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CPL Met Exam Prep

Total questions: 62

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If a flight crew sees volcanic activity, what do they need to advise in their report?

a)

A basic description of the volcanic activity

b)

The location of the Volcanic activity, and any associated weather conditions

c)

Location and vertical extent of the ash cloud

d)

Callsign, position, time, altitude or flight level, location of activity observed, air temperature, spot wind and a brief description of vertical extent of ash cloud

2.

State the latitudes where diurnal variation of pressure is the greatest?

a)

Polar regions

b)

Equatorial regions

c)

Mid latitudes

d)

The same throughout the world

3.

As an aircraft, cruising at the freezing level, crosses out of a cold front – what air will the aircraft be entering, and where will the aircraft now be relative to the freezing level?

a)

Warmer air, above the FZL

b)

Warmer air, below the FZL

c)

Colder air, above the FZL

d)

Colder air, below the FZL

4.

What does VCSH mean?

a)

Showers in the Vicinity

b)

Volcanic Ash

c)

Volcanic Showers

5.

In regards to a STOL (short takeoff and landing) aircraft, why is ice accretion less on the wings than on other surfaces such as propellers and ariels?

a)

Friction provides heating to bring the aircraft’s wing temperature above 0°C

b)

The stagnation point in front of the leading edge of the wing creates an area of high pressure which reduce ice accretion

c)

Aircraft cruise at lower speeds and altitudes

d)

There is a greater surface area for ice to accumulate onto

6.

Under independent Cumulus clouds, what stability will the air have?

a)

Stable

b)

Unstable

c)

Conditionally stable

d)

Inversion

7.

How will Volcanic Ash affect aircraft?

a)

Flameout due to engine overheating

b)

Affects piston and turbine engines the same

c)

Doesn’t affect turbines

d)

Ash causes blockage of airflow in a turbine engine causing flameout

8.

When is the SPCZ most active?

a)

Summer

b)

Winter

c)

When the ITCZ is active

d)

When the ITCZ is inactive

9.

How is RVR measured on the runway?

a)

By the pilot reporting the amount of runway lights visible

b)

At three sensors along the runway (Touchdown zone, mid point, stop end)

c)

By an AWS placed at the aerodrome

10.

Chose the correct statement below

a)

If wind is westerly, A and B are Troughs and C and D are ridges

b)

If wind is southerly, ABCD will be a COL

c)

If wind is easterly, A and B are Troughs and C and D are ridges

d)

If Wind is northerly, ABCD will be a COL

11.

What is the duration of a tropical cyclone Sigmet?

a)

Two hours

b)

Four hours

c)

Six hours

d)

Eight hours

12.

What do Kelvin Helmholtz clouds look like?

a)

Pyramid shaped clouds

b)

Clouds shaped like crashing waves

c)

Rolling waves

d)

Large layer-type stable cloud

13.

Where is the bulk of the atmospheric turbulence found?

a)

Friction Layer

b)

Troposphere

c)

Stratosphere

d)

Mesosphere

14.

When will condensation occur?

a)

When air becomes super-saturated

b)

When air temperature rises above its dew point

c)

When moist air rises

d)

When air temperature cools and reaches its dew point

15.

What do the trade winds aid in?

a)

Heat distribution

b)

Volumetric efficiency

c)

Stability

16.

Calculate the cloud base from convective rising with an

ELR of 4°/1000', dew point = 15°, Sea Level Temp = 20°

a)

stratus type cloud, 1700'

b)

cumulus type cloud, 1700'

c)

stratus type cloud, 3300'

d)

cumulus type cloud, 3300'

17.

What is atmospheric convection?

a)

The rising of air caused by heating between different layers of air

b)

The rising of air through radiation

c)

The rising of air from the hotplate effect

d)

The horizontal movement of air

18.

What temperature lapse rate would be found immediately below the cloud?

a)

DALR: 3°/1000'

b)

SALR: 3°/1000'

c)

DALR: 1.5°/1000'

d)

SALR: 1.5°/1000'

19.

What is the AAW wind speed and direction at 4000'?

a)

305°T 35kt

b)

310°M 35kt

c)

300°T 50kt

d)

305°M 35kt

20.

A Basic weather report is:

a)

A verbal comment describing wind direction and strength, mean sea level air pressure, air temperature, weather conditions and cloud cover

b)

An automatic broadcast of aerodrome and weather information provided specifically for the facilitation of aviation

c)

Is conducted during map preparation, collection of and interpretation of relevant weather

d)

Telecommunication from an ATC unit of significant weather

21.

What stage is it describing when the pressure values are approaching 1000hpa and one quadrant is at gale force winds?

a)

Formative

b)

Immature

c)

Mature

d)

Decaying

22.

What are the conditions that will lead to Nimbostratus/snow on the east coast of NZ?

a)

High pressure system off the west coast of the North Island

b)

Low pressure system off the east coast of the South Island

c)

A Col if it sits over the south island for at least 7 days

d)

High pressure system off the east coast of the South Island

23.

What causes the worst turbulence in regards to mountain waves

a)

High amplitude mountain waves with rotor zones

b)

Low amplitude mountain waves with rotor zones

c)

High amplitude mountain waves without rotor zones

d)

Low amplitude mountain waves without rotor zones

24.

What are the conditions on the lee side of a mountain for a Fohn wind?

a)

Warm, dry, gusty

b)

Warm, stratiform cloud, gusty

c)

Cold, drizzle, strong low level winds

d)

Cold, showers, mid level winds

25.

In a warm column of air a barometer reads 890hPa, if you hold the same vertical height in a cold column of air what will the pressure be?

a)

Higher

b)

Lower

c)

No change

d)

Higher initially then lower

26.

Given that K (Kelvin) is used for many meteorological calculations, covert 25°C to K

a)

-248 K

b)

298 K

c)

248 K

d)

-298 K

27.

A Vietnam Airlines A350 aircraft on approach to land into Christchurch is descending into the friction layer. During the Descent, the pilot may notice that the wind will

a)

Veer and Increase

b)

Veer and Decrease

c)

Back and Increase

d)

Back and Decrease

28.

Altocumulus standing lenticular clouds form

a)

Windward side below mountain

b)

Windward side above mountain

c)

Lee side below mountain

d)

Lee side above mountain

29.

What does BKN018/// mean on a METAR AUTO?

a)

Broken 1800ft cloud detected unable to determine TCU/CB

b)

Broken 1800ft weather not detected due sensor temporarily inoperative

c)

Broken 1800ft visibilty not reported due faulty sensor

d)

Broken 1800ft cloud not reported due faulty sensor

30.

Polar air moving toward the equator is

a)

Stable cumuliform

b)

Stable stratiform

c)

Unstable cumuliform

d)

Unstable stratiform

31.

As latitude increases coriolis force

a)

Stays the same

b)

Increases

c)

Decreases

d)

Increases then starts to reduce towards the poles

32.

What does SIGMET 8 mean on this picture?

a)

8th SIGMET issused since 0000UTC

b)

8th SIGMET issused since 0000NZST

c)

8th SIGMET issused since the 1st of the month

d)

8th SIGMET issused since Monday

33.

South pacific convergence zone winds are from the

a)

SE and NE

b)

SW and NE

c)

SE and NW

d)

SW and NW

34.

What do the three solid black lines east of Australia represent?

a)

Ridge

b)

Trough

c)

Cold front

d)

Isobar

35.

What height do the trade winds stop?

a)

5,000 ft

b)

8,000 ft

c)

12,000 ft

d)

15,000 ft

36.

Explain the Bergeron process

a)

Ice particles growing by deposition at the expense of water droplets

b)

Water vapour changing to ice and then melting as it falls

c)

Water droplets colliding and growing at the expense of ice crystals

d)

Ice particles splitting apart and multiplying to form a large amount of ice nuclei to deposit onto

37.

What cloud is associated with asperitas cloud?

a)

Altostratus and stratocumulus

b)

Cirrus

c)

Nimbostratus and low level cloud

d)

Stratus and wave type cloud

38.

You are flying through cloud and see that the outside air temperature is -10°C. What type of icing are you likely to encounter?

a)

Clear

b)

Rime

c)

Impact

d)

Carburetor

39.

Where would a weather system need to be in order to get blowing snow at NZCH airport?

a)

Anticyclone off the east coast of NZ covering eastern part of Canterbury area. This will have blowing snow and contaminated runway

b)

Cyclone off the east coast of NZ covering eastern part of Canterbury area. This will have blowing snow and contaminated runway

c)

Cyclone off the west coast of NZ covering eastern part of Canterbury area. This will have blowing snow however the runway will not be contaminated

d)

Anticyclone off the west coast of NZ covering western part of Canterbury area. This will have blowing snow however the runway will not be contaminated

40.

Supercooled water droplets are ____ and can occur in temperatures as cold as ____ if un disturbed

a)

stable, -15º

b)

stable, - 40º

c)

unstable, -15º

d)

unstable, - 40º

41.

Where does the negative charge sit in a thunderstorm?

a)

Freezing level/Mid cloud

b)

On the sides of the cloud

c)

Underneath the cloud base

d)

At the top of the cloud

42.

The trade winds are found _______ and go to a height of ____ft

a)

between 30ºN and 30ºS, 8000

b)

along the equator, 8000

c)

between 30ºN and 30ºS, 5000

d)

along the equator, 5000

43.

What is the height of the troposphere over the equator? 

a)

25000ft

b)

36000ft

c)

45000ft

d)

60000ft

44.

What happens to the pressure immediately behind a warm front?

a)

increases

b)

arrest or at fall

c)

decreases

d)

no change from ahead if the front

45.

What happens to the pressure and temperature as a warm front passes?

a)

Pressure will be arrest or at fall and temperature will increase

b)

Pressure will be arrest or falling and temperature will have little change from ahead of the front

c)

Pressure will be decrease and temperature will increase

d)

Pressure will be increase and temperature will decrease

46.

What happens to the wind after a warm front passes?

a)

Veer and slight increase in strength

b)

Backs

c)

Fairly steady in direction and speed

d)

Initially backs and then veers

47.

Where would you find the greatest wind strength in a tropical cyclone?

a)

In the cyclone eye

b)

Around the outside of the eye in the eye wall

c)

In the upper levels of the storm

d)

On the sides of the storm

48.

In regards to avoiding wind-shear which statement is not true?

a)

Fly on the windward side of the mountain

b)

Stop and wait until the wind-shear has passed

c)

Increase speed to get through the wind-shear faster

d)

Get above the wind-shear

49.

In a basic thunderstorm during what stage is lightning most likely to occur and how much of the lightning stays in the cloud and how much strikes the ground?

a)

Mature stage, 20% stays in the cloud and 80% strikes the surface

b)

Mature stage, 80% stays in the cloud and 20% strikes the surface

c)

Growing stage, 65% stays in the cloud and 35% strikes the surface

d)

Growing stage, 35% stays in the cloud and 65% strikes the surface

50.

What four components makeup wind?

a)

Pressure gradient force

b)

Coriolis force

c)

Centripetal force

d)

Friction force

e)

Centrifugal force

51.

What is QNH?

a)

Taken from a station and reduced to MSL using assumed figures and gives height above MSL

b)

Taken from MSL and gives height above MSL using assumed figures

c)

Taken from a station and reduced to MSL using real time figures and gives height above aerodrome

d)

Taken from MSL and gives height above MSL using real time figures

52.

The geostrophic wind in the Southern Hemisphere:

a)

Blows parallel to curved isobars

b)

Blows parallel to straight isobars

c)

Blows at right angles to curved isobars

d)

Blows at right angles to straight isobars

53.

What is the super-adiabatic lapse rate?

a)

When the ELR is in between the SALR and DALR

b)

When the ELR is less than the SALR

c)

When the ELR is greater than the DALR

d)

When the ELR is more than the SALR but less than the DALR

54.

How does a nimbostratus cloud form?

a)

Mechanical rising

b)

At a warm front

c)

High moisture content of air, with ascent of warm air over a small area

d)

Large scale surface divergence

55.

What is a flight level?

a)

Altitude above sea-level in hundreds of feet, measured according to a standard atmosphere

b)

Altitude above sea-level in thousands of feet, measured according to a standard atmosphere

c)

Altitude above sea-level in hundreds of feet, measured according to the current atmosphere

d)

Altitude above sea-level in thousands of feet, measured according to the current atmosphere

56.

What does having a steeper pressure gradient mean?

a)

larger change over a horizontal distance

b)

larger change over a vertical distance

c)

smaller change over a horizontal distance

d)

smaller chance over a vertical distance 

57.

The tropopause at mid latitudes is _____ and _____ than at the poles?

a)

higher and colder

b)

higher and warmer

c)

lower and colder

d)

lower and warmer

58.

What is measured when 3 sensors are placed down a runway?

a)

Cloud base

b)

RVR

c)

Wind strength

d)

VV

59.

What weather is caused by light precipitation and low level stratus?

a)

fog and mist

b)

light drizzle

c)

haze

d)

virga

60.

What will give you the strongest Coriolis force?

a)

Increase in wind speed at the poles

b)

Increase in wind speed at the equator

c)

Decrease in wind speed at the poles

d)

Decrease in wind speed at the equator

61.

Coalescence is:

a)

when small droplets fall they collide with others and fall together

b)

when small droplets coalescence with others due to turbulence to make bigger rain drops

c)

when coal aerosols are released into the air inducing the onset of precipitation early

d)

when the windscreen has black bolts of light dance across it, caused by volcanic ash

62.

When there is a strong wind on the windward side and a suction on the lee of the mountain, what is this?

a)

mountain waves

b)

rotor streaming

c)

rotor zones

d)

fohn wind