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2021 Spring Final Review

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The substances that undergo change in a chemical reaction are called

a)

reactants.

b)

products.

c)

coefficients.

d)

elements.

2.

Hydrochloric acid, HCl, is added to solid NaOH. After the reaction is complete, NaCl dissolved in water remains. What are the products of this chemical reaction?

a)

NaOH and HCl

b)

HCl and NaCl

c)

NaOH and H2O

d)

NaCl and H2O

3.

Which of the following is a balanced chemical equation for the synthesis of NaBr from Na and Br2?

a)

Na + Br2 \rightarrow NaBr

b)

2Na + Br2 \rightarrow NaBr

c)

Na + Br2 \rightarrow 2NaBr

d)

2Na + Br2 \rightarrow 2NaBr

4.

The coefficients in a balanced chemical equation always can express the ratio of

a)

moles of reactants and products.

b)

volume of reactants and products.

c)

atoms of reactants and products.

d)

mass of reactants and products.

5.

When magnesium carbonate, MgCO2, reacts with nitric acid, HNO3, magnesium nitrate and carbonic acid form. Carbonic acid then breaks down into water and carbon dioxide. Which two types of reactions take place in this process?

a)

synthesis and decomposition

b)

single-replacement and combustion

c)

double-replacement and decomposition

d)

double-replacement and combustion

6.

In a compound, chemical energy is contained in the

a)

nuclei of the atoms.

b)

unbonded electrons.

c)

bonds.

d)

movement of the electrons.

7.

In terms of energy, how would you classify the following chemical reaction?
2Cu + O2 \rightarrow  2CuO + 315 kJ

a)

endothermic

b)

exothermic

c)

both endothermic and exothermic

d)

neither endothermic nor exothermic

8.

The total amount of energy before and after a chemical reaction is the same. Thus, energy is

a)

created.

b)

destroyed.

c)

conserved.

d)

the same as mass.

9.

In general, if the temperature of a chemical reaction is increased, the reaction rate

a)

increases.

b)

decreases.

c)

remains the same.

d)

cannot be predicted.

10.

When the forward and reverse paths of a change occur at the same rate,

a)

the system is conserved.

b)

the system is in equilibrium.

c)

the change must be physical.

d)

the change must be chemical.

11.

What happens to the reaction 2NO2 \leftrightarrow  N2O4+ 57.2 kJ when the temperature of the reaction is increased?

a)

More reactant is formed.

b)

More product is formed.

c)

No change occurs in the amounts of reactant and product present.

d)

The effect depends on whether or not a catalyst is present.

12.

What is the process in which an unstable atomic nucleus emits charged particles or energy or both?

a)

radioactivity

b)

oxidation

c)

decomposition

d)

none of the above

13.

What type of nuclear decay releases energy but not a particle?

a)

alpha decay

b)

beta decay

c)

gamma decay

d)

electron decay

14.

What type of radiation is emitted when polonium-212 forms lead-208?

a)

an alpha particle

b)

a beta particle

c)

gamma radiation

d)

all of the above

15.

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a)

You are exposed to nuclear radiation every day.

b)

Most of the nuclear radiation you are exposed to occurs naturally in the environment.

c)

Naturally occurring nuclear radiation is called background radiation.

d)

All natural radiation is at a level low enough to be safe.

16.

Many people work near a source of nuclear radiation. To detect the amount of exposure they have to radiation, they most likely will use a

a)

Geiger counter.

b)

film badge.

c)

radon kit.

d)

lead shield.

17.

The half-life of a radioisotope is the amount of time it takes for

a)

half the sample to decay.

b)

all the sample to decay.

c)

the age of an artifact to be calculated.

d)

detectable radiation to be absorbed by a sample.

18.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Chemical reaction rates vary with the conditions of the reaction, but nuclear decay rates do not.

b)

Nuclear decay rates vary with the conditions of the reaction, but chemical reaction rates do not.

c)

Both chemical reaction rates and nuclear decay rates vary with the conditions of the reaction.

d)

Neither chemical reaction rates nor nuclear decay rates vary with the conditions of the reaction.

19.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a transmutation?

a)

Uranium-238 emits an alpha particle and forms thorium-234.

b)

Uranium-238 is bombarded with a neutron to produce uranium-239.

c)

Potassium-38 emits a beta particle and forms argon-38.

d)

Plutonium-239 is bombarded with two neutrons to produce americium-241 and a beta particle.

20.

Which of the following is an example of a transuranium element?

a)

samarium, Sm

b)

uranium, U

c)

curium, Cm

d)

thorium, Th

21.

In general, the nucleus of a small atom is stable. Therefore, over very short distances, such as those in a small nucleus,

a)

the strong nuclear force is much greater than the electric force.

b)

the electric force is much greater than the strong nuclear force.

c)

the strong nuclear force equals the electric force.

d)

the strong nuclear force and the electric force are both attractive.

22.

During nuclear fission, great amounts of energy are produced from

a)

very small amounts of mass.

b)

tremendous amounts of mass.

c)

a series of chemical reactions.

d)

particle accelerators.

23.

In what state must matter exist for fusion reactions to take place?

a)

solid

b)

solid

c)

gas

d)

plasma

24.

A passenger in the rear seat of a car moving at a steady speed is at rest relative to

a)

the side of the road.

b)

a pedestrian on the corner ahead.

c)

the front seat of the car.

d)

the wheels of the car.

25.

One kilometer equals 1000 meters. What does the prefix kilo- mean?

a)

1

b)

10

c)

100

d)

1000

26.

A person walks 1 mile every day for exercise, leaving her front porch at 9:00 am. and returning to her front porch at 9:25 am. What is the total displacement of her daily walk?

a)

1 mile

b)

0

c)

25 minutes

d)

none of the above

27.

Speed is the ratio of the distance an object moves to

a)

the amount of time needed to travel the distance.

b)

the direction the object moves.

c)

the displacement of the object.

d)

the motion of the object.

28.

The slope of a line on a distance-time graph is

a)

distance.

b)

time.

c)

speed.

d)

displacement.

29.

A distance-time graph indicates that an object moves 100 m in 4 s and then remains at rest for 6 s. What is the average speed of the object?

a)

50 m/s

b)

25 m/s

c)

10 m/s

d)

100 m/s

30.

Which example identifies a change in motion that produces acceleration?

a)

a speed skater moving at a constant speed on a straight track

b)

a ball moving at a constant speed around a circular track

c)

a particle moving in a vacuum at constant velocity

d)

a vehicle moving down the street at a steady speed

31.

Objects in free fall near the surface of the Earth experience

a)

constant speed.

b)

constant velocity.

c)

constant acceleration.

d)

constant distance.

32.

Suppose you increase your walking speed from 1 m/s to 3 m/s in a period of 1 s. What is your acceleration?

a)

2 m/s2

b)

5 m/s2

c)

4 m/s2

d)

3 m/s2

33.

A train approaching a crossing changes speed from 25 m/s to 10 m/s in 240 s. How can the train’s acceleration be described?

a)

The train’s acceleration is positive.

b)

The train is not accelerating.

c)

The train will come to rest in 6 minutes.

d)

The train’s acceleration is negative.

34.

When an unbalanced force acts on an object,

a)

the object’s motion does not change.

b)

the object accelerates.

c)

the weight of the object decreases.

d)

the inertia of the object increases.

35.

What kind of friction occurs as a fish swims through water?

a)

fluid

b)

rolling

c)

sliding

d)

static

36.

An open parachute increases air resistance of a falling sky diver by

a)

decreasing the weight of the diver.

b)

increasing surface area.

c)

increasing the terminal velocity.

d)

reducing fluid friction.

37.

The property of matter that resists changes in motion is called

a)

friction.

b)

gravity.

c)

inertia.

d)

weight.

38.

Your weight equals your

a)

mass.

b)

mass divided by the net force acting on you.

c)

mass times the acceleration due to gravity.

d)

mass times your speed.

39.

Newton’s third law of motion describes

a)

action and reaction forces.

b)

balanced forces.

c)

centripetal forces.

d)

net force.

40.

What is conserved when two objects collide in a closed system?

a)

acceleration

b)

momentum

c)

speed

d)

velocity

41.

What force is responsible for the repulsion between two positively-charged particles?

a)

centripetal

b)

electric

c)

gravitational

d)

nuclear

42.

When opposite poles of two magnets are brought together, the poles

a)

attract each other.

b)

repel each other.

c)

cancel each other.

d)

cause a net force of zero.

43.

Which of the following universal forces is the weakest?

a)

electric

b)

gravitational

c)

magnetic

d)

strong nuclear

44.

The force that keeps an object moving in a circle is called

a)

centripetal force.

b)

fluid friction.

c)

inertia.

d)

momentum.

45.

A force acting on an object does no work if

a)

a machine is used to move the object.

b)

the force is not in the direction of the object’s motion.

c)

the force is greater than the force of friction.

d)

the object accelerates.

46.

If you exert a force of 10.0 N to lift a box a distance of 0.9 m, how much work do you do?

a)

0.1 J

b)

9.0 J

c)

10.9 J

d)

90.0 J

47.

The SI unit of power is the

a)

joule.

b)

newton.

c)

newton-meter.

d)

watt.

48.

The actual mechanical advantage of a machine

a)

cannot be less than 1.

b)

decreases as the input distance increases.

c)

increases with greater friction.

d)

is less than the ideal mechanical advantage of the machine

49.

Reducing friction in a machine

a)

decreases its actual mechanical advantage.

b)

decreases the work output.

c)

increases its efficiency.

d)

increases its ideal mechanical advantage.

50.

If you have to apply 40 N of force on a crowbar to lift a rock that weights 400 N, what is the actual mechanical advantage of the crowbar?

a)

0.1

b)

10

c)

360

d)

16,000