wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Fun for Macroeconomics

Total questions: 54

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

All​ ​of​ ​these​ ​are​ ​functions​ ​of​ ​money​ ​​EXCEPT

a)

Medium of exchange

b)

Store of value

c)

Commodity money

d)

unit of measurement

2.
Money loses its value when it
a)
It becomes too plentiful
b)
becomes too portabale
c)
is divisible
d)
is durable
3.
Inflation is measured by...
a)
Consumer Price Index (CPI).
b)
Gross National Product (GNP).
c)
Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
d)
Securities & Exchange Commission (SEC).
4.

It is the measure of a country's total production of final goods and services in a given period of time.

a)

Gross National Product

b)

Gross Domestic Product

c)

Exports

d)

Imports

5.

What do you call an economic policy that is designed to influence the aggregate demand in order to control the economy?

a)

Spending policy

b)

National policy

c)

Fiscal policy

d)

Monetary policy

6.

It is the continuing increase of the general price level in the market.

a)

Inflation

b)

Deflation

c)

Stagflation

d)

Recession

7.

It shows the cycle of goods and services in an economy.

a)

Circular flow of goods

b)

Circular flow of money

c)

Circular flow of the economy

d)

Circular flow of resources

8.

This happens when there is an increase in the production of goods and services.

a)

Economic Development

b)

Economic Progress

c)

Economic Growth

d)

Economic efficiency

9.

It is the measure of national output that adjusts GNP to account for price changes.

a)

nominal GNP

b)

potential GNP

c)

real GNP

d)

actual GNP

10.

What would be the effect on the demand for money curve (L) of a rise in the bond prices?

a)

L would shift to the left

b)

There would not be an effect

c)

L would shift to the right

d)

There would be a movement down along L

11.

The process by which banks increase the money supply is known as money creation. The amount by which the money supply can increase depends on their liquidity ratio. If the bank decides to hold a lower liquidity ratiom the bank multiplier will ____________________.

a)

increase

b)

reduce

c)

stay the same

12.

Consumption of domestically produced goods and services plus injections (Cd + J) is known as:

a)

aggregate supply

b)

aggregate income

c)

national expenditure

d)

total consumption

13.

The crucial difference between the Keynesian and classical theories of money demand is that

a)

Keynes believed that money demand fluctuates with the return on other assets while the classical economists did not.

b)

Keynes took account of the transactions motive for money demand while the classical economists did not.

c)

Keynes assumed that velocity was constant while the classical economists did not.

d)

the classical economists considered income as a systematic influence on money demand and Keynes did not.

14.

According to Tobin's theory of the asset demand for money, an increase in uncertainty concerning bond prices would be expected to cause the demand for

a)

money to fall and the demand for bonds to rise.

b)

bonds to fall and the demand for money to rise.

c)

both money and bonds to rise.

d)

both money and bonds to fall.

15.

The Keynesian money demand function expressed money demand as a function of (the)

a)

income only.

b)

income and nominal return on durable goods

c)

nominal return on durable goods and equities.

d)

income and the interest rate.

e)

nominal return on equities and the interest rate.

16.

Purchases and sales of government securities by the Federal Reserve are called

a)

discount loans.

b)

federal fund transfers.

c)

swap transactions.

d)

open market operations

17.

When banks borrow money from the Federal Reserve, these funds are called

a)

discount loans.

b)

federal funds.

c)

federal loans.

d)

Treasury funds.

18.

If the required reserve ratio is 25 percent, the simple deposit multiplier is

a)

5.0

b)

2.5

c)

4.0

d)

8.0

19.

Everything else held constant, a decrease in holdings of excess reserves will mean

a)

a decrease in the money supply.

b)

an increase in the money supply.

c)

a decrease in checkable deposits.

d)

an increase in discount loans.

20.

Everything else held constant, an increase in the required reserve ratio on checkable deposits causes the M1 money multiplier to ________ and the money supply to ________.

a)

decrease; increase

b)

increase; increase

c)

decrease; decrease

d)

increase; decrease

21.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Contractionary monetary policy would increase government revenue & slow down the economy.

b)

Contractionary fiscal policy would decrease the reserve requirement & slow down the economy.

c)

Contractionary fiscal policy would lead to a decrease in national debt.

d)

Contractionary monetary policy leads to a budget deficit.

22.

Which fiscal policy tool would be used if the economy were in a trough?

a)

decrease reserve requirement

b)

increase individual tax rate

c)

sell bonds through open market operations

d)

increase government spending

23.

Which of the following are fiscal policy tools (select more than one)?

a)

adjusting the reserve requirement

b)

adjusting the discount rate

c)

changing government spending

d)

changing income taxes

e)

buying/selling bonds via open market operations

24.

Which monetary policy tool would speed up the economy?

a)

increasing reserve requirement

b)

decreasing income taxes

c)

increasing government spending

d)

decreasing interest paid on reserves

25.

Choose the tools that the government would use to increase economic activity. (SELECT MORE THAN ONE.)

a)

increase taxes

b)

decrease taxes

c)

increase spending

d)

decrease spending

e)

decrease discount rate

26.

If the government is concerned about unemployment, which tool would they use?

a)

increase spending

b)

increase taxes

c)

increase reserve requirement

d)

increase discount rate

27.
To focus on producing one thing to improve productivity is known as:
a)
Specialization
b)
International trade
c)
Absolute Advantage
d)
Supply and Demand
28.
When determining comparative advantage one must determine 
a)
Opportunity cost
b)
Specialization
c)
Absolute Advantage
d)
Embargos 
29.
A trade agreement between 27 countries of with the same currency and open trade between those nations.
a)
NAFTA
b)
EU
c)
WTO
d)
ABC
30.
If I am better at all types of production, I have the ______ in all forms of production.
a)
Comparative advantage
b)
Specialization
c)
Absolute advantage
d)
developed nation
31.
This trade barrier limits the number of products that can be brought into a country.
a)
Tariff
b)
Quota
c)
Embargo
d)
Subsidy
32.
This is a tax on imports that is used to increase price of foreign products and raise government revenue. 
a)
tariff
b)
quota
c)
subsidy
d)
embargo
33.
This is the most restrictive of the trade restrictions a nation can use to close off all importation of a product.
a)
tariff
b)
quota
c)
subsidy
d)
embargo
34.
Tariffs and Quotas can benefit nations imposing them by...
a)
Raising revenue
b)
increasing variety of goods
c)
lowering prices
d)
increasing consumption 
35.
Developed nations have all of the following except
a)
better education
b)
high levels of technology
c)
better health
d)
higher populations
36.
Underdeveloped nations tend to trade what type of goods
a)
Low skill products
b)
High tech goods
c)
finished products
d)
High skill products
37.
What causes cost push inflation
a)
An increase in demand for goods and services
b)
An increase in supply
c)
A rise in production costs passed on to consumers
d)
A fall in the price of imports
38.

Who among the following would be considered as unemployed?

a)

A college student of legal age to work but who is still in school full time.

b)

An entrepreneur in the process of starting a new business.

c)

A secretary who was laid-off from work & is looking at job ads

d)

A housewife taking care of three children.

39.

_______ occurs when people are in between jobs, entering and reentering the labour force.

a)

Cyclical unemployment

b)

Technological unemployment

c)

Frictional unemployment

d)

Seasonal unemployment

40.
When the economy is experiencing an unemployment rate between 3-5%, an economist would say the economy is
a)
at full employment
b)
on the cusp of a recession
c)
entering into inflation
d)
at an unnatural rate
41.

In which type of unemployment workers find it hard to obtain new jobs without retraining, gaining additional education, or relocating??

a)

cyclical

b)

frictional

c)

structural

d)

all of them

42.

4. The national income is

a)

a. NNP at factor cost

b)

b. NNP at market price

c)

c. GNP at market price

d)

d. GNP at factor cost

43.

5.The value of the output of all goods and services produced within a country in a year.

a)

total output

b)

Gross Domestic Product

c)

national income

d)

net domestic product

44.

7.When a nation's imports exceed its exports and is calculated as imports -exports

a)

inventory

b)

gross domestic product

c)

trade surplus

d)

trade deficit

45.

In a circular flow of income in a closed economy with government intervention, leakage consists of _________________.

a)

Investment and savings

b)

Savings only

c)

Savings and taxes

d)

Savings, taxes and imports

46.

Net national product does not include_______________.

a)

Interest on consumer loans

b)

Undistributed corporate profit

c)

Taxes on corporate profits

d)

Depreciation

47.

measuring the sum total of all factor payments will be called,

a)

product method

b)

expenditure method

c)

output method

d)

income method

48.

NDP at factor cost =

a)

Net domestic product at market price - indirect tax

b)

Net Domestic Product at market price+ Subsidies

c)

Net Domestic Product at market price at market price -Net indirect tax

d)

Net Domestic product at market price + Depreciation

49.

GDP at FC =

a)

GDP at MP – Net indirect taxes

b)

GDP at MP + Net indirect taxes

c)

GDP at MP + Subsidies

d)

GDP at MP – Indirect taxes

50.

Accounting of National Income at constant prices is known as ________

a)

Money income

b)

Real income

c)

Current income

d)

Domestic income

51.

Christy's Haircuts, the sole supplier of haircuts in a small town, faces the demand schedule shown in the table above. What is Christy's marginal revenue from the 25th haircut?

a)

zero

b)

$5

c)

$7

d)

$5.50

52.

For the unregulated, single-price monopoly shown in the figure above, when its profit is maximized, output will be

a)

4 units per year and the price will be $6.

b)

4 units per year and the price will be $4.

c)

6 units per year and the price will be $4.

d)

None of the above answers is correct.

53.

In the above figure, what price will a single-price monopoly set?

a)

P1

b)

P2

c)

P3

d)

P4

e)

P5

54.

For the unregulated, single-price monopoly shown in the figure above, when its profit is maximized, output will be

a)

4 units per year and the price will be $6.

b)

4 units per year and the price will be $4.

c)

6 units per year and the price will be $4.

d)

None of the above answers is correct.