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WorksheetsST CH04
Total questions: 70
Worksheet time: 35mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which physiological response to environmental temperature changes is missing or undeveloped in an infant of less than 6 months of age?
a)
fever
b)
flushing
c)
shivering
d)
shock
e)
Pluto
2.
Diabetes mellitus is a disorder of which body system?
a)
cardiovascular
b)
endocrine
c)
genitourinary
d)
integumentary
3.
In what way can the surgical technologist who is setting up his or her back table and Mayo stand reduce an 18-month-old patient’s anxiety prior to induction of anesthesia?
a)
Wave to and joke with patient, while maintaining distance from unsterile areas.
b)
Break scrub and hold patient down on bed during IV placement.
c)
Leave room when patient enters to reduce number of persons in room, returning after anesthesia induction.
d)
Perform normal duties of preparation of the sterile field, keeping as quiet as possible for induction.
4.
What is the MOST common type of shock seen in infants and children?
a)
cardiogenic
b)
hypervolemic
c)
hypovolemic
d)
septic
5.
An emergency laparotomy would be the indicated treatment for all of the following postoperative bariatric surgery complications EXCEPT:
a)
abdominal catastrophe
b)
gastric perforation
c)
thrombophlebitis
d)
bowel strangulation
6.
What is a common potential side effect of all forms of antibiotic therapy for major pediatric infections?
a)
hypovolemic shock
b)
kernicterus
c)
pseudomembranous enterocolitis
d)
tooth enamel staining and hypoplasia
7.
Overgrowth of which microorganism is most likely responsible for pediatric cases of enterocolitis following antibiotic therapy?
a)
Clostridium difficile
b)
Escherichia coli
c)
Helicobacter pylori
d)
Staphylococcus aureus
8.
What is the number one cause of death in children ages 1 to 15 in the United States?
a)
accidents
b)
carcinoma
c)
genetic malformations
d)
metabolic disorders
9.
A patient undergoing bariatric surgery may require extra time for general anesthetic reversal because anesthetic agents may be accumulated in and slowly eliminated from what type of tissue?
a)
adipose fat
b)
hypertrophic liver
c)
lung alveoli
d)
smooth muscle
10.
What is a coping mechanism often seen in children reacting to trauma?
a)
adaptation
b)
denial
c)
regression
d)
trivializing
11.
Which of the following is a common response of pediatric patients to injury and may result in gastric dilatation?
a)
assuming a fetal position
b)
hyperventilation
c)
projectile vomiting
d)
syncope and collapse
12.
Which organ is responsible for the failure to produce insulin in a patient with type I diabetes?
a)
kidney
b)
liver
c)
pancreas
d)
spleen
13.
Which classification of antibiotics is contraindicated for use in neonates due to increased incidence of kernicterus?
a)
cephalosporins
b)
penicillins
c)
sulfonamides
d)
tetracyclins
14.
Which position enhances a bariatric patient’s total lung volume and aids in ventilation?
a)
lateral chest
b)
low-lithotomy
c)
Trendelenburg
d)
reverse Trendelenburg
15.
Bariatric patients undergoing surgery and in the immediate postoperative period should have sequential compression devices applied to the lower extremities to prevent:
a)
congestive heart failure
b)
deep vein thrombosis
c)
hypovolemic shock
d)
respiratory arrest
16.
What type of physiological measurement method is rarely done in a neonatal patient due to risk of anatomical trauma?
a)
cut-down intra-arterial catheter placement
b)
urethral catheterization for urinary output
c)
esophageal temperature probe placement
d)
pulse oximetry for blood oxygen saturation
17.
What other condition frequently suffered by obese patients and discovered intraoperatively may be treated surgically in conjunction with a bariatric procedure?
a)
cholelithiasis
b)
degenerative osteoarthritis
c)
non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
d)
obstructive sleep apnea
18.
What is the name of the device used to test the blood of patients with diabetes for metabolic status?
a)
acetometer
b)
glucometer
c)
insulometer
d)
ketometer
19.
Which of the following is the major cause of serious trauma suffered by pediatric patients?
a)
bicycle falls
b)
birth injuries
c)
electrical burns
d)
motor vehicle accidents
20.
What is the usual cause of a clavicular fracture of a neonate during a vaginal delivery?
a)
cephalopelvic disproportion
b)
placenta previa
c)
shoulder dystocia
d)
use of surgical forceps
21.
What is the chemical and physiological classification of insulin?
a)
carbohydrate
b)
hormone
c)
protein
d)
sugar
22.
During which part of pregnancy would an abdominal surgery be considered safest for both mother and fetus?
a)
first trimester
b)
second trimester
c)
third trimester
d)
concurrent with delivery
23.
Placement of a rolled sheet or pad to elevate a pregnant patient’s right hip, tilting the operating room table to the left with slight Trendelenburg, or both will shift the weight of the gravid uterus and relieve pressure from the:
a)
abdominal aorta and vena cava
b)
bilateral sciatic nerves
c)
pelvic floor and bladder
d)
ureters and right kidney
24.
Multiple sclerosis, lupus erythematosus, and rheumatoid arthritis are examples of:
a)
autoimmune diseases
b)
congenital anomalies
c)
demyelinating processes
d)
hereditary disorders
25.
Which patient condition might be characterized by physical appearance of flat nasal bridge and short neck with some impairment of cognitive ability and growth, slower speech, and an affectionate to clingy persona?
a)
Alzheimer’s disease
b)
Down syndrome
c)
juvenile diabetes
d)
pituitary dwarfism
26.
For which condition would a patient coming to the operating room likely need an interpreter?
a)
total blindness
b)
complete deafness
c)
Down syndrome
d)
vegetative state
27.
For which type of transmission-based disease would health care workers need to be fitted for an N-95 respirator mask?
a)
airborne
b)
contact
c)
droplet
d)
vector-borne
28.
All of the following national agencies have regulations or protocols for health care workers who may be exposed to infectious diseases in their work environment EXCEPT:
a)
CDC
b)
NIOSH
c)
NFPA
d)
OSHA
29.
For which special patient population group would the help of a counselor or social worker who could communicate the current state of mind or mood of the patient to the OR staff be of benefit to all parties involved?
a)
geriatric
b)
isolation
c)
pediatric
d)
substance abuse
30.
What is the term for the mechanism of injury in a trauma patient that takes into account velocity of the injuring force, flexibility of the tissue, and shape of the injuring force?
a)
advance directive
b)
informatics
c)
kinematics
d)
trauma designation
31.
31. Which level of trauma center designation can meet all the needs required for treating patients on a 24-hour basis?
a)
Level I
b)
Level II
c)
Level III
d)
Level IV
32.
Which of the following activities would present no risk of contracting HIV from an infected individual?
a)
conversation in close proximity
b)
pregnancy and childbirth
c)
sharing used hypodermic needles
d)
unprotected sexual relations
33.
Kaposi’s sarcoma is sometimes seen in combination with which of the following diseases?
a)
TB
b)
HBV
c)
HPV
d)
AIDS
34.
Because of the types of drugs used to prevent rejection of a transplanted organ, the recipient patient is considered to have which of the following?
a)
autoimmune disorder
b)
immunodeficiency syndrome
c)
immunosuppressed status
d)
T-lymphocyte compromise
35.
Which organ is MOST often injured in motor vehicle accidents?
a)
brain
b)
heart
c)
liver
d)
spleen
36.
The term golden hour refers to reduction of morbidity and mortality of which type of patient population?
a)
pregnant patients
b)
trauma victims
c)
premature neonates
d)
organ transplant recipients
37.
Physical forces of deceleration, acceleration, compression, and shearing are factors in which type of injuries?
a)
blunt
b)
electrical
c)
hypothermia
d)
penetrating
38.
High- or low-velocity projectiles are factors in which type of injuries?
a)
blunt
b)
electrical
c)
hypothermia
d)
penetrating
39.
During a surgical procedure on a pregnant patient, the surgical technologist in the scrub role may be asked to palpate what area to detect possible contractions?
a)
carotid artery
b)
gravid uterus
c)
radial artery
d)
xiphoid process
40.
A patient with acquired immunodeficiency virus may have complications of multiple infections from diseases considered to be:
a)
benign
b)
opportunistic
c)
symbiotic
d)
transient
41.
In which pediatric age group would all of the craniofacial sinuses be fully developed?
a)
neonatal
b)
toddler
c)
preschooler
d)
adolescent
42.
Which anesthetic method helps reduce the anxiety and stress experienced by pediatric surgical patients?
a)
awake intubation
b)
Bier block
c)
rapid induction
d)
spinal continuous drip
43.
Morbid obesity refers to patients whose body weight is greater than how many pounds over their ideal weight?
a)
15
b)
50
c)
75
d)
100
44.
Which body system is highly susceptible to injury during positioning of bariatric and geriatric patients?
a)
cardiovascular
b)
digestive
c)
integumentary
d)
respiratory
45.
Vomiting from preoperative narcotics can predispose patients with diabetes to fluid and electrolyte imbalances resulting in:
a)
hypertension
b)
hypotension
c)
hyperglycemia
d)
hypoglycemia
46.
Which of the following is NOT a potential risk from administration of general anesthesia to a pregnant patient?
a)
fetal death
b)
lower birth weight
c)
placenta previa
d)
preterm labor
47.
Which diagnosis could create a social stigma and possible overdramatization of exposure risk by health care workers?
a)
carcinoma of the lung
b)
human immunodeficiency virus
c)
morbid obesity
d)
type II diabetes mellitus
48.
Which special patient populations would likely require diagnostic biopsies for verification of cryptosporidiosis, candidiasis, or cytomegalovirus infections?
a)
HIV/AIDS
b)
diabetic
c)
geriatric
d)
trauma
49.
Conditions such as severe arthritis, contractures, and tremors are categorized under which type of challenge?
a)
cognitive
b)
developmental
c)
physical
d)
sensory
50.
Which broad category of routes of transmission of microorganisms includes food, water, and medical devices and equipment?
a)
airborne
b)
droplet
c)
common vehicle
d)
vector-borne
51.
Approximately 80% of which special patient population presents to surgery with one or more comorbid conditions?
a)
geriatric
b)
pregnant
c)
pediatric
d)
sensory impaired
52.
Which special patient population group has a 30% to 80% statistical likelihood of coexisting psychiatric illness in addition to the diagnosis for which they are coming to surgery?
a)
HIV/AIDS
b)
geriatric
c)
physically challenged
d)
substance abuse
53.
To preserve evidence in a criminal case, what might be done to the patient’s hands if the patient does not require surgery?
a)
A hand sanitizer is rubbed into the skin of the hands.
b)
Bags are placed around the hands and taped in place.
c)
Sterile oversized gloves are placed on both hands.
d)
A surgical scrub brush and water are used to 2 inches above the elbows.
54.
In a surgical procedure on a severely injured trauma patient, which of the following measures is of utmost importance?
a)
performing accurate sponge, sharps, and instrument counts
b)
prepping all traumatic wounds with a pulse lavage device
c)
keeping the patient’s spine in alignment during changes in position
d)
keeping the patient’s body temperature well below 35°C (95°F).
55.
A surgical technologist working in a Veteran’s Administration (VA) facility might frequently encounter patients with which of the following conditions?
a)
COPD
b)
DCIS
c)
IDDM
d)
PTSD
56.
Pediatric patients require an enhanced team focus on the physiological needs in a more dramatic way than any other age group.
a)
true
b)
false
57.
In many cases, for all age populations, pulse oximetry has replaced arterial blood gases (ABGs) as the routine method of monitoring blood oxygenation, due to its low cost, ease, and decreased potential for infection.
a)
true
b)
false
58.
Wound healing in bariatric surgery patients is enhanced due to the increased vascularity of adipose tissue.
a)
true
b)
false
59.
Surgical site infections (SSIs) are the most common postoperative complication in patients with diabetes due to the increased perfusion of affected tissues.
a)
true
b)
false
60.
Patients with developmental delays may suffer cognitive disabilities, but may also exhibit normal intelligence.
a)
true
b)
false
61.
Classification of patients ranging from 13 to 18 years of age
a)
Splenomegaly
b)
Adolescent
c)
Torticollis
d)
Hypovolemic
62.
Method of continuous ECG monitoring via placement of catheter in the subclavian or internal jugular vessels; may require a cut-down
a)
CVP line
b)
Splenomegaly
c)
PTSD
d)
Hypovolemic
e)
Diabetic
63.
Type of shock resulting from gram-negative bacteria leading to UTI, peritonitis, or URI
a)
Adolescent
b)
Glasgow Coma Scale
c)
Torticollis
d)
Septic
e)
Myocardial hypertrophy
64.
Neck contracture due to injury of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
a)
Diabetic retinopathy
b)
Torticollis
c)
PTSD
d)
Splenomegaly
e)
CVP line
65.
Enlargement of the heart muscle in morbidly obese patient, which may lead to congestive heart failure
a)
Septic
b)
Adolescent
c)
Glasgow Coma Scale
d)
Torticollis
e)
Myocardial hypertrophy
66.
Progressive blindness due to compromised vascularity of the eye
a)
Hypovolemic
b)
PTSD
c)
Diabetic retinopathy
d)
Splenomegaly
e)
CVP line
67.
Type of shock in which blood pressure is decreased and pulse rate is increased; patient may show signs of cool and clammy skin
a)
Hypovolemic
b)
Septic
c)
Adolescent
d)
Glasgow Coma Scale
e)
Torticollis
68.
Enlargement of the spleen, which may result in debilitating fevers
a)
Myocardial hypertrophy
b)
Splenomegaly
c)
Torticollis
d)
Diabetic retinopathy
e)
Adolescent
69.
Component of the Revised Trauma Score that assesses a patient’s level of responsiveness to pain or other stimuli
a)
Glasgow Coma Scale
b)
Septic
c)
CVP line
d)
Splenomegaly
e)
PTSD
70.
Diagnosis of long-standing emotional, psychological, and social problems; experienced by war veterans and crime victims; may experience anxiety and flashbacks as a result of their experiences
a)
Hypovolemic
b)
Diabetic retinopathy
c)
Myocardial hypertrophy
d)
PTSD
e)
Torticollis
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