrough requires meeting

d)

A walkthrough finds the causes of failures, while formal review finds the failures

25.

Which of the following is true

a)

Testing is the same as quality assurance

b)

Testing is a part of quality assurance

c)

Testing is not a part of quality assurance

d)

Testing is same as debugging

26.

Software testing activities should start

a)

as soon as the code is written

b)

during the design stage

c)

when the requirements have been formally documented

d)

as soon as possible in the development life cycle

27.

Which describes Test Estimation. Check all that applies.

a)

Done by the test manager

b)

Leads to better planning, execution and monitoring

c)

Done just right before testing

d)

Time needed to complete testing activities

28.

What do we estimate? Select all that we estimate.

a)

Resources

b)

Cost

c)

3rd-Party's funds

d)

Skills

e)

Time

29.

Test Estimation allows us to answer the following

a)

How long will this testing take?

b)

How much will it cost?

c)

Do we have enough resources or time?

d)

Who's going to pay for it?

30.

This Test Estimation Technique estimates method based on statistical data

a)

Work Breakdown Structure

b)

Work-phase based estimation

c)

3-Point Software Testing Estimation

d)

Functional Point / Testing Point Analysis

31.

This Test Estimation Technique breaks down test project into small pieces

a)

Work Breakdown Structure

b)

Work-phase based estimation

c)

3-Point Software Testing Estimation

d)

Functional Point / Testing Point Analysis

32.

This Test Estimation Technique measures size and give weightage to each function point

a)

Work Breakdown Structure

b)

Work-phase based estimation

c)

3-Point Software Testing Estimation

d)

Functional Point / Testing Point Analysis

33.

This test estimation technique categories functional points based on its complexity

a)

3-Point Software Testing Estimation

b)

Work Breakdown Structure

c)

Work-phase based estimation

d)

Functional Point / Testing Point Analysis

34.

This is the Total modules of the application

a)

Estimate defined per Function Point

b)

Total Effort

c)

Total Function Points

d)

Time Estimate

35.

This is the effort to completely test all the functions of the application

a)

Estimate defined per Function Point

b)

Total Effort

c)

Total Function Points

d)

Time Estimate

36.

This is the test management phase wherein it allows Tester to evaluate testing efforts and communicates test results to other parties

a)

Test Planning

b)

Test Authoring

c)

Test Execution

d)

Test Tracking

e)

Test Reporting

37.

This is the test management phase answers how to test

a)

Test Planning

b)

Test Authoring

c)

Test Execution

d)

Test Tracking

e)

Test Reporting

38.

This is the test management phase sets the overall direction and purpose of the test phase

a)

Test Planning

b)

Test Authoring

c)

Test Execution

d)

Test Tracking

e)

Test Reporting

39.

This is the test management phase is when Test cases are executed in sets called Test Suite

a)

Test Planning

b)

Test Authoring

c)

Test Execution

d)

Test Tracking

e)

Test Reporting

40.

In the Gantt chart, besides listing all the software testing activities, what else should be included?

a)

Code

b)

Task owner for assigned activity

c)

Documentation

d)

Testing tool

41.

Why SDLC is important for software tester in doing testing work?

a)

to show tester knowledge on software development

b)

to challenge software developer on their chosen SDLC model

c)

easy for tester to plan their schedule, and follow up with the developer work progress

d)

to check if software developer is doing their work correctly

42.
Integration bugs occur when the interfaces are integrated in between the assumed tested components
a)
True
b)
False
43.

When do we say that a test case has passed?

a)

When the test case executes without any error.

b)

When the test case executes and an output is produced.

c)

When the test case executes and output produced matches the expected output.

d)

When the test case executes and output produced can be traced to a requirement.

44.

The order in which test levels are performed is:

a)

Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

b)

Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

c)

Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

45.

Beta Testing is done at:

a)

Developer’s end

b)

User’s end

c)

User’s & Developer’s end

46.

Testing need to performed at each level of Software development life cycle

a)

True

b)

False

47.
Test data is not necessary until you have solved the problem.
a)
True
b)
False
48.

What are the various Testing Levels?

a)

Unit Testing

b)

System Testing

c)

Integration Testing

d)

All of the mentioned

49.

Unit testing is done by

a)

Users

b)

Developers

c)

Customers

d)

None of the mentioned

50.

A Type of Functional Testing, which investigates the functions relating to the detection of threats, such as viruses from malicious outsiders.

a)

Security Testing

b)

Recovery Testing

c)

Performance Testing

d)

Functionality Testing

51.

White-Box Testing is also known as ________ .

a)

Structural testing

b)

Code-Based Testing

c)

Clear box testing

d)

All of the above

52.

Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

a)

Unit Testing

b)

Integration Testing

c)

System testing

d)

Acceptance testing

53.

Which of the following is true

a)

Testing is the same as quality assurance

b)

Testing is a part of quality assurance

c)

Testing is not a part of quality assurance

d)

Testing is same as debugging

54.

Why is testing necessary?

a)

Because testing is good method to make there are not defects in the software

b)

Because verification and validation are not enough to get to know the quality of the software

c)

Because testing measures the quality of the software system and helps to increase the quality

d)

Because testing finds more defects than reviews and inspections

55.

Which set of metrics can be used for monitoring of the test execution?

a)

Number of detected defects, testing cost

b)

Number of residual defects in the test object

c)

Percentage of completed tasks in the preparation of test environment; test cases prepared

d)

Number of test cases run / not run; test cases passed / failed

56.

What makes an inspection different from other review types?

a)

It is led by a trained leader, uses formal entry and exit criteria and checklists

b)

It is led by the author of the document to be inspected

c)

It can only be used for reviewing design and code

d)

It is led by the author, uses checklists, and collects data for improvement

57.

Why can be tester dependent on configuration management?

a)

Because configuration management assures that we know the exact version of the testware and the test object

b)

Because test execution is not allowed to proceed without the consent of the change control board

c)

Because changes in the test object are always subject to configuration management

d)

Because configuration management assures the right configuration of the test tools

58.

Maintenance testing is:

a)

Testing management

b)

Synonym of testing the quality of service

c)

Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of existing software

d)

Testing the level of maintenance by the vendor

59.

Why is it necessary to define a Test Strategy?

a)

As there are many different ways to test software, thought must be given to decide what will be the most effective way to test the project on hand

b)

Starting testing without prior planning leads to chaotic and inefficient test project

c)

A strategy is needed to inform the project management how the test team will schedule the test-cycles

d)

Software failure may cause loss of money, time, business reputation, and in extreme cases injury and death. It is therefore critical to have a proper test strategy in place

60.

If a problem occurs in a system 6 months after it completely goes live, what will be the approach for fixing that problem on very urgent basis?

a)

Do not involve testers

b)

Just go for retest

c)

Always go for full regression test

d)

Go for retest and then use risk assessment to decide reasonable subset of regression test suit that will be executed

61.

Which things are measured by Software Test Effectiveness?

a)

How many customer requirements are implemented in system?

b)

How well the customer specifications are achieved by the system?

c)

How much effort is put in developing the system?

d)

All of the above

62.

Verifying that whether software components are functioning correctly and identifying the defects in them is objective of which level of testing?

a)

Integration Testing

b)

Acceptance Testing

c)

Unit Testing

d)

System Testing

63.

If a company decides to migrate from Windows XP to Windows 7, which type of testing is done to ensure that whether your software works on new platform?

a)

Interoperability Testing

b)

Portability Testing

c)

Usability Testing

d)

Performance Testing

64.

Which of the following type of testing is done without Planning and Documentation?

a)

Unit Testing

b)

Retesting

c)

Ad hoc Testing

d)

Regression Testing

65.

What is the example of Load Testing?

a)

Downloading large contents from the internet.

b)

Running multiple applications on a computer or server simultaneously.

c)

Printing large document using printer in a queue.

d)

Generating a large amount of traffic on particalr page.

e)

All the above

66.

Which of the followings is/are characteristic/s of Stress Testing?

a)

It is a type of Non Functional Testing

b)

It involves testing beyond normal operational capacity, often to a breaking point, in order to observe the results.

c)

It is used to determine the stability of a given system.

d)

It put greatemphasis on robustness, availability, and error handling under a heavy load, rather than on what would be considered correct behavior under normal circumstances.

e)

All of these

67.

Configuration Testing deals with hardware while compatibility testing deals with Software.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

This Testing Technique examines the basic program structure and it derives the test data from the program logic; Ensuring that all statements and conditions executed at least once. It is called as

a)

Block box Testing

b)

White box Testing

c)

Grey box Testing

d)

None of these

69.

Defects generally fall into the following categories?

a)

WRONG

b)

MISSING

c)

EXTRA

d)

All of these

70.

TQM represents

a)

Tool Quality Management

b)

Test Quality Manager

c)

Total Quality Management

d)

Total Quality Manager

71.

A Plan to overcome the risk called as

a)

Migration Plan

b)

Master plan

c)

Maintenance plan

d)

Mitigation Plan

72.

Quality Assurance methods are usually considered

a)

Detective

b)

Corrective

c)

Preventive

d)

Proactive

73.

If an expected result is not specified then:

a)

We cannot run the test

b)

It may be difficult to repeat the test

c)

It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed

d)

We cannot automate the user inputs

74.

Management and Measurement, It will come under

a)

CMM Level 1

b)

CMM Level 3

c)

CMM Level 4

d)

CMM Level 2

75.

The path segment for which every node is visited atmost once is said to be

a)

DU path

b)

Simple path segment

c)

loop free path

d)

defination clear path segment

76.

Every defination of every variables is covered in

a)

AD Stratergy

b)

APU Stratergy

c)

AU Stratergy

d)

ADUP Stratergy

77.

What is an advantage of using independent testers?

a)

Independent test teams are responsible for ensuring timely completion of the test execution period

b)

Independent testers are often more effective at finding defects

c)

You don't need people with technical or business domain knowledge on an independent test team

d)

Independent testing relieves developers of any responsibility for quality

78.

What is the purpose of exit criteria?

a)

To know when a specific test has finished its execution

b)

To ensure that the test case specification is complete

c)

To set the criteria used in generating test inputs

d)

To determine when to stop testing

79.

Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?

a)

Features to be tested

b)

Quality plans

c)

Risks

d)

Schedules and deadlines

e)

Test environment properties

80.

Enough testing has been performed when:

a)

Time runs out

b)

The required level of confidence has been achieved

c)

No more faults are found

d)

The users won’t find any serious faults

81.

We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:

a)

Each test stage has a different purpose

b)

It is easier to manage testing in stages

c)

We can run different tests in different environments

d)

The more stages we have, the better the testing

82.

In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:

a)

Find as many faults as possible

b)

Test high risk areas

c)

Obtain good test coverage

d)

Test whatever is easiest to test

83.

IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except

a)

Test Items

b)

Test deliverables

c)

Test tasks

d)

Test specifications

84.

Which of the following belongs in the incident description section of an IEEE 829 standard-compliant incident report?

a)

The item pass/fail criteria

b)

The expected results and the actual results of a test

c)

All project risks

d)

The degree to which a system or component accomplishes its designated functions within given constraints regarding processing time and throughput rate

85.

What is an incident?

a)

A flaw in a component or system that can cause the component or system to fail to perform its required function

b)

Any event occurring that requires investigation

c)

Deviation of the component or system from its expected delivery, service or result

d)

The physical or functional manifestation of a failure Learning objective: IEEE 829 standard

86.

There are eight document types in the IEEE 829 standard except:

a)

Software Design Specification

b)

Test Case Specification

c)

Test Log

d)

Test Incident Report

e)

Test Summary Report

87.

Whether reviews or inspections are part of testing and why?

a)

Yes, because both help in detecting the faults and improve quality.

b)

Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities.

c)

No, because they are normally applied before testing.

d)

No, because they apply to development documentation.

88.

Identify the roles of tester

a)

tester has to design test cases

b)

tester has to correct the errors present

c)

tester needs to design test procedures

d)

tester needs to create new versions of software

89.

A test harness is a

a)

A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization regarding testing

b)

A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project

c)

A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to conduct a test

d)

A set of several test cases for a component or system under test

90.

Defect Repository supports which of the following TMM maturity goals

a)

Controlling and monitoring of tests

b)

fault model generation

c)

test planning

d)

defect avoidance

91.

Read P

Read Q

If p+q > 100

then Print “Large”

End if

If p > 50

then Print “pLarge”

End if


What is the minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage?

a)

Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2

b)

Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2

c)

Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2

d)

Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2

92.

Consider the following statements:

i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.

ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.

iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.

iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.

v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.

a)

ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False

b)

i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False

c)

ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False

d)

ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

93.

Error guessing ..

a)

supplements formal test design techniques

b)

can only be used in component, integration and system testing

c)

is only performed in user acceptance testing

d)

is not repeatable and should not be used

94.

Which of the following types of testing would take place towards the END of the development process?

a)

Acceptance Testing

b)

White Box Testing

c)

Integration Testing

d)

Black Box Testing

95.

Which of the following correctly identifies the stages of testing that a developer would carry out?

a)

White Box > Alpha > Black Box > Beta

b)

Black Box > White Box > Alpha > Beta

c)

Alpha > Beta > White Box > Black Box

d)

White Box > Black Box > Alpha > Beta

96.

A software company is producing software for a local city council.

The software calculates the cost of parking at the city council’s car parking based on the following rules


5am – 8am : Parking is free

8am – 5pm : Parking costs £3 per hour or part of an hour

5pm – midnight : Parking is free

Midnight – 5am : No parking


Which of the following WOULD be suitable tests to carry out? [Choose as many as appropriate]

a)

Check Start/Finish time with values of 6AM/8AM

b)

Check Start/Finish times to see if parking is prevented with values of 11AM/3AM

c)

Check to see if £12 is charged for parking between 9AM and 12:15AM

d)

Check to see that a charge of £0 is applied for parking between 8PM and 11PM

97.

Test case development involves

a)

Code writing

b)

Analysis stage

c)

This phase involves creations, verification & re-work of test cases & test scripts, Review & baseline. Test cases & scripts,

Create test data

d)

Non of the above

98.

Outcome of test environment set up is

a)

Database access

b)

ERD design

c)

Environment ready for testing,

Smoke test result

d)

Non of the above

99.

Why is it necessary to check if the source code adheres to industry coding standards?

a)

All programming languages follow only one syntax

b)

Testers are thrown into jail for not following coding standards

c)

It makes the code easier to understand

d)

None of the above

100.

Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of White Box Testing?

a)

It can be quite complex and expensive

b)

It demands a detailed understanding of programming and implementation

c)

It is more thorough as all code paths are usually covered

d)

It is time-consuming

101.

Which of the following is / are not a characteristic of Regression Testing?

a)

Regression Testing can be performed on each level.

b)

It is done to illustrate that software is not changed intentionally.

c)

It is done to illustrate that new defects are not introduced after adding a new functionality or correcting previous one.

d)

It is best candidate for automation.

102.

Is a strategy in which the lower level modules are tested first.

a)

Bottom-up Integration Testing.

b)

Top-down Integration Testing.

c)

Sandwich Testing.

103.

Is a strategy in which top level modules are tested with lower level modules at the same time lower modules are integrated with top modules and tested as a system.

a)

Bottom-up Integration Testing.

b)

Sandwich Testing.

c)

Top-down Integration Testing.