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Worksheets

SM2 - 77-150

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A fracture in the fifth metacarpal is called ___________________?

a)

Colles fracture

b)

Bunt fracture

c)

Boxer's fracture

d)

Fighters fracture

2.

Inflammation of the tissue connecting muscles to bone is known as what injury?

a)

Throwers elbow

b)

Tendonitis

c)

Tenosynivits

d)

Throwers arm

3.

The passageway from the forearm through the wrist is called?

a)

Radail Tunnel

b)

Pronator Tunnel

c)

Elbow Tunnel

d)

Carpal Tunnel

4.

_________ is a finger deformity that results in the flexors of the finger being ruptured caused by forcefully grabbing onto a jersey

a)

Mallet finger

b)

Boutonniere deformity

c)

Jersey finger

d)

Swan neck deformity

5.

What is the medical term for Golfer's elbow

a)

Lateral epicondylitis

b)

Medial epicondylitis

c)

pronator teres syndrome

d)

cubital tunnel syndrome

6.

Lateral Epicondylitis is associated with which muscles?

a)

Flexors

b)

Extensors

7.

How many bones are in the hand?

a)

30

b)

24

c)

37

d)

27

8.

Is an elbow dislocation a medical emergency

a)

Yes

b)

No

9.

What is the small hard lump above the tendon or in the capsule that encloses a joint

a)

Bursa

b)

Ganglion

c)

Synovial Joint

10.

What is blood underneath the fingernail called?

a)

Boutonneire deformity

b)

Jersey finger

c)

Subungal Hematoma

d)

Gamekeeper's thumb

11.

What bone is the antomical snuffbox?

a)

Capitate

b)

Hamate

c)

Scaphoid

d)

Lunate

12.

Injury to the ____________ nerve causes paresthesias into the fourth and fifth fingers?

a)

Median

b)

Brachial plexus

c)

Ulnar

d)

Radial

13.

When the space between the humeral head and acromion become narrowed is called _______________?

a)

Numbness

b)

Stinger

c)

Impingement

d)

Radiation

14.

What are the three bones that comprise the shoulder joint?

a)

Radius

b)

Humerus

c)

Sternum

d)

Clavicle

e)

Scapula

15.

What is the synovial ball and socket joint of the shoulder called?

a)

Shoulder Joint

b)

Glenohumeral Joint

c)

Olecranon Joint

d)

Carpal Joint

16.

What is the deepest soft tissue/cartilage in the shoulder called?

a)

Tendon

b)

Nose

c)

Meniscus

d)

Labrum

17.

Which is not one of the rotator cuff muscles?

a)

Supraspinatus

b)

Subscapularis

c)

Infraspinatus

d)

Teres Major

e)

Teres Minor

18.

What is a grade 2 sternoclavicular sprain?

a)

Pain/slight disablility

b)

Pain/deformity/point tenderness

c)

Gross deformity/ decreased ROM

19.

What is a grade 3 acromioclavicular sprain?

a)

Point tenderness/pain

b)

Tear of the AC ligament/partial displacement

c)

Rupture of the AC and CC ligament/dislocation of the clavicle

20.

What is the order of throwing mechanics?

a)

Cocking, acceleration, wind-up, deceleration, follow-through

b)

Accelreation, deceleration, follow-through, wind-up, cocking

c)

Wind-up, cocking, acceleration, deceleration, follow-through

d)

Follow-through, deceleration, acceleration, wind-up, cocking

21.

Which of the following joints is not considered a "true joint"?

a)

Acromioclavicular joint

b)

Sternoclavicular joint

c)

Scapulothoracic joint

d)

Glenohumeral joint

22.

What is a bilateral condition?

a)

Injury to the right side of the body

b)

Injury to the left side of the body

c)

Injury to the right and left side of the body

d)

Injury to neither

23.

What is the most common MOI for a shoulder injury?

a)

Overuse

b)

FOOSH

c)

Falling on tip of shoulder

d)

Contact sports

24.

What is the most common direction to dislocate the glenohumeral joint?

a)

Anteriorly

b)

Posteriorly

c)

Inferiorly

d)

Superiorly

25.

Which is not one of the structures compressed with shoulder impingement syndrome?

a)

Subacromial bursa

b)

Long head of the biceps tendon

c)

Supraspinatus tendone

d)

Coracobrachialis tendon

26.

What is "Popeye's sign" indicative of?

a)

Bicipital tenosynovitis

b)

Biceps tendon rupture

c)

Brachial plexus injury

d)

Shoulder impingement

27.

What is also referred to as a burner or stinger?

a)

Shoulder impingement

b)

Subacromial bursitis

c)

Brachial plexus injury

d)

Rotator cuff tear

28.

Which muscle is the primary rotator cuff that provides internal rotation of the shoulder?

a)

Subscapularis

b)

Teres minor

c)

Supraspinatus

d)

Infraspinatus

29.

Which muscle does NOT provide any shoulder movement but depending on the location of fibers provides many movements on the scapula?

a)

Pectoralis minor

b)

Rhomboid major

c)

Rhomboid minor

d)

Trapezius

30.

Which muscles is the "initiator" of shoulder abduction?

a)

Subscapularis

b)

Supraspinatus

c)

Deltoid

d)

Coracobrachialis

31.

Which muscle provides shoulder flexion?

a)

Trapezius

b)

Pectoralis Minor

c)

Pectoralis Major

d)

Latissimus dorsi

32.

What is the motion of the serratus anterior?

a)

Depression of scapula

b)

Elevation of scapula

c)

Retraction of scapula

d)

Protraction of scapula

33.

If an athlete has a torn ACL does that require surgery?

a)

Yes

b)

No

34.

What is patellar tendonitis also referred to as_____?

a)

Jumper's Knee

b)

Biker's Knee

c)

Football Knee

d)

Runner's Knee

35.

What does APEX stand for?

a)

Anterior to Posterior Externally

b)

Anterior to Posterior Everted

c)

Anterior to Posterior Internally

d)

Anterior to Posterior Inverted

36.

What is the largest sesamoid in he body?

a)

Great Toe

b)

Patella

c)

Thumb

d)

Nose

37.

At what age does Osgood-Schlatter's condition affect males?

a)

12-24

b)

2-4

c)

10-14

d)

12-16

38.

the Tibia and Femur make up which joint?

a)

Tibiofemoral

b)

Patellar

c)

Calcaneonavicular

d)

Glenohumeral

39.

Which of the following is not a possible reason to why female athletes have a greater chance of ACL injuries

a)

Environmental Factors

b)

Hormonal Influences

c)

Bone Growth

d)

Biomechanical Factors

40.

Runner's Knee is also referred to as?

a)

Tight It Bank

b)

IT Band Friction Syndrome

c)

Osgood-Schlatter's

d)

Patellar Tendonitis

41.

Which of the following is not mechanism of injury for a torn ACL?

a)

Decelreation

b)

Combination of knee flexion and a valgus force

c)

Rotational force of the tibia on the femur

d)

Direct Blow

42.

A valgus force is defined as ____ and damages what ligament?

a)

Inside force, MCL

b)

Outside force, MCL

c)

Inside force, LCL

d)

Outside force, LCL

43.

At what age does Osgood-Schlatter’s condition affect females?

a)

12-24

b)

2-4

c)

10-14

d)

12-16

44.

What is the return to play timeline for someone after having ACL surgery?

a)

7-13 months

b)

2 weeks

c)

6-12 months

d)

6-12 weeks

45.

Why do meniscal tears take so long to heal?

a)

Great Blood supply

b)

Poor blood supply

c)

Carries blood cells

d)

Creates blood cells

46.

Which of the following is not a part of the quadriceps group?

a)

Rectus Femoris

b)

Vastus Lateralis

c)

Vastus Medialis

d)

Pectoralis

47.

A grade 3 MCL/LCL sprain is described as _________?

a)

Complete ruprure

b)

Mild tenderness/Overstretched

c)

Significant tenderness/Partial Tear

48.

A grade 2 MCL/LCL sprain is described as _________?

a)

Complete ruprure

b)

Mild tenderness/Overstretched

c)

Significant tenderness/Partial Tear

49.

A grade 2 MCL/LCL sprain is described as _________?

a)

Complete ruprure

b)

Mild tenderness/Overstretched

c)

Significant tenderness/Partial Tear

50.

Which of the following is a mechanism of injury for a PCL tear?

a)

Valgus force

b)

Varus Force

c)

Fall on a bent knee (90 deg of flexion)

d)

Acceleration

51.

When a patella dislocates, which direction does it usually dislocate?

a)

Internally

b)

Laterally

c)

Medially

d)

Superiorly

52.

A varus forces is defined as ___________ and damages what ligament?

a)

Inside force, MCL

b)

Outside force, MCL

c)

Inside Force, LCL

d)

Outside force, LCL

53.

If an athlete dislocated their hip what position would you find them in?

a)

Standing

b)

Lying down with hip flexed, internally rotated and abducted

c)

Lying down with hip flexed, internally rotated and adducted

d)

Lying down with hip extended, externally rotated, and knee extended

54.

Femoral Stress Fractures usually occur in what sex?

a)

Females

b)

Transgender

c)

Males

d)

Adolescents

55.

When icing a quadriceps contusion, what position should the leg be in?

a)

Hip extension and knee extension

b)

Hip flexion and knee extension

c)

hip extension and knee flexion

d)

hip flexion and knee flexion

56.

What is an iliac crest contusion also known as and how does it happen?

a)

Hip spike, deceleration

b)

Hip pointer, acceleration

c)

hip pointer, direct blow

d)

hip spike, direct blow

57.

Which of the following is the largest and strongest bone in the body?

a)

Fibula

b)

Femur

c)

Tibia

d)

Humerus

58.

Which of the following ways does not help a pelvis withstand injury?

a)

Strenghen

b)

Endurance

c)

Extensibility

d)

Crumble

59.

Which of the following is not a classic sign of a fractured femur?

a)

Shortened Thigh

b)

Pain

c)

Deformity

d)

Ability to walk

60.

What are the functions/actions of the quadriceps muscles?

a)

Adduction of the hip

b)

Flex hip and Extend Knee

c)

Extend Hip and Flex Knee

d)

Abduction of the hip

61.

What are the functions/actions of the hamstring muscles?

a)

Adduction of the hip

b)

Flex hip and extend knee

c)

Extend hip and flex knee

d)

Abduction of the hip

62.

Myositis Ossificans are buildup and creation of what in the muscle belly?

a)

Fluid

b)

Bone

c)

Muscle

d)

Skin

63.

Which of the following injuries does piriformis syndrome usually mimic?

a)

Sciatica

b)

Bursitis

c)

Brachial Plexus

d)

Nerve

64.

What is the correct terminology for hip bursitis

a)

Lesser trochanteric bursitis

b)

Greater trochanteric bursitis

c)

Prepatellar bursitis

d)

Infrapatellar bursitis

65.

Which of the following injuries usually go hand in hand together. If you probably have one you have the other. Select all that apply

a)

Sciatica

b)

Bursitis

c)

Hip pointer

d)

Strain

66.

Which of the following injuries usually go hand in hand together. If you probably have one you have the other. Select all that apply

a)

Sciatica

b)

Bursitis

c)

Hip pointer

d)

Strain

67.

A grade 2 muscle strain is described as

a)

Soreness/overstretched fibers

b)

Partial tear/severe pain

c)

Complete rupture/Gap

68.

A grade 1 muscle strain is described as

a)

Soreness/overstretched fibers

b)

Partial tear/severe pain

c)

Complete rupture/Gap

69.

A grade 3 muscle strain is described as

a)

Soreness/overstretched fibers

b)

Partial tear/severe pain

c)

Complete rupture/Gap

70.

Piriformis syndrome compresses what nerve?

a)

Femoral

b)

Brachial

c)

Sciatic

d)

Popliteal