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Spring Final Review

Total questions: 205

Worksheet time: 2hrs 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In eukaryotes, DNA

a)

Is located in the nucleus

b)

Floats freely in the cytoplasm

c)

is located in the ribosomes

d)

is circular

2.

DNA is copied during a process called

a)

Translation

b)

transformation

c)

Transcription

d)

replication

3.

RNA contains the sugar

a)

Deoxyribose

b)

glucose

c)

Ribose

d)

lactose

4.

Which RNA molecule carries amino acids?

a)

Messenger RNA

b)

ribosomal RNA

c)

Transfer RNA

d)

RNA polymerase

5.

What is made during transcription?

a)

RNA molecules

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

DNA molecules

d)

proteins

6.

What happens during translation?

a)

Messenger RNA is made from DNA

b)

The cell uses information from messenger RNA to make proteins

c)

Transfer RNA is made from messenger RNA

d)

Copies of DNA molecules are made

7.

Genes contain instructions for assembling

a)

Purines

b)

proteins

c)

Nucleosomes

d)

pyrimidines

8.

A mutation that involves a single nucleotide is called a(n)

a)

Chromosomal mutation

b)

point mutation

c)

Inversion

d)

translocation

9.

After introns are cut out of an RNA molecule, the remaining are put back together to make the final messenger RNA (the parts that are expressed)

a)

Introns and exons

b)

introns and nucleotides

c)

Exons

d)

nucleotides

10.

Which of the following is a nucleotide found in DNA?

a)

Ribose, phosphate group, and thymine

b)

Ribose, phosphate group, uracil

c)

Deoxyribose, phosphate group, uracil

d)

Deoxyribose, phosphate group, cytosine

11.

DNA replication results in two DNA molecules

a)

Each with two new strands

b)

One with two new strands and the other with two original strands

c)

Each with one new strand and one original strand

d)

Each with two original strands

12.

Unlike DNA, RNA contains

a)

Adenine

b)

phosphate groups

c)

Uracil

d)

thymine

13.

Which type(s) of RNA is/are involved in protein synthesis?

a)

Transfer RNA only

b)

Messenger RNA only

c)

Ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA only

d)

Messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA

14.

How many codons are needed to specify three amino acids? (think about how many codons you need for one amino acid)

a)

3

b)

6

c)

9

d)

12

15.

Which of the following is NOT a gene mutation?

a)

Inversion

b)

deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

substitution

16.

The figure shows a structure of a(n)

a)

DNA molecule

b)

RNA molecule

c)

Amino acid

d)

Protein

17.

What structure is shown in the picture?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

18.

What structure is shown in the picture?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

19.

What structure is shown in the picture?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

20.

Darwin’s voyage on the HMS (blank) led him to propose a revolutionary hypothesis about life.

a)

Collie

b)

Cheetah

c)

Beagle

d)

Lion

21.

Darwin’s hypothesis about how life changes over time is now called the Theory of

a)

Evolution

b)

Variation

c)

Derived characteristic

d)

use and disuse

22.

A well supported, testable explanation of phenomena that has occurred in the natural world is called a

a)

Hypothesis 

b)

theory

c)

Law

d)

prediction

23.

Of all of the places he visited, the (blank) Islands influenced Darwin’s ideas about evolution the most

a)

Hawaiian

b)

Aleutian

c)

Beagle

d)

Galapagos

24.

In addition to observing living organisms, Darwin studied the preserved remains of ancient organisms called

a)

Fossils

b)

homologous structures

c)

Adaptations

d)

vestigial organs

25.

On the Galapagos Islands, Darwin observed that the characteristics of many animals and plants

a)

All looked alike

b)

varied from island to island

c)

Were acquired through use

d)

began to disappear

26.

What type of evolution occurs within a species and can occur in a relatively short time?

a)

Malthusian

b)

horizontal

c)

vertical

d)

adolescent

27.

Because of its similarities to artificial selection, Darwin referred to “survival of the fittest” as

a)

Use it or lose it

b)

Homologous structures

c)

Natural selection

d)

Struggle for existence

28.

Scientists thinking that there are similarities in vertebrates in the early stages of life is called the study of

a)

Descent with modification

b)

Artificial selection

c)

geographic distribution

d)

embryology

29.

When farmers select the largest hogs, the fattest horses, or the cows that produce the most milk for breeding, it is called

a)

Natural selection

b)

Artificial selection

c)

Survival of the fittest

d)

Homologous variation

30.

An inherited characteristic that increases an organism’s ability to survive and reproduce in its specific environment is called a(n)

a)

Homologous structure

b)

Vestigial organ

c)

Adaptation

d)

Speciation

31.

A human appendix and whale hipbones are body parts that may or may not be used anymore. These are examples of

a)

Vestigial organs

b)

Embryonic mates

c)

Homologous structures

d)

Artificial selection

32.

Competition for food, space, and other resources among members of a species is called

a)

Common descent

b)

Survival of the fittest

c)

Artificial selection

d)

Struggle for existence

33.

The ability of an individual to survive and reproduce in a specific environment is called

a)

Fitness

b)

Survival of the fittest

c)

Common descent

d)

Struggle for existence

34.

Stressed that scientists can explain past events in terms of processes occurring that they can observe happening now

a)

God

b)

Thomas Malthus

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

Charles Lyell

e)

James Hutton

35.

Predicted the human population will grow faster than the space and food needed to sustain it

a)

God

b)

Thomas Malthus

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

James Hutton

e)

Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

36.

Proposed that organisms acquired or lost traits during their lifetime by selective use or disuse of organs

a)

God

b)

Thomas Malthus

c)

Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

d)

James Hutton

e)

Charles Darwin

37.

Proposed that the Earth was shaped by geological forces that took place over millions of years

a)

God

b)

Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

James Hutton

e)

Thomas Malthus

38.

Showed that every other scientist on this list was simply not qualified to comment on where life originated because He gave us the Bible which tells us where life came from

a)

God

b)

Thomas Malthus

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

James Hutton

e)

Charles Lyell

39.

Proposed a hypothesis to explain how living things change over time (evolve)

a)

God

b)

Charles Darwin

c)

James Hutton

d)

Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

e)

Charles Lyell

40.

According to this cladogram, sharks are MOST closely related to which organism?

a)

Amphibians

b)

Crocodiles

c)

Ray finned fish

d)

Birds

41.

Which two organisms have hair?

a)

Sharks and Ray finned fish

b)

Birds and crocodiles

c)

Primates and rodents

d)

Rabbits and birds

42.

The scientific name for an organism is written as the

a)

Class and family name

b)

genus and species name

c)

Domain and kingdom name

d)

kingdom and phylum name

43.

Which domain is capable of living in extreme environments like hot springs, geysers, or very salty waters?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Eukarya

c)

Archaea

44.

What branch of biology classifies and assigns each organism a universally accepted name?

a)

Biology

b)

Binomial nomenclature

c)

Naming-ology

d)

Taxonomy

45.

Organisms that can mate and produce fertile offspring are put into which category?

a)

Genus

b)

Species

c)

Order

d)

Family

46.

Bacteria reproduce by

a)

Mitosis

b)

Binary fission

c)

Budding

d)

Meiosis

47.

How do bacteria cause disease?

a)

By entering and bursting cells

b)

by maintaining homeostasis

c)

By reproducing very quickly

d)

by destroying cells and releasing toxins

48.

What are the two major parts of a virus?

a)

Protein coat and nucleic acid

b)

Nucleic acid and ribosomes

c)

Protein coat and cell membrane

d)

Cell membrane and nucleic acid

49.

The term given to describe the two-name naming system is

a)

Binomial key

b)

Two scientific names

c)

Dichotomous key

d)

Binomial nomenclature

50.

Prokaryotes that break down dead organisms and wastes are called

a)

Nodules

b)

Producers

c)

Nitrogen fixers

d)

Decomposers

51.

The first person to sort organisms classified them into what two groups?

a)

Animals and fungi

b)

Fungi and plants

c)

Animals and plants

d)

Animals and bacteria

52.

The 8 levels of classification from broad to specific is

a)

Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

b)

Domain, Species, Kingdom, Genus, Phylum, Family, Class, Order

c)

Order, Class, Family, Phylum, Genus, Kingdom, Species, Domain

d)

Species, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom, Domain

53.

What is the genus name here: Canis lupis

a)

Canis

b)

lupis

c)

Canis lupis

54.

How many species have been described and named?

a)

10 million

b)

1.5 billion

c)

10 billion

d)

1.5 million

55.

Who was the FIRST person to classify organisms into groups?

a)

Aristotle

b)

Carl Linnaeus

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

Alfred Wallace

56.

Which two kingdoms belonged to Monera before it was split?

a)

Fungi and Plantae

b)

Fungi and Eubacteria

c)

Eubacteria and Plantae

d)

Eubacteria and Archaebacteria

57.

Viral infections can be prevented by vaccines, which are

a)

Chemicals that destroy viral DNA

b)

Drugs that control the growth and reproduction of viruses

c)

Preparations of weakened or killed viruses

d)

Substances that cause viral proteins to misfold

58.

Bacteria play an important role in ecosystems as

a)

Parasites

b)

producers and consumers

c)

Anaerobes

d)

plasmids

59.

During what process do prokaryotes exchange genetic material?

a)

Cell division

b)

conjugation

c)

Binary fission

d)

endospore formation

60.

What three characteristics are used to classify prokaryotes?

a)

By size, where they live, and whether they need air

b)

Whether they have cell walls, flagella/cilia, and nuclei

c)

How they reproduce, where they get food, and whether they have DNA

d)

By shape, how they move, and how they get energy

61.

What is the basic structure of a virus?

a)

DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat

b)

A capsid surrounded by a protein coat

c)

A bacteriophage surrounded by a membrane

d)

A tiny cell surrounded by a cell wall

62.

Which of the following can survive with oxygen or without it?

a)

Obligate aerobes

b)

facultative anaerobes

c)

Obligate anaerobes

d)

bacteriophages

63.

Some prokaryotes are able to survive unfavorable conditions by forming

a)

Flagella

b)

cocci

c)

Capsids

d)

endospores

64.

An unknown disease or well-known disease that suddenly becomes harder to control is called

a)

A pathogen

b)

an antibiotic

c)

An emerging disease

d)

a viral disease

65.

Classification based on structures

a)

Bacteriophage

b)

Binomial nomenclature

c)

Phylogeny

d)

Morphology

66.

Evolutionary history of an organism

a)

Bacteriophage

b)

Homologous structure

c)

Phylogeny

d)

Analogous structure

67.

Physical features that have the same function but different structure – not related

a)

Vestigial structure

b)

Analogous structure

c)

Homologous structure

d)

Morphology

68.

System of assigning a scientific name that consists of two parts

a)

Phylogeny

b)

Bacteriophage

c)

Binomial nomenclature

d)

Analogous structure

69.

Structure that is reduced in size and seems to be “left over” from a previous ancestor

a)

Vestigial structure

b)

Analogous structure

c)

Morphology

d)

Homologous structure

70.

Virus that infects bacteria

a)

Bacteriophage

b)

Binomial nomenclature

c)

Phylogeny

d)

Morphology

71.

Physical features that have the same structure, but different function – are related

a)

Vestigial structure

b)

Analogous structure

c)

Homologous structure

d)

Phylogeny

72.

Having a pair of the same genes for one trait is a (blank) condition.

a)

Monohybrid

b)

homozygous

c)

heterozygous

d)

dihybrid 

73.

In guinea pigs, black hair is dominant over white hair. If a homozygous black guinea pig was crossed with a homozygous white guinea pig, the F1 offspring will have a phenotypic probability would be

a)

All white

b)

All black

c)

½ black & ½ white

d)

unable to predict

74.

The phenotypic ratio of the offspring TT, Tt, tt, TT is

a)

2:1:1

b)

2:1:2

c)

2:2

d)

3:1

75.

If an organism has two different genes for one trait, the organism is said to be

a)

Homozygous

b)

heterozygous

c)

monohybrid

d)

dihybrid

76.

A chart that allows you to visualize gene pairings is called a

a)

Mendel square

b)

phenotype chart

c)

genotype chart

d)

Punnett Square

77.

A condition in which both alleles of a heterozygous condition are blended AND expressed (an in-between phenotype)

a)

Crossing over

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

transformation

d)

sex-linked

78.

When looking at two sets of traits, you’re dealing with a

a)

Diploid condition

b)

monohybrid cross

c)

dihybrid cross

d)

triploid condition

79.

The possible number of different gametes that can be formed from a cell with genotype CcDD is

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

80.

Blood type is an example of which of the following

a)

Multiple alleles

b)

simple alleles

c)

local alleles

d)

recessive alleles

81.

A trait carried only on the X-sex chromosome is

a)

Sex-limited

b)

sex-linked

c)

sex-influenced

d)

sex-determined

82.

The blood type that is always evidence of a homozygous condition is

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

83.

A genetic cross dealing with only one set of characteristics

a)

Phenotype

b)

Genotype

c)

Monohybrid cross

84.

The physical expression of an organism’s genes, what it looks like

a)

Phenotype

b)

Genotype

c)

Monohybrid cross

85.

The genetic make-up of an individual organism; the actual genes that are present

a)

Phenotype

b)

Genotype

c)

Monohybrid cross

86.

When one plant is fertilized by another plant

a)

Dominant

b)

Recessive

c)

Cross pollinate

87.

The trait which, when in the presence of a contrasting trait, expresses itself

a)

Dominant

b)

Recessive

c)

Cross pollinate

88.

The trait which, when in the presence of the opposing trait, will not be expressed

a)

Dominant

b)

Recessive

c)

Monohybrid cross

89.

One plant fertilizes a flower on the same plant

a)

codominance

b)

self pollinate

c)

P1

d)

sex chromosomes

90.

The offspring that are the result of the crossing of the parent plants

a)

P1

b)

F1

c)

F2

d)

sex chromosomes

91.

When both alleles are expressed, but with NO blending

a)

codominance

b)

self pollinate

c)

sex chromosomes

d)

Gregor Mendel

92.

The first plants crossed in a studied cross

a)

P1

b)

F1

c)

F2

d)

sex chromosomes

93.

Determines the sex of the offspring

a)

sex chromosomes

b)

codominance

c)

self pollinate

d)

Gregor Mendel

94.

The offspring resulting from the crossing of the first filial plants

a)

F1

b)

F2

c)

P1

d)

sex chromosomes

95.

Monk is known as the father of modern genetics for his work with pea plants

a)

codominance

b)

self pollinate

c)

sex chromosomes

d)

Gregor Mendel

96.

Meiosis results in (blank) (remember diploid means twice and haploid means half)

a)

2 haploid daughter cells

b)

2 diploid daughter cells

c)

4 haploid daughter cells

d)

4 diploid daughter cells

97.

Crossing over occurs during

a)

Anaphase 1

b)

Metaphase 1

c)

Prophase 1

d)

Prophase 2

98.

An organism that is permanently attached to the ground is

a)

dormant

b)

motile

c)

active

d)

sessile

99.

The phylum that has organisms with harpoon like nematocysts is

a)

Cnidaria

b)

Nematoda

c)

Porifera

d)

Mollusca

100.

The usually sessile stage of a cnidarian life cycle is the

a)

Hydra

b)

Planula

c)

Medusa

d)

Polyp

101.

If a midline divides and organism into two equal side-by-side segments, the organism has

a)

Bilateral symmetry

b)

spherical symmetry

c)

Radial symmetry

d)

asymmetry

102.

What percentage of animals are invertebrates?

a)

50%

b)

75%

c)

90%

d)

95%

103.

What is the study of the structure of organisms/organs?

a)

Physiology

b)

Anatomy

c)

Zoology

d)

Biology

104.

Being an herbivore falls into which of the 7 essential functions of animals?

a)

Feeding

b)

Respiration

c)

Response

d)

Reproduction

105.

What kind of symmetry does coral have?

a)

Asymmetry

b)

Radial symmetry

c)

Bilateral symmetry

d)

Isosymmetry

106.

What is the main organ for excretion?

a)

Lungs

b)

Anus

c)

Kidney

d)

Bladder

107.

Which of the following animals have radial symmetry?

a)

Sponges

b)

Starfish

c)

Insects

d)

Humans

108.

What does it mean to be ventral?

a)

Backside

b)

Toward the tail

c)

Belly side

d)

Toward the head

109.

What does it mean to be dorsal?

a)

Back side

b)

Toward the tail

c)

Belly side

d)

Towards the head

110.

What does it mean to be anterior?

a)

Back side

b)

Toward the tail

c)

Belly side

d)

Toward the head

111.

What does it mean to be posterior?

a)

Back side

b)

Toward the tail

c)

Belly side

d)

Toward the head

112.

The elimination of waste products from the body is a function of which body system?

a)

Endocrine

b)

Respiratory

c)

Excretory

d)

Digestive

113.

Which type of symmetry does a sponge have?

a)

Radial

b)

Bilateral

c)

Asymmetry

d)

Isosymmetry

114.

An animal is which of the following (multiple answers are correct)

a)

Multicellular

b)

Autotrophic

c)

Heterotrophic

d)

Eukaryotic

115.

Animals that have no backbone are called

a)

Vertebrates

b)

Ecoderms

c)

Deuterostomes

d)

Invertebrates

116.

What does the word Porifera mean?

a)

"soft animal"

b)

"hollow gut"

c)

"pore bearer"

d)

"non-motile"

117.

Which of the following is the specialized sponge cell that contains flagella and is used to help power the flow of water through the sponge?

a)

Amoebocyte

b)

Spicule

c)

Collar cell

d)

Pore cell

118.

Sponges that are soft are most likely composed of what skeletal component?

a)

Spicules

b)

Spongin

c)

Gemmules

d)

Osculum

119.

Which of the following best describes the feeding habits of sponges?

a)

Predators

b)

Filter feeders

c)

Parasites

d)

Detritivores

120.

Which of the following are members of Phylum Cnidaria? (multiple choices are correct)

a)

Coral

b)

Jellyfish

c)

Sea Anemone

d)

Sponge

121.

What is a nematocyst?

a)

Stinging cell

b)

A tentacle

c)

Digestive enzyme

d)

A birth defect in hydra

122.

Cnidocytes help a cnidarian survive by

a)

Storing food

b)

Forming colonies

c)

Paralyzing prey

d)

Providing movement

123.

What phylum does the Earthworm belong to?

a)

Nematoda

b)

Cnidaria

c)

Platyhelminthes

d)

Annelida

124.

A major characteristic of earthworms, involves repeating body units is referred to as

a)

Cephalization

b)

Segmentation

c)

Conjugation

d)

Linear division

125.

These crystalline structures are found in certain sponges. They provide a rigid and brittle structure for the sponge.

a)

Collagen

b)

spicule

c)

Spongin

d)

choanocyte

126.

Which of these statements BEST describes why sponges are considered to be one of the simplest animals in the animal kingdom?

a)

Sponges lack a brain, muscles, nervous system, and appendages

b)

Sponges do not hunt for prey

c)

Sponges are sessile (cannot move)

d)

Sponges are considered to be one of the oldest living organisms

127.

Which of the following statements about corals is NOT true?

a)

Corals exhibit the medusa body form

b)

Corals are colonial animals that live together and cooperate with each other

c)

Corals are predatory animals

d)

Coral reefs are made from thousands of coral animals

128.

Which of these is NOT a function of tentacles?

a)

capturing prey

b)

fighting other cnidarians

c)

helping the animal swim

d)

storing and using toxin

129.

Which organisms are most closely related to Chordates based on the phylogenetic tree?

a)

Flatworms

b)

Mollusks, Annelids, Arthropods

c)

Echinoderms

d)

Sponges

130.
The ability of a human to roll his tongue is dominant. A woman who CAN roll her tongue is married to a man who CANNOT. Two of their four children have the ability to roll their tongues, and two don’t. What are the parents’ genotypes?
a)
Mom, TT; dad, tt
b)
mom, Tt; dad, tt
c)
mom, tt; dad, Tt
d)
mom, Tt; dad, Tt
131.
When looking at two sets of traits, you’re dealing with a
a)
diploid condition
b)
dihybrid cross
c)
monohybrid cross
d)
triploid condition
132.
he possible number of different gametes that can be formed from a cell with genotype CcDD is
a)
2
b)
4
c)
6
d)
8
133.
Blood type is an example of which of the following
a)
multiple alleles
b)
local alleles
c)
simple alleles
d)
recessive alleles
134.
A trait carried only on the X-sex chromosome is
a)
sex-limited
b)
sex-influenced
c)
sex-linked
d)
sex-determined
135.
The blood type that is always evidence of a homozygous condition is
a)
A
b)
B
c)
AB
d)
O
136.
specific characteristics of an individual
a)
segregation
b)
trait
c)
allele
d)
homozygous
137.
separation of alleles during gamete formation
a)
segregation
b)
trait
c)
allele
d)
homozygous
138.
sequence of DNA that codes for a protein and thus determines a trait; factor that is passed from parent to offspring
a)
gene
b)
genetics
c)
genotype
d)
allele
139.
genetic makeup of an organism
a)
gene
b)
genetics
c)
genotype
d)
allele
140.
one of Mendel’s principles that states that genes for different traits can segregate independently during the formation of gametes
a)
polygenic trait
b)
independent assortment
c)
Principle of dominance
d)
segregation
141.
scientific study of heredity
a)
gene
b)
genetics
c)
genotype
d)
allele
142.
one of a number of different forms of a gene
a)
segregation
b)
trait
c)
allele
d)
homozygous
143.
having two identical alleles for a particular trait
a)
segregation
b)
trait
c)
allele
d)
homozygous
144.
Mendel’s second conclusion, which states that some alleles are dominant and others are recessive
a)
polygenic trait
b)
independent assortment
c)
Principle of dominance
d)
homozygous
145.
trait controlled by two or more gene
a)
polygenic trait
b)
independent assortment
c)
Principle of dominance
d)
allele
146.
physical characteristics of an organism
a)
multiple alleles
b)
probability
c)
phenotype
d)
heterozygous
147.
likelihood that a particular event will occur
a)
multiple alleles
b)
probability
c)
phenotype
d)
heterozygous
148.
process in sexual reproduction in which male and female reproductive cells join to form a  new cell
a)
Punnett Square
b)
fertilization
c)
codominance
d)
gamete
149.
sex cells
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
gamete
c)
heterozygous
d)
phenotype
150.
a gene that has more than two alleles
a)
multiple alleles
b)
probability
c)
phenotype
d)
codominance
151.
situation in which one allele is not completely dominant over another allele
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
codiminance
c)
heterozygous
d)
homozygous
152.
having two different alleles for a particular gene
a)
homozygous
b)
heterozygous
c)
gamete
d)
multiple alleles
153.
diagram that can be used to predict the genotype and phenotype combination of a genetic cross
a)
Punnett Square
b)
codiminance
c)
fertilization
d)
probability
154.
process in which homologous chromosomes exchange portions of their chromatids during meiosis
a)
homologous
b)
crossing over
c)
zygote
d)
meiosis
155.
process in which the number of chromosomes per cell is cut in half through the separation of homologous chromosomes in a diploid cell
a)
meiosis
b)
diploid
c)
haploid
d)
crossing over
156.
fertilized egg
a)
crossing over
b)
homologous
c)
haploid
d)
zygote
157.
term used to refer to a cell that contains two sets of homologous chromosomes
a)
diploid
b)
haploid
c)
zygote
d)
meiosis
158.
term used to refer to a cell that contains only a single set of genes
a)
diploid
b)
haploid
c)
zygote
d)
meiosis
159.
How many diploid chromosomes do humans have?
a)
25
b)
23
c)
48
d)
46
160.
How many haploid chromosomes do humans have?
a)
25
b)
23
c)
48
d)
46
161.
How many divisions does meiosis go through?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
162.
How many daughter cells are produced in meiosis 1?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
163.
How many daughter cells are produced in meiosis 2?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
164.
What is it called when there is a transfer of genetic information from chromatid to another?
a)
synapsis
b)
crossing over
c)
tetrads
d)
switch-a-roo
165.
What is the pairing of homologous chromosomes called?
a)
synapsis
b)
crossing over
c)
sister chromatids
d)
cytokinesis
166.
Darwin’s voyage on the HMS BLANK led him to propose a revolutionary hypothesis about life.
a)
Collie
b)
Cheetah
c)
Beagle
d)
Lion
167.
Darwin’s hypothesis about how life changes over time is now called the Theory of
a)
Evolution
b)
Variation
c)
Derived characteristic
d)
use and disuse
168.
A well supported, testable explanation of phenomena that have occurred in the natural world is called a
a)
hypothesis
b)
law
c)
theory
d)
prediction
169.
Of all of the places he visited, which Islands influenced Darwin’s ideas about evolution the most?
a)
Hawaiian
b)
Beagle
c)
Aleutian
d)
Galapagos
170.
In addition to observing living organisms, Darwin studied the preserved remains of ancient organisms called
a)
fossils
b)
adaptations
c)
homologous structures
d)
vestigial organs
171.
On the Galapagos Islands, Darwin observed that the characteristics of many animals and plants
a)
all looked alike
b)
were acquired through use
c)
varied from island to island
d)
began to disappear
172.
What type of evolution occurs within a species and can occur in a relatively short time?
a)
Malthusian
b)
vertical
c)
horizontal
d)
adolescent
173.
Structures that are shared by related species and have been inherited from a common ancestor
a)
Darwinian
b)
Lamarckian
c)
fossils
d)
homologous
174.
Because of its similarities to artificial selection, Darwin referred to “survival of the fittest” as
a)
use it or lose it
b)
homologous structures
c)
natural selection
d)
struggle for existence
175.
Scientists thinking that there are similarities in vertebrates in the early stages of life is called the study      of
a)
Descent with modification
b)
artificial selection
c)
geographic distribution
d)
embryology
176.
When farmers select the largest hogs, the fattest horses, or the cows that produce the most milk for breeding, it is called
a)
natural selection
b)
survival of the fittest
c)
artificial selection
d)
homologus variation
177.
An inherited characteristic that increases an organism’s ability to survive and reproduce in its specific environment is called a(n)
a)
homologous structures
b)
adaptation
c)
vestigial organ
d)
speciation
178.
A human appendix and whale hip bones are body parts that may or may not be used anymore. These are examples of
a)
vestigial organ
b)
homologous structures
c)
embryonic mates
d)
artificial selection
179.
Competition for food, space, and other resources among members of a species is called
a)
common descent
b)
artificial selection
c)
survival of the fittest
d)
struggle for existence
180.
The ability of an individual to survive and reproduce in a specific environment is called
a)
fitness
b)
survival of the fittest
c)
common descent
d)
struggle for existence
181.
Evolutionists say the earth is BLANK years old. Creationists say the earth is BLANK years old.
a)
6,000; 4.6 million
b)
4.6 million; 6,000
c)
6,000; 4.6 billion
d)
4.6 billion; 6,000
182.
A woman has scarred hands because of burns from a house fire. If her children were born with scarred hands, this would illustrate the theory of
a)
natural selection
b)
descent with modification
c)
inheritance of acquired characteristics
d)
homologous structure
183.
Man was created in the same way as plants and animals
a)
True
b)
False
184.
Descent with modification is the idea that newer organisms are the modified descendants of much older organisms.
a)
True
b)
False
185.
Natural selection only works for characteristics already in existence.
a)
True
b)
False
186.
Creation is accepted by faith, whereas evolution is not.
a)
True
b)
False
187.
Predicted the human population will grow faster than the space and food needed to sustain it
a)
God
b)
Thomas Malthus
c)
Charles Darwin
d)
Hutton and Lyell
e)
Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
188.
Proposed that organisms acquired or lost traits during their lifetime by selective use or disuse of organs
a)
God
b)
Thomas Malthus
c)
Charles Darwin
d)
Hutton and Lyell
e)
Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
189.
Proposed that the Earth was shaped by geological forces that took place over millions of years
a)
God
b)
Thomas Malthus
c)
Charles Darwin
d)
Hutton and Lyell
e)
Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
190.
Showed that every other scientists on this list was simply not qualified to comment on where life originated because He gave us the Bible which tells us where life came from
a)
God
b)
Thomas Malthus
c)
Charles Darwin
d)
Hutton and Lyell
e)
Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
191.
Proposed a hypothesis to explain how living things change over time (evolve)
a)
God
b)
Thomas Malthus
c)
Charles Darwin
d)
Hutton and Lyell
e)
Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
192.
The scientific name for an organism is written as the
a)
Class and family name
b)
Domain and kingdom name
c)
genus and species name
d)
kingdom and phylum name
193.
Who first proposed binomial nomenclature as a way of classifying organisms?
a)
Carl Linnaeus
b)
Charles Darwin
c)
Carl’s Jr.
d)
Henry Groseclose
194.
What branch of biology classifies and assigns each organism a universally accepted name?
a)
biology
b)
binomial nomenclature
c)
naming-ology
d)
taxonomy
195.
Organisms that can mate and produce fertile offspring are put into which category?
a)
genus
b)
species
c)
order
d)
family
196.
The term given to describe the two-name naming system is
a)
binomial key
b)
dichotomous key
c)
two scientific names
d)
binomial nomenclature
197.
The first person to sort organisms classified them into what two groups?
a)
Animals and fungi
b)
animals and plants
c)
fungi and plants
d)
animals and bacteria
198.
The 8 levels of classification from broad to specific is
a)
Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
b)
Domain, Species, Kingdom, Genus, Phylum, Family, Class, Order
c)
Order, Class, Family, Phylum, Genus, Kingdom, Species, Domain
d)
Species, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom, Domain
199.
What is the most specific level of classification?
a)
family
b)
domain
c)
species
d)
Carl Linnaeus
200.
Which domain includes all animals and plants?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Eukarya
c)
Archaea
201.
What is the genus name here: Canis lupis
a)
Canis
b)
Canis lupis
c)
lupis
202.
How many species have been described and named?
a)
10 million
b)
10 billion
c)
1.5 billion
d)
1.5 million
203.
Who was the FIRST person to classify organisms into groups?
a)
Aristotle
b)
Charles Darwin
c)
Carl Linneaus
d)
Alfred Wallace
204.
Which two kingdoms belonged to Monera before it was split?
a)
Fungi and Plantae
b)
Eubacteria and Plantae
c)
Fungi and Eubacteria
d)
Eubacteria and Archaebacteria
205.
How many species do scientists believe there are in total on the earth?
a)
10 million
b)
1.9 million
c)
3 million
d)
1.5 million

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