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1 year final - Patient Care

Total questions: 125

Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

2. Which of the following conditions would be considered “hard to penetrate”?

a)

Emphysema

b)

Osteoporosis

c)

Osteosclerosis

d)

Pneumothorax

2.

3. Which of the following may cause a patient to faint?

1. hunger

2. emotional stress

3. Lack of sleep

a)

1

b)

1 & 2

c)

1 & 3

d)

1, 2, & 3

3.

4.Which of the following should be done when moving a patient with a broken arm?

a)

Support only the elbow

b)

Support only the wrist

c)

Support the entire arm

d)

Support only the forearm

4.

5. A radiographer’s primary responsibility is to which of the following?

a)

The radiologist

b)

The patient’s needs

c)

The hospital

d)

The radiology department

5.

6. The patient in insulin shock who is still conscious requires which of the following?

a)

Something with sugar

b)

Something salty

c)

More insulin

d)

An immediate transfusion

6.

7. What is the proper procedure for turning a disabled patient on an x-ray table?

a)

Turn the patient away from you

b)

Turn the patient’s legs first

c)

Turn the patient toward you

d)

Turn the patient whichever way is easier

7.

8. Medication reconciliation refers to:

a)

Not giving a patient medication if it is not the right one for the exam

b)

Determining whether the medications a patient is taking are the right ones for them

c)

Reviewing the medications a patient is taking and determining if there are any concerns for administering contrast media

d)

None of the above

8.

9. During a myelogram, what position is the patient in when his head is put lower than his feet?

a)

Trendelenburg

b)

Prone

c)

Fowler

d)

Sim’s

9.

11. What is the correct order for administering basic life support?

a)

Circulation, airway, breathing

b)

Airway, circulation, breathing

c)

Breathing, circulation, airway

d)

Airway, breathing, circulation

10.

12. When the body is invaded by pathogens, what is the response in the bloodstream?

a)

Red blood cells increase

b)

White blood cells increase

c)

DNA increases

d)

Serum increases

11.

13. Which of the following elements are currently found in all intravenous solutions of contrast media?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Sulfur

c)

Barium

d)

Iodine

12.

14. If a patient has an allergic reaction to contrast media during an IVU which should be done first?

a)

Apply cold compresses

b)

Inject 5 cc’s of Benadryl

c)

Inject 5 ml’s of Adrenalin

d)

Call for a doctor

13.

16. If CPR is NOT started with in ____ of cardiac arrest, there will be brain damage due to lack of oxygen.

a)

1 – 3 minutes

b)

4 – 6 minutes

c)

7 – 10 minutes

d)

15 minutes

14.

18. What is the type of shock that is caused by a failure of the heart to pump enough blood to the vital organs?

a)

Cardiogenic shock

b)

Septic shock

c)

Anaphylactic shock

d)

Hypovolemic shock

15.

19. What should be your first action if a patient is bleeding profusely from an open leg wound?

a)

Go get a nurse

b)

Apply direct pressure to the wound

c)

Go get a doctor

d)

Finish the radiographs quickly

16.

20. If a patient convulses in the x-ray department, the radiographer should do which of the following?

a)

Insert a padded tongue blade

b)

Restrain the patient

c)

Prevent injury to the patient

d)

Put the patient on the floor

17.

21. Which of the following needles has the smallest lumen?

a)

15 gauge

b)

19 gauge

c)

21 gauge

d)

25 gauge

18.

22. If a patient’s IV site becomes puffy and swollen, what should the radiographer do?

a)

Pull the needle out and restart the IV

b)

Check with a nurse

c)

Clamp off the IV

d)

Do nothing

19.

23. While in the operating room which of the following is NOT considered a sterile area?

a)

The patient

b)

An instrument table

c)

The anesthetist

d)

Scrub nurse

20.

24. An unconscious patient whose skin is dry and has a fruity odor on his/her breath is a classic example of what?

a)

Drunkenness

b)

Insulin shock

c)

Diabetes

d)

Diabetic coma

21.

25. What does it mean to administer drugs parenterally?

1. IV or by injection

2. Orally

3. Rectally

a)

1

b)

2

c)

2 & 3

d)

1, 2, & 3

22.

26. For a patient with IV therapy, how high above the vein should the container of solution be kept?

a)

As high as possible

b)

10 – 12”

c)

18 – 20

d)

28 – 30”

23.

27. Normal serum creatinine levels for an adult range from:

a)

0.2 – 0.4 mg/dl

b)

0.6 – 1.3 mg/dl

c)

2.0 – 3.2 mg/dl

d)

4.0 – 6.3 mg/dl

24.

28. The “threat of touching a person in a harmful manner” is the legal definition of what?

a)

Assault

b)

Battery

c)

Injury

d)

Negligence

25.

29. Which of the following conditions would be considered “easy to penetrate”?

a)

Edema

b)

Degenerative arthritis

c)

Paget’s disease

d)

Pneumonia

26.

31. What type of shock is caused by loss of blood due to a knife or gunshot wound?

a)

Cardiogenic shock

b)

Septic shock

c)

Anaphylactic shock

d)

Hypovolemic shock

27.

33. What stage of grieving is the terminally ill patient in when he/she begins to deal with his/her pain and illness?

a)

Depression stage

b)

Acceptance stage

c)

Anger stage

d)

Bargaining stage

28.

34. While radiographing a patient with chest tube drainage, which of the following actions must be taken?

a)

Clamp drainage tube

b)

Keep drainage tube below chest

c)

Raise drainage system above chest

d)

Turn pump off during the exam

29.

35. What can happen if a diabetic patient has taken his/her normal dose of insulin but has been NPO since midnight?

a)

Go into diabetic coma

b)

Go into insulin shock

c)

Develop difficulty breathing

d)

Dehydrate

30.

37. Normal BUN levels for a young adult range from:

a)

2 – 6 mg/dl

b)

7 – 18 mg/dl

c)

20 – 32 mg/dl

d)

40 – 63 mg/dl

31.

39. “Touching a patient without permission” is the legal definition of what?

a)

Assault

b)

Malpractice

c)

Battery

d)

Perjury

32.

40. When transferring a patient from a wheelchair to the x-ray table which action would you do first?

a)

Lock the wheelchair brakes

b)

Raise footrest out of the way

c)

Put wheelchair parallel to the table

d)

Help patient to stand

33.

42 Where should a patient’s urinary bag be kept while transferring him/her from the stretcher to the

x-ray table?

a)

Resting on the patient’s legs

b)

Below bladder level

c)

At bladder level

d)

Between the stretcher and table

34.

43. What is the first stage of the grieving process?

a)

Bargaining

b)

Acceptance

c)

Denial

d)

Anger

35.

44. Which of the following is NOT a legal right of a patient in the radiology department?

a)

To know the technologist’s name

b)

To refuse the radiographic exam

c)

To be informed of the possible risks

d)

To ask for and receive extra studies

36.

45. What is the first thing you should do if a patient who is standing turns pale and says he feels dizzy?

a)

Quickly make the exposure

b)

Have the patient inhale ammonia

c)

Take the patient’s blood pressure

d)

Have the patient lie down

37.

46. What type of shock can result from a severe reaction to the contrast used in radiographic exams?

a)

Hypovolemic shock

b)

Septic shock

c)

Anaphylactic shock

d)

Cardiogenic shock

38.

47. When is an IV considered to be infiltrated?

a)

When blood is seen in IV tubing

b)

When the needle is accidently pulled out

c)

When solution is leaking into tissue

d)

When the IV is injected into

39.

48. What is the definition of a fomite?

a)

An insect

b)

A method of sterilization

c)

A small animal

d)

An item to which microorganisms cling

40.

50. By what method are pathogens spread when a person coughs or sneezes?

a)

Vector

b)

Vehicle

c)

Direct contact

d)

Droplet

41.

51. What should be done with a plastic cassette cover after it is used to cover a cassette during an isolation patient’s exam?

a)

Take it with you

b)

Leave it on the floor in the isolation room

c)

Discard it in a red, infectious waste, plastic bag

d)

Use it for the next isolation patient

42.

52. The complete removal of all microorganisms from an object is called what?

a)

Antiseptic

b)

Medical asepsis

c)

Sterile technique

d)

Sterilization

43.

53. When a disease is spread by an insect depositing the pathogens on or in a human, it is transmitted by what method?

a)

Vector

b)

Vehicle

c)

Direct contact

d)

Droplet

44.

54. Sterilization in an autoclave involves which of the following?

a)

Chemicals

b)

Steam under pressure

c)

Dry heat

d)

Ionizing radiation

45.

55. While in a sterile gown, the sterile field is considered to end where?

a)

At the level of the shoulders

b)

At the hem of the gown

c)

At the level of your hands

d)

At the waist of the gown

46.

56. How should two people in sterile gowns pass each other?

a)

Front to back

b)

Back to back

c)

Right side to right side

d)

Right side to left side

47.

57. In opening a cloth-wrapped sterile pack, how should the first outer corner be opened?

a)

With sterile gloves

b)

Towards you

c)

Away from you

d)

To the side

48.

58. Which of the following would be appropriate when sterile gown must be worn during fluoroscopy?

a)

Lead apron worn backward

b)

Lead apron can’t be worn

c)

Lead apron worn under gown

d)

Lead apron worn over gown

49.

50. A disease spread through contaminated water or food is being transmitted by which of the following methods?

a)

Vector

b)

Vehicle

c)

Direct contact

d)

Droplet

50.

61. Which of the following is the most effective method for achieving medical asepsis?

a)

Frequent handwashing

b)

Having employees in perfect health

c)

Changing linen after every patient

d)

Cleaning the x-ray table often

51.

62. Medical asepsis is the ______ of microorganisms in the immediate environment.

a)

Complete destruction and removal

b)

Method of encouraging growth

c)

Method of creating new types

d)

Reduction without sterilization

52.

63. What should be done with the portable unit after doing an isolation patient with a respiratory disease?

a)

It must be sterilized

b)

It must be wiped with a disinfectant

c)

It can’t be used for 24 hours

d)

Nothing needs to be done

53.

64. How should used needles be disposed of?

a)

Placed, uncapped, in a sharps container

b)

Placed, recapped, in a sharps container

c)

Placed, recapped, in a red trash bag

d)

Placed, uncapped, in a red trash bag

54.

66. Nitroglycerin is used medically as which of the following?

a)

A vasoconstrictor

b)

An anesthetic

c)

An analgesic

d)

A vasodilator

55.

67. What is the normal range of diastolic pressure for adults?

a)

40 – 80 mm Hg

b)

60 – 90 mm Hg

c)

80 – 120 mm Hg

d)

110 – 140 mm Hg

56.

68. What is a normal respiratory rate for an adult?

a)

8 – 12 respirations per minute

b)

12 – 16 respirations per minute

c)

18 – 24 respirations per minute

d)

25 – 30 respirations per minute

57.

69. What type of drug is penicillin?

a)

Antihistamine

b)

Anticoagulant

c)

Antibiotic

d)

Vasoconstrictor

58.

70. What type of drug is Dilantin?

a)

Anticoagulant

b)

Antiepileptic

c)

Antihistamine

d)

Antiheart failure medication

59.

71. What is the most accurate method for taking a temperature?

a)

Rectal

b)

Oral

c)

Axilla

d)

Forehead

60.

72. Which of the following is the normal range for oral temperatures?

a)

96 – 97 degrees

b)

97 – 98 degrees

c)

98 – 99 degrees

d)

99 – 100 degrees

61.

73. A patient’s temperature taken rectally is usually what?

a)

1 degree higher than orally

b)

1 degree lower than orally

c)

2 degrees higher than orally

d)

2 degrees lower than orally

62.

74. Epinephrine is what type of drug?

a)

Antibiotic

b)

Bronchodilator

c)

Anesthetic

d)

Antiarrhythmic

63.

75. Which of the following drugs is an anticoagulant?

a)

Demerol

b)

Heparin

c)

Benadryl

d)

Penicillin

64.

76. When a shot is given into the upper arm or buttocks, how is it being administered?

a)

IM

b)

IV

c)

Subcutaneous

d)

Intraspinal

65.

77. What is a sphygmomanometer used for?

a)

Delivering oxygen

b)

Administering medication

c)

Restraining a patient

d)

Taking blood pressure

66.

78. Demerol is what type of drug?

a)

Respiratory stimulant

b)

Local anesthetic

c)

Analgesic

d)

Antibiotic

67.

79. Benadryl is associated with the treatment of which of the following?

a)

Vomiting

b)

Allergies

c)

Hypotension

d)

Epilepsy

68.

80. A patient’s blood pressure is 120/78. What does the figure 120 represent?

a)

Systolic pressure

b)

High blood pressure

c)

Diastolic pressure

d)

Pressure of ventricular relaxation

69.

81. In order to see a very quick effect of a drug, how should it be administered?

a)

Intramuscularly

b)

Intravenously

c)

Orally

d)

Subcutaneously

70.

82. Your patient indicates he need nitroglycerin for his angina. How should it be administered?

a)

Rectally

b)

Orally

c)

Intravenously

d)

Sublingually

71.

83. Which of the following refers to a test that records the brain waves?

a)

EEG

b)

EKG

c)

ECG

d)

BWG

72.

84. The abbreviation “BUN” stands for what?

a)

Bad ureteral nick

b)

Bloody urine nephron

c)

Blood urea nitrogen

d)

Brain underlying necrosis

73.

85. What is a body tissue called that dies due to lack of blood supply?

a)

Infarct

b)

Thrombus

c)

Embolism

d)

Hemorrhage

74.

86. Following a myelogram, what is the fluid that is sent to the laboratory called?

a)

CHF

b)

CSF

c)

CNS

d)

BUN

75.

87. What is a tumor call that is NOT cancerous?

a)

Malignant

b)

Primary

c)

Carcinoma

d)

Benign

76.

88. An abnormal connection between two surfaces is known as what?

a)

Diverticulum

b)

Polyp

c)

Fistula

d)

Stricture

77.

89. An “NG” tube passes from where to where?

a)

Mouth to stomach

b)

Nose to greater opening

c)

Mouth to colon

d)

Nose to stomach

78.

90. Where would an “ET” tube be located?

a)

Stomach

b)

Esophagus

c)

Trachea

d)

Intestines

79.

92. What is it called when a surgeon makes a new connection between segments of an organ or a tube?

a)

Deglutition

b)

Emulsification

c)

Anastomosis

d)

Regurgitation

80.

93. A patient who has an unusually large amount of fluid in his body tissue is suffering from which of these?

a)

Cyanosis

b)

Diaphoresis

c)

Edema

d)

Pallor

81.

94. A patient whose skin has a bluish tinge due to a lack of oxygen in his blood is suffering from what condition?

a)

Cyanosis

b)

Diaphoresis

c)

Edema

d)

Pallor

82.

95. Which of the following refers to the gauge of a needle?

a)

Length of needle, hub to tip

b)

Diameter size of needle

c)

Size of opening

d)

Color of the winged – tip

83.

96. When selecting a venipuncture site, it is preferable to select the most ____ site in which the desired size needle can be accommodated.

a)

Medial

b)

Lateral

c)

Proximal

d)

Distal

84.

97. When performing an intravenous injection, when should the tourniquet be removed?

a)

Before the insertion of the nee

b)

After the insertion of the needle, before injection

c)

After the insertion of the needle, after injection

d)

After the needle is removed

85.

98. ______ is the escape of fluid from a vessel into the surrounding tissue.

a)

Intravenous therapy

b)

Extravasation

c)

Embolization

d)

Enterolysis

86.

99. A (an) _____most accurately describes a large amount of pharmaceutical preparation that is injected at one time.

a)

Bolus

b)

Infusion

c)

Injection

d)

Drip

87.

100. How does a negative contrast agent appear on a radiograph?

a)

Less dense than surrounding tissue

b)

More dense than surrounding tissue

c)

The same density as surrounding tissue

d)

More blurred than surrounding tissue

88.

101. A water-soluble iodinated contrast media whose osmolality is high:

a)

Has more particles in solution and results in increased adverse reactions

b)

Has more particles in solution and results in decreased adverse reactions

c)

Has fewer particles in solution and results in increased adverse reactions

d)

Has fewer particles in solution and results in decreased adverse reactions

89.

102. When carting drug information, which of the following is NOT necessary?

a)

Name of drug

b)

Gauge of needle used

c)

Route of administration

d)

Date and time

90.

103. Medication that is administered sublingually is put:

a)

Under the tongue

b)

Under the skin

c)

In the vein

d)

On the skin

91.

104. Which of the following reactions to contrast media does NOT usually require treatment?

a)

Laryngeal edema

b)

Nausea and vomiting

c)

Dyspnea

d)

Bronchospasm

92.

105. The primary disadvantage of oil-based iodinated contrast media is:

a)

Its high cost

b)

The high incidence of adverse reactions

c)

Its limited availability

d)

That it isn’t absorbed in the body

93.

106. The preferable water-soluble iodinated contrast media would be:

a)

Ionic with high osmolality

b)

Nonionic with high osmolality

c)

Ionic with low osmolality

d)

Nonionic with low osmolality

94.

107. Which of the following patient factors is NOT consideration for the administration of contrast ?

a)

Age

b)

Presence of renal disease

c)

Gender

d)

Presence of hypertension

95.

108. Which of the following diseases is the result of insufficient red blood cells or hemoglobin?

a)

Jaundice

b)

Cyanosis

c)

Phlebitis

d)

Anemia

96.

109. Which of the following is the definition for the term “dyspnea”?

a)

Excess of fluid in tissues

b)

Rapid heartbeat

c)

Difficulty breathing

d)

Abnormal blood flow

97.

111. Which of the following is a serious state of shock resulting from an allergic reaction?

a)

Cardiogenic shock

b)

Anaphylactic shock

c)

Insulin shock

d)

Traumatic shock

98.

112. The term “tachycardia” is defined as what?

a)

High blood pressure

b)

Stopping of the heart

c)

Rapid heart rate

d)

Inflammation of the heart

99.

113. Which of the following refers to a person’s heart beating irregularly?

a)

Heart attack

b)

Angina

c)

Arrhythmia

d)

Heart murmur

100.

114. Which of the following is the technical name for high blood pressure?

a)

Phlebitis

b)

Stenosis

c)

Aneurysm

d)

Hypertension

101.

115. The condition where the body of L5 slips forward on top of S1 is known as what?

a)

Annulus fibrous

b)

Slipped disk

c)

Spondylolisthesis

d)

A compression fracture

102.

116. An infection of the bone is referred to as what?

a)

Osteomyelitis

b)

Osteoblast

c)

Osteosclerosis

d)

Osteoporosis

103.

117. What is the condition found in older women that involves the gradual loss of calcium form the bones?

a)

Osteosarcoma

b)

Osteoporosis

c)

Achondroplasia

d)

Osteogenesis

104.

118. What type of fracture to the floor of the orbit will result from a direct blow to the eye?

a)

Colles’ fracture

b)

Trimalleolar fracture

c)

Blow out fracture

d)

Compression fracture

105.

119. What is a fracture at the distal end of the radius called?

a)

Colles’ fracture

b)

Fatigue fracture

c)

March fracture

d)

Jones fracture

106.

121. When a bone is splintered or rushed into many pieces it is what type of fracture?

a)

Compound

b)

Comminuted

c)

Blow out

d)

Impacted

107.

123. Which of the following factures is caused by a diseased bone?

a)

Fatigue

b)

Pathological

c)

Medullary

d)

Disuse atrophy

108.

124. What is another name for a bowel obstruction?

a)

Volvulus

b)

Ileus

c)

Calculus

d)

Diverticulosis

109.

125. Which of the following is the medical term for an inflammation of the gallbladder?

a)

Cholelithiasis

b)

Cholecystitis

c)

Choleangiogram

d)

Cystitis

110.

126. What is the medical term for a twisting or kinking of the bowel?

a)

Ileus

b)

Diverticulosis

c)

Volvulus

d)

Intussusception

111.

127. What is it called when part of the bowel telescopies into the adjacent bowel?

a)

Diverticulitis

b)

Malrotation

c)

Ileoscopy

d)

Intussusception

112.

128. Pyloric stenosis is most often found in which of the following?

a)

Young infants

b)

Children

c)

Young adults

d)

Older adults

113.

129. What is it called when part of the stomach slips through the diaphragm into the thorax?

a)

Esophagitis

b)

Hiatal hernia

c)

Diaphragmatic weakening

d)

Gastric bulge

114.

132. What is another name for a “hairball”?

a)

Ileus

b)

Cholelith

c)

Volvulus

d)

Bezoar

115.

133. What is called when air enters the pleural space?

a)

Pleural effusion

b)

Hemothorax

c)

Pneumothorax

d)

Pneumogram

116.

134. What is it called when part of a patient’s left bronchial tree is blocked causing a partial collapse?

a)

Pneumothorax

b)

Atelectasis

c)

Hemothorax

d)

Pleural effusion

117.

135. Which of the following means surgically opening the trachea to free the air passageway?

a)

Tracheotomy

b)

Pharyngeal incision

c)

Trachectomy

d)

Respiratory removal

118.

136. Which of the following is an infection of the upper respiratory tract?

a)

Atelectasis

b)

Bronchitis

c)

Influenza

d)

Pleurisy

119.

137. Pneumonia is described by which of the following?

a)

An acute inflammation of the lung

b)

Air in the lungs

c)

Lung congestion

d)

Collapsed lung

120.

138. What is a disease of smokers that is characterized by inflation of the lungs with trapped air in the alveoli?

a)

Bronchitis

b)

Emphysema

c)

Hemoptysis

d)

Asthma

121.

139. What is it called when fluid collects in the pleural space?

a)

Pleural effusion

b)

Hemothorax

c)

Pneumothorax

d)

Pneumogram

122.

141. If a patient had a blocked fallopian tube, which of the following radiographic exams may be performed?

a)

Sialogram

b)

Hysterosalpingogram

c)

Cystourethrogram

d)

Fallopioscopy

123.

142. Which of the following is a very serious inflammation of the brain?

a)

Spinalitis

b)

Encephalitis

c)

Hydrocephalus

d)

Meningitis

124.

143. Diabetes mellitus is a condition caused by lack of insulin secretion from which of the following organs?

a)

Stomach

b)

Kidneys

c)

Pituitary gland

d)

Pancreas

125.

145. What is it called when a patient’s ventricles are filled with a large amount of cerebrospinal fluid?

a)

Meningitis

b)

Epilepsy

c)

Spina bifida

d)

Hydrocephalus

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