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Security+ (small set)

Total questions: 43

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A Chief Financial Officer (CFO) has been receiving email messages that have suspicious links embedded from unrecognized senders. The emails ask the recipient for identity verification. The IT department has not received reports of this happening to anyone else. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for this behavior?

a)

The CFO is the target of a whaling attack.

b)

The CFO is the target of identity fraud.

c)

The CFO is receiving spam that got past the mail filters.

d)

The CFO is experiencing an impersonation attack.

2.

Joe, an employee, knows he is going to be fired in three days. Which of the following characterizations describes the employee?

a)

An insider threat

b)

A competitor

c)

A hacktivist

d)

A state actor

3.

The IT department receives a call one morning about users being unable to access files on the network shared drives. An IT technician investigates and determines the files became encrypted at 12:00 a.m. While the files are being recovered from backups, one of the IT supervisors realizes the day is the birthday of a technician who was fired two months prior. Which of the following describes what MOST likely occurred?

a)

The fired technician placed a logic bomb.

b)

The fired technician installed a rootkit on all the affected users' computers.

c)

The fired technician installed ransomware on the file server.

d)

The fired technician left a network worm on an old work computer.

4.

An organization has a policy in place that states the person who approves firewall controls/changes cannot be the one implementing the changes. Which of the following describes this policy?

a)

Change management

b)

Job rotation

c)

Separation of duties

d)

Least privilege

5.

Which of the following would be the BEST method to prevent the physical theft of staff laptops at an open-plan bank location with a high volume of customers each day?

a)

Guards at the door

b)

Cable locks

c)

Visitor logs

d)

Cameras

6.

Which of the following disaster recovery sites would require the MOST time to get operations back online?

a)

Colocation

b)

Cold

c)

Hot

d)

Warm

7.

A security manager needed to protect a high-security datacenter, so the manager installed an access control vestibule that can detect an employee's heartbeat, weight, and badge. Which of the following did the security manager implement?

a)

A physical control

b)

A corrective control

c)

A compensating control

d)

A managerial control

8.

Joe, a security analyst, is asked by a co-worker, "What is this AAA thing all about in the security world? Sounds like something I can use for my car." Which of the following terms should Joe discuss in his response to his co-worker? (Select THREE).

a)

Accounting

b)

Accountability

c)

Authorization

d)

Authentication

e)

Access

9.

A system administrator is configuring accounts on a newly established server. Which of the following characteristics BEST differentiates service accounts from other types of accounts?

a)

They can often be restricted in privilege.

b)

They are meant for non-person entities.

c)

They require special permissions to OS files and folders.

d)

They remain disabled in operations.

e)

They do not allow passwords to be set.

10.

Recently, a company has been facing an issue with shoulder surfing. Which of the following safeguards would help with this?

a)

Screen filters

b)

Biometric authentication

c)

Smart cards

d)

Video cameras

11.

The process of presenting a user ID to a validating system is known as:

a)

authorization.

b)

authentication.

c)

identification.

d)

single sign-on.

12.

An input field that is accepting more data than has been allocated for it in memory is an attribute of:

a)

buffer overflow.

b)

memory leak.

c)

cross-site request forgery.

d)

resource exhaustion.

13.

Which of the following if used would BEST reduce the number of successful phishing attacks?

a)

Two-factor authentication

b)

Application layer firewall

c)

Mantraps

d)

User training

14.

Which of the following policies would help an organization identify and mitigate potential single points of failure in the company’s IT/security operations?

a)

Least privilege

b)

Awareness training

c)

Separation of duties

d)

Mandatory vacation

15.

A company processes highly sensitive data and senior management wants to protect the sensitive data by utilizing classification labels. Which of the following access control schemes would be BEST for the company to implement?

a)

Discretionary

b)

Rule-based

c)

Role-based

d)

Mandatory

16.

A manufacturer creates designs for very high security products that are required to be protected and controlled by the government regulations. These designs are not accessible by corporate networks or the Internet. Which of the following is the BEST solution to protect these designs?

a)

An air gap

b)

A Faraday cage

c)

A shielded cable

d)

A demilitarized zone

17.

Which of the following refers to applications and systems that are used within an organization without consent or approval?

a)

Shadow IT

b)

OSINT

c)

Dark web

d)

Insider threats

18.

A Chief Security Officer (CSO) is concerned about the amount of PII that is stored locally on each salesperson’s laptop. The sales department has a higher-than-average rate of the lost equipment. Which of the following recommendations would BEST address the CSO’s concern?

a)

Deploy a Best Mobile Device Management (MDM) solution.

b)

Implement managed Full-disk encryption (FDE).

c)

Replace all hard drives with self-encrypting drives (SED).

d)

Install Data loss prevention (DLP) agents on each laptop.

19.

An employee has been charged with fraud and is suspected of using corporate assets. As authorities collect evidence, and to preserve the admissibility of the evidence, which of the following forensic techniques should be used?

a)

Order of volatility

b)

Data recovery

c)

Chain of custody

d)

Non-repudiation

20.

An organization wants to implement a third factor to an existing multifactor authentication. The organization already uses a smart card and password. Which of the following would meet the organization’s needs for a third factor?

a)

Date of birth

b)

Fingerprints

c)

PIN

d)

trusted platform module (TPM)

21.

An organization is developing a plan in the event of a complete loss of critical systems and data. Which of the following plans is the organization MOST likely to develop?

a)

Incident response

b)

Communications

c)

Disaster recovery

d)

Data retention

22.

A commercial cyber-threat intelligence organization observes Indicators of Compromise (IOCs) across a variety of unrelated customers. Prior to releasing specific threat intelligence to other paid subscribers, the organization is MOST likely obligated by contracts to:

a)

perform attribution to specific APTs and nation-state actors.

b)

anonymize any Personally Identifiable Information (PII) that is observed within the IoC data.

c)

add metadata to track the utilization of threat intelligence reports.

d)

assist companies with impact assessments based on the observed data.

23.

An organization has implemented a policy requiring the use of conductive metal lockboxes for personal electronic devices outside of a secure research lab. Which of the following did the organization determine to be the GREATEST risk to intellectual property when creating this policy?

a)

The theft of portable electronic devices

b)

Geotagging in the metadata of images

c)

Bluesnarfing of mobile devices

d)

Data exfiltration over a mobile hotspot

24.

In which of the following risk management strategies would cybersecurity insurance be used?

a)

Transference

b)

Avoidance

c)

Acceptance

d)

Mitigation

25.

A cybersecurity analyst needs to implement secure authentication to third-party websites without users’ passwords. Which of the following would be the BEST way to achieve this objective?

a)

Open-standard Authorization protocol (OAuth)

b)

Single Sign-On (SSO)

c)

Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)

d)

Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)

26.

The IT department’s on-site developer has been with the team for many years. Each time an application is released, the security team is able to identify multiple vulnerabilities. Which of the following would BEST help the team ensure the application is ready to be released to production?

a)

Limit the use of third-party libraries.

b)

Prevent data exposure queries.

c)

Obfuscate the source code.

d)

Submit the application to QA before releasing it.

27.

In which of the following situations would it be BEST to use a detective control type for mitigation?

a)

A company implemented a network load balancer to ensure 99.999% availability of its web application.

b)

A company designed a backup solution to increase the chances of restoring services in case of a natural disaster.

c)

A company purchased an application-level firewall to isolate traffic between the accounting department and the information technology department.

d)

A company purchased an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) system, but after reviewing the requirements, the appliance was supposed to monitor, not block any traffic.

e)

A company purchased liability insurance for flood protection on all capital assets.

28.

A company provides mobile devices to its users to permit access to email and enterprise applications. The company recently started allowing users to select from several different vendors and device models. When configuring the Mobile Device Management (MDM), which of the following is a key security implication of this heterogeneous device approach?

a)

The most common set of MDM configurations will become an effective set of enterprise mobile security controls.

b)

All devices will need to support SCEP-based enrollment; therefore, the heterogeneity of the chosen architecture may unnecessarily expose private keys to adversaries.

c)

Certain devices are inherently less secure than others, so compensatory controls will be needed to address the delta between device vendors.

d)

MDMs typically will not support heterogeneous deployment environments, so multiple MDMs will need to be installed and configured.

29.

A security analyst receives a SIEM alert that someone logged in to the appadmin test account, which is only used for the early detection of attacks. The security analyst then reviews the following application log:


Which of the following can the security analyst conclude?

a)

A replay attack is being conducted against the application.

b)

An injection attack is being conducted against a user authentication system.

c)

A service account password may have been changed, resulting in continuously failed logins within the application.

d)

A credentialed vulnerability scanner attack is testing several CVEs against the application.

30.

A network administrator has been alerted that web pages are experiencing long load times. After determining it is not a routing or DNS issue, the administrator logs in to the router, runs a command, and receives the following output:


Which of the following is the router experiencing?

a)

DDoS attack

b)

Memory leak

c)

Buffer overflow

d)

Resource exhaustion

31.

A company has drafted an insider-threat policy that prohibits the use of external storage devices. Which of the following would BEST protect the company from data exfiltration via removable media?

a)

Monitoring large data transfer transactions in the firewall logs

b)

Developing mandatory training to educate employees about the removable media policy

c)

Implementing a group policy to block user access to system files

d)

Blocking removable-media devices and write capabilities using a host-based security tool

32.

Which of the following should be put in place when negotiating with a new vendor about the timeliness of the response to a significant security outage or incident?

a)

MOU

b)

MTTR

c)

SLA

d)

NDA

33.

A network administrator has been asked to install an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) to improve the security posture of an organization. Which of the following control types is an IDS?

a)

Corrective

b)

Physical

c)

Detective

d)

Administrative

34.

A cybersecurity manager has scheduled biannual meetings with the IT team and department leaders to discuss how they would respond to hypothetical cyberattacks. During these meetings, the manager presents a scenario and injects additional information throughout the session to replicate what might occur in a dynamic cybersecurity event involving the company, its facilities, its data, and its staff. Which of the following describes what the manager is doing?

a)

Developing an incident response plan

b)

Conducting a tabletop exercise

c)

Building a disaster recovery plan

d)

Running a simulation exercise

35.

Which of the following BEST explains the reason why a server administrator would place a document named password.txt on the desktop of an administrator account on a server?

a)

The document is a honeyfile and is meant to attract the attention of a cyberintruder.

b)

The document is a backup file if the system needs to be recovered.

c)

The document is a standard file that the OS needs to verify the login credentials.

d)

The document is a keylogger that stores all keystrokes should the account be compromised.

36.

A development team employs the practice of bringing all the code changes from multiple team members into the same development project through automation. A tool is utilized to validate the code and track source code through version control. Which of the following BEST describes this process?

a)

Continuous delivery

b)

Continuous integration

c)

Continuous validation

d)

Continuous monitoring

37.

A company is adopting a BYOD policy and is looking for a comprehensive solution to protect company information on user devices. Which of the following solutions would BEST support the policy?

a)

Mobile device management

b)

Full-device encryption

c)

Remote wipe

d)

Biometrics

38.

The Computer Security Incident Response Team (CSIRT) is reviewing the lessons learned from a recent incident. A worm was able to spread unhindered throughout the network and infect a large number of computers and servers. Which of the following recommendations would be BEST to mitigate the impacts of a similar incident in the future?

a)

Install a NIDS device at the boundary.

b)

Segment the network with firewalls.

c)

Update all antivirus signatures daily.

d)

Implement application blacklisting.

39.

A company is implementing MFA for all applications that store sensitive data. The IT manager wants MFA to be non-disruptive and user friendly. Which of the following technologies should the IT manager use when implementing MFA?

a)

One-time passwords

b)

Email tokens

c)

Push notifications

d)

Hardware authentication

40.

A pharmaceutical sales representative logs on to a laptop and connects to the public WiFi to check emails and update reports. Which of the following would be BEST to prevent other devices on the network from directly accessing the laptop? (Choose two.)

a)

Trusted Platform Module (TPM)

b)

A host-based firewall

c)

A Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solution

d)

A VPN

e)

Antivirus software

41.

A company’s bank has reported that multiple corporate credit cards have been stolen over the past several weeks. The bank has provided the names of the affected cardholders to the company’s forensics team to assist in the cyber-incident investigation.

An incident responder learns the following information:

– The timeline of stolen card numbers corresponds closely with affected users making Internet-based purchases from diverse websites via enterprise desktop PCs.

– All purchase connections were encrypted, and the company uses an SSL inspection proxy for the inspection of encrypted traffic of the hardwired network.

– Purchases made with corporate cards over the corporate guest WiFi network, where no SSL inspection occurs, were unaffected.


Which of the following is the MOST likely root cause?

a)

HTTPS sessions are being downgraded to insecure cipher suites

b)

The SSL inspection proxy is feeding events to a compromised SIEM

c)

The adversary has not yet established a presence on the guest WiFi network

d)

The payment providers are insecurely processing credit card charges

42.

An auditor is performing an assessment of a security appliance with an embedded OS that was vulnerable during the last two assessments. Which of the following BEST explains the appliance’s vulnerable state?

a)

The system was configured with weak default security settings.

b)

The vendor has not supplied a patch for the appliance.

c)

The device uses weak encryption ciphers.

d)

The appliance requires administrative credentials for the assessment.

43.

After reading a security bulletin, a network security manager is concerned that a malicious actor may have breached the network using the same software flaw. The exploit code is publicly available and has been reported as being used against other industries in the same vertical. Which of the following should the network security manager consult FIRST to determine a priority list for forensic review?

a)

The vulnerability scan output

b)

The IDS logs

c)

The full packet capture data

d)

The Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) alerts