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Medical Micro 8: HIV, Immunocompromised, etc.

Total questions: 48

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

HIV

a)

member of retroviridae

b)

member of herpesviridae

2.

HIV

a)

1 copy of single-stranded RNA

b)

2 copies of single-stranded RNA

c)

1 copy of single-stranded DNA

d)

2 copies of single-stranded DNA

3.

Reverse transcriptase is an unusual enzyme capable of making a DNA copy with an RNA template.

a)

True - not seen in HIV structure

b)

True - seen in HIV structure

c)

False

4.

In the replication cycle of HIV, CD4 is a

a)

receptor

b)

co-receptor

5.

In the replication cycle of HIV, CCR5 is a

a)

receptor

b)

co-receptor

6.

Most RNA viruses don't integrate into the DNA, but HIV does.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

HIV is integrated into the genome, which is a

a)

advanced virus

b)

genetic virus

c)

pro virus

d)

DNA virus

8.

may be asymptomatic, flu-like symptoms, within a month or two of exposure, seroconversion occurs:

a)

Stage I: Primary HIV infection

b)

Stage II: Asymptomatic stage

c)

Stage III: AIDS

9.

HIV viral load rises as CDT4 cells decline

a)

Stage I: Primary HIV infection

b)

Stage II: Asymptomatic stage

c)

Stage III: AIDS

10.

Steep rise in viral load and CD4 < 200 cells/mm3

a)

Stage I: Primary HIV infection

b)

Stage II: Asymptomatic stage

c)

Stage III: AIDS

11.

death from opportunistic pathogens

a)

Stage I: Primary HIV infection

b)

Stage II: Asymptomatic stage

c)

Stage III: AIDS

12.

HIV transmission

a)

blood contaminated needles

b)

unprotected sexual contact

c)

from mother to fetus

d)

breast milk

e)

food

13.

HIV diagnoses test for pateint's anti-HIV antibodies (looking for antibodies):

a)

ELISA type antibody screening

b)

Western blot

c)

PT-PCR

14.

HIV diagnoses test to detect virus RNA in blood

a)

ELISA type antibody screening

b)

Western blot

c)

PT-PCR

15.

HIV diagnoses test to test for viral proteins in blood

a)

ELISA type antibody screening

b)

Western blot

c)

PT-PCR

16.

Individuals infected with HIV for many years, who, without antiviral therapy, maintain CD4 count > 500, and low viral loads. (can still get AIDS if left untreated)

a)

Long-term non-progessors

b)

Elite controllers

17.

Even lower viral loads. HLA allele allows CD8 T cells to efficiently recognize HIV infected cells. Immune response to gag is unusually strong.

a)

Long-term non-progessors

b)

Elite controllers

18.

Stem cell transplant using CCR5 homozygous mutant has achieved "cure" of HIV in 2 patients:

a)

CD4 (receptor)

b)

CCR5 (co-receptor)

19.

Endemic mycoses (fungal lung infections)

a)

Coccidiodomycosis

b)

Histoplasmosis

c)

Blastomycosis

d)

Trichomoniasis

20.

valley fever (occurring mostly in southwest US, mexico, and central/south america), spores are released and inhaled through lungs, no human to human transmission, dry cough:

a)

Coccidioidomycosis

b)

Histoplasmosis

c)

Aspergillus

d)

Cryptococcosis

21.

Ohio river valley/mississippi river valley, commonly in bat guano and often asymptomatic, but some can develop into severe pulmonary and/or systemic infections:

a)

Coccidioidomycosis

b)

Histoplasmosis

c)

Aspergillus

d)

Cryptococcosis

22.

Causes opportunistic mycoses, bad for immunocompromised, very common both indoors and outdoors, clinical presentation includes brown mucus and coughing up blood, poor prognosis:

a)

Coccidioidomycosis

b)

Histoplasmosis

c)

Aspergillus

d)

Cryptococcosis

23.

causes opportunistic mycoses, typically found on soil, decaying wood, in tree hollows or in bird droppings, usually affects the lungs or CNS, and positive culture stain show halo around cell:

a)

Coccidioidomycosis

b)

Histoplasmosis

c)

Aspergillus

d)

Cryptococcosis

24.

involves destruction of all living microbes, spores, and viruses

a)

Sterilization

b)

Sanitization

25.

reduces the numbers of pathogens or discourages their growth

a)

Sterilization

b)

Sanitization

26.

_____ objects become contaminated when exposed to air and surrondings

a)

Sterile

b)

Sanitized

27.

most dependable method of steralization

a)

heat

b)

autoclave

c)

pasteurization

d)

filtration

e)

radiation

28.

Destroys Myobacterium tuberculosis

a)

heat

b)

autoclave

c)

pasteurization

d)

filtration

e)

radiation

29.

pressurized steam is used to sterilize a variety of objects

a)

heat

b)

autoclave

c)

pasteurization

d)

filtration

e)

radiation

30.

uses moist heat to reduce bacterial populations in liquid

a)

heat

b)

autoclave

c)

pasteurization

d)

filtration

e)

radiation

31.

heating at 63°C for 30mins

a)

Holding (or batch method)

b)

Flash pasteurization

c)

Ultra high temperature method (UHT)

32.

heating at 71.6°C for 15secs

a)

Holding (or batch method)

b)

Flash pasteurization

c)

Ultra high temperature method (UHT)

33.

heating at 140°C for 3secs (only method capable of sterilizing liquid if it is performed under aseptic conditions)

a)

Holding (or batch method)

b)

Flash pasteurization

c)

Ultra high temperature method (UHT)

34.

Transmitted via airborne droplets (person to person) and is a life threatening infection for immunocompromised

a)

Coccidioidomycosis

b)

Histoplasmosis

c)

Aspergillus

d)

Cryptococcosis

e)

Pneumocystis pneumonia

35.

mechanical method used to remove microorganisms suspended in liquids or gases

a)

UV light

b)

autoclave

c)

pasteurization

d)

filtration

e)

radiation

36.

causes thymine molecules to link together --> DISRUPTS DNA REPLICATION

a)

UV light

b)

autoclave

c)

ionizing radiation

d)

radiation

37.

x rays and gamma rays force electrons out of microbial molecules

a)

UV light

b)

autoclave

c)

ionizing radiation

d)

radiation

38.

used to control microbes in food, FDA approved

a)

UV

b)

autoclave

c)

ionizing radiation

d)

radiation

39.

important in choosing an antiseptic/disinfectant agent:

a)

temperature

b)

pH

c)

concentration of active agent

d)

time (duration of disinfection)

40.

process of eliminating or reducing pathogens

a)

disinfection

b)

sanitizing

c)

degerming

41.

reducing microbial population to a safe level

a)

disinfection

b)

sanitizing

c)

degerming

42.

removing organisms from an object's surface

a)

disinfection

b)

sanitizing

c)

degerming

43.

used to destroy pathogens on living tissue

a)

antiseptics

b)

disinfectants

44.

are for non-living surfaces

a)

antiseptics

b)

disinfectants

45.

cause cross-linking that inactivates proteins and nucleic acids (ex: medical and dental equipment)

a)

aldehyde

b)

ethylene oxide gas

c)

chlorine dioxide gas

46.

is effective microbicidal and sporicidal, but it is carcinogenic and explosive (v good for medical equipment bc kill spores)

a)

aldehyde

b)

ethylene oxide gas

c)

chlorine dioxide gas

47.

non-toxic and non-carcinogenic agent (ex: was used to decontaminate anthrax exposed mail in 2001)

a)

aldehyde

b)

ethylene oxide gas

c)

chlorine dioxide gas

48.

remove microbes by emulsifying and solubilizing particles on the skin

a)

soaps

b)

detergents