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MEDICAL ENGLISH 2 phần 1

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 2hrs 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which body part contains more fibrous tissue?

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Smooth muscle

c)

Cardiac muscle

d)

Joint.

e)

Tendon

2.

What is most likely NOT the function of the cardiovascular system?

a)

Pump blood into the artery

b)

Provide organs with oxygenated blood

c)

Clean up the waste.

d)

Carry CO2 from tissues to the lung

e)

Produce red blood cells

3.

Which part of cardiovascular system is responsible for gas exchange between blood and tissue?

a)

Vein.

b)

Artery

c)

Heart

d)

Arteriole

e)

Capillary

4.

Why do veins need the one way valve?

a)

To prevent high blood pressure in the diastole

b)

To facilitate muscle while moving

c)

To support the movement of blood from inferior vena cava to capillary

d)

To stop the back flow of the blood in the veins.

e)

To increase blood pressure

5.

Which part of cardiovascular system most likely contain deoxygenated blood?

a)

Aorta

b)

Capillaries

c)

Veins

d)

Pulmonary veins

e)

Umbilical veins

6.

Which heart chamber is located furthemost in the behind?

a)

Right atrium

b)

Right ventricle

c)

Left atrium.

d)

Left ventricle

7.

What is the function of papillary muscle and Chordae tendineae?

a)

Prevent blood backflow from atria to ventricles

b)

Facilitate blood flow from IVC and SVC to the right atrium.

c)

Prevent blood backflow from aorta to right ventricle

d)

Increase the power of the cardiac muscle

e)

Prevent A – V valves from prolapse

8.

What heart electrical conduction component fires most frequently?

a)

Purkinje fibers

b)

AV bundle

c)

AV node

d)

SA node

9.

What ECG wave represents the work of the atria?

a)

T wave

b)

QRS complex.

c)

P wave

d)

S wave

e)

R wave.

10.

What EKG wave represents ventricular depolarization?

a)

T wave

b)

QRS complex

c)

P wave

d)

S wave

e)

P wave

11.

What is the meaning of cancellous?

a)

Oncotic

b)

Cancer

c)

Appendage

d)

Porous

e)

Calculus

12.

What is the name for the action of elevating the foot?

a)

Abduction

b)

Dorsiflexion

c)

Extension

d)

Inversion

e)

Pronation

13.

What is the name for the action of turning the palm up?

a)

Abduction

b)

Extension

c)

Pronation

d)

Supination

e)

Rotation

14.

What is the name for the action of moving the hand closer to the body midline?

a)

Abduction

b)

Extension

c)

Pronation

d)

Supination

e)

Rotation

15.

What bone belongs to appendicular skeleton?

a)

Ribs

b)

Vertebrae

c)

Tibia

d)

Sternum

e)

Vomer

16.

Which bone belongs to appendicular skeleton?

a)

Ischium

b)

Manubrium

c)

Sternum

d)

Vomer

e)

Xiphoid

17.

Which rib is a true rib?

a)

Rib 7

b)

Rib 8

c)

Rib 9

d)

Rib 10

e)

Rib 11

18.

What is the other name of the second cervical vertebra?

a)

Peter

b)

Silvius

c)

Axis

d)

Atlas

e)

Lashkar

19.

What is the other name of humpback?

a)

Ankylosis

b)

Lordosis

c)

Kyphosis

d)

Leukosis

e)

Scoliosis

20.

What is the other name of stiff joint?

a)

Ankylosis

b)

Lordosis

c)

Kyphosis

d)

Leukosis

e)

Scoliosis

21.

What is pedograph used for?

a)

Caring a child’s health

b)

Caring feet

c)

Recording foot imprint

d)

Recoding bone mass

22.

What is other name of wrist drop?

a)

Carpoptosis

b)

Cephalad

c)

Calcaneum

d)

Acromion

e)

Carpus

23.

What is the medical term for “pain in the neck”?

a)

Cephalodynia

b)

Brachialgia

c)

Cervicodynia

d)

Calcaneodynia

e)

Achillodynia

24.

What is the name of smaller bone in the lower leg?

a)

Humerus

b)

Ulna

c)

Tibia

d)

Fibula

e)

Tarsal

25.

______________ remain in the vascular channels only a short time.

a)

Leukocytes

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Macrophages

d)

Monocytes

26.

_______________ play a chief role in many activities associated with specific immunity.

a)

Leukocytes

b)

Phagocytes

c)

Macrophages

d)

Monocytes

27.

_______________ include B cells, T cells, and natural killer cells.

a)

Leukocytes

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Macrophages

d)

Monocytes

28.

_______________ provide a specialized type of defence called the specific immune respone.

a)

Leukocytes

b)

Monocytes

c)

Macrophages

d)

B and T cells

29.

NK cells are highly effective against ____________ and cells harboring pathogens.

a)

Normal cells

b)

Monocytes

c)

Cancer cells

d)

B and T cells

30.

________________ are the smallest formed elements found in blood.

a)

Leukocytes

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Thrombopoiesis

d)

Platelets

31.

Although platelets are sometimes called _______________, they are not true cells, as this term erroneously suggests, but merely fragments of cells.

a)

Leukocytes

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Thrombocytes

d)

Platelets

32.

Patient with metatarsalgia most likely has:

a)

Pain in the butt

b)

Stomachache

c)

Pain in the leg

d)

Pain in the foot

e)

Pain in the back

33.

What structures control the flow of blood through the capillary networks?

a)

Lumen

b)

Tunica

c)

Valves

d)

Endothelia

e)

Sphincters

34.

The combining form thromb/o means:

a)

Pulse

b)

Narrowing, stricture

c)

Fatty plaque

d)

Blood clot

e)

Embolus

35.

The tubular space within a vessel, such as an artery or vein, is called:

a)

Valve

b)

Lumen

c)

Lunatic

d)

Sphincter

e)

Leaflet

36.

What is the term for “spider” vein that appear as starburst clusters or web – like mazes?

a)

Telangiectasia

b)

Hemorrhoids

c)

Varices

d)

Atelectasis

e)

Microaneurysms

37.

Hemorrhoids are varicose veins of the

a)

Head

b)

Lower leg

c)

Colon

d)

Intestines

e)

Rectum

38.

Varices are varicose veins of the

a)

Esophagus

b)

Lower leg

c)

Colon

d)

Intestines

e)

Rectum

39.

There are three types of _______________: neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils.

a)

Monocytes

b)

Agranulocytes

c)

Macrophages

d)

Granulocytes

40.

White blood cells protect the body against invasion by ________________ and foreign substances, remove debris from injured tissue, and aid in the healing process.

a)

Bacteria

b)

Antibodies

c)

Pathogens

d)

Pollen

41.

_______________ contain granules that stain with a red acidic dye called eosirt.

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Granulocytes.

d)

Basophils

42.

_______________ are the most numerous circulating leukocyte. Their granules stain with a neutral dye, giving them their lilac color.

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Granulocytes

d)

Basophils

43.

There are two types of ______________: monocytes and lymphocytes.

a)

Leukocytes

b)

Agranulocytes

c)

Macrophages

d)

Granulocytes

44.

In the final step of coagulation, ______________ (a soluble blood protein) becomes insoluble and forms fibrin strands that act as a net, entrapping blood cells.

a)

Plasma protein

b)

Thromboplastin

c)

Albumin.

d)

Fibrinogen

45.

This jellylike mass of blood cells and fibrin is called a _______________ or blood clot.

a)

Fibrinogen

b)

Thromboplastin

c)

Fiber

d)

Thrombus

46.

__________________ is the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended.

a)

Blood cell

b)

Serum

c)

Plasma

d)

Thrombus

47.

If a blood sample clots in a test tube, the resulting fluid that remains after the clot is removed is ________________.

a)

Blood stream

b)

Serum

c)

Blood cell

d)

Blood fluid

48.

________________ provide mechanisms for blood coagulation. Although blood makes up only about 8% of all body tissues, it is essential to life.

a)

Blood cells

b)

WBCs

c)

Platelets

d)

RBCs

49.

Abnormally slow movement of blood in the veins is called:

a)

Phlebectasis

b)

Phlebostasis

c)

Bradyphlebia

d)

Phlebalgia

e)

Phlebosclerosis

50.

Sclerotherapy is a common treatment for:

a)

Varicose vein

b)

Atheromas

c)

Abdominal aneurysms

d)

Coronary occlusions

e)

Venospasm

51.

The heart has its own pacemaker rhythm that is separated from any other nervous influence. However, there are still cases when the heart needs to speed up or slow down. When that happens, the nervous system that is responsible is the:

a)

Central nervous system.

b)

Autonomic nervous system

c)

Enteric nervous system

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above. The heart never speeds up or slows down

52.

“Arteriostenosis” is the ______________ of a/an ________________.

a)

Widening / artery

b)

Narrowing / artery

c)

Widening / arteriole

d)

Narrowing / arteriole

e)

Act of putting in a stent / artery

53.

The heart is said to the covered on the __________ by a layer called “Pericardium”.

a)

Outside

b)

Inside

c)

Middle

d)

Outside and Inside

e)

There is no such layer in the heart

54.

A medical student is on his cardiovascular rotation. One day, when he performed a routine check up on a patient, he noticed a weird pulsating sensation (one resembling a pulse) on a patient. The problem was the “pulse” was on the middle of the forehead (there normally is no pulse there)! The term that best describe this is:

a)

Asphygmatic

b)

Asphyxia

c)

Sphygmoid

d)

Venostasis.

e)

Avenosis

55.

The word root “my/o” as in “myoglobin” means:

a)

Vein

b)

Connective tissue

c)

Hardening

d)

Plaque

e)

Muscle

56.

The word root”scler/o” as in “arteriosclerosis” means:

a)

Electricity

b)

Enlargement.

c)

Widened

d)

Hardening

e)

Vessel

57.

Which of these word root is synonymous (has the same meaning) with the word root “angi/o”?

a)

Phleb/o

b)

Ven/o

c)

Arteri/o

d)

Vascul/o

e)

More than one choice are correct

58.

The word root “ather/o” as in “atherosclerosis” means:

a)

Connective tissue

b)

Narrowing

c)

Fatty plaque

d)

Hardening

e)

Blood clot

59.

The suffix “-gram” as in an “electrocardiogram” means:

a)

Record, writing (the product of the recording)

b)

Instrument for recording

c)

Process of recording

d)

A patient used for recording

e)

The doctor who is doing the recording

60.

In 2009, a paper was published that had the title: “Outcomes following endovascular vs open repair of abdominal aortic aneurysm.”. Based on this title, what do you think the paper talked about?

a)

An introduction of a new method of examining the interior of the aorta

b)

A comparison of the results of two different methods to repair the widening of the aorta: one method is done exclusively inside the vessel, the other is done outside the vessel

c)

A discussion on whether an open surgery done outside the vessel or a closed surgery done from the inside of the vessel is better to remove hardened plague out of the aorta

d)

A critique of an outdated method of correcting the abnormal widening of the aorta

61.

The term “vasoconstriction” is used to indicate:

a)

A condition when the heart beats too quickly

b)

A condition when the heart beats too slowly

c)

A condition where a blood vessel is narrowed.

d)

A condition where a blood vessel is widened

e)

A condition where an artery is widened

62.

A “hemangioma” is a/an:

a)

Tumor of a blood vessel

b)

Tumor of a vein

c)

Narrowing of a blood vessel

d)

Dilation of an artery

e)

Tumor of an artery

63.

What is the synonym of the word “phlebostasis”?

a)

Arteriostasis

b)

Ateriodilation

c)

Venodilation

d)

Venostasis

e)

Hemangiostasis

64.

An “Atrial transseptal puncture” is a procedure used to create a hole:

a)

Across the wall dividing the left and right atria

b)

Between the atrium and its corresponding ventricle

c)

Outside of the atrium

d)

In the mediastinum

e)

Across the wall dividing the left and right ventricles

65.

In an electrocardiogram (ECG), the QRS complex represents:

a)

Atrial depolarization

b)

Ventricular depolarization

c)

Atrial repolarization

d)

Ventricular repolarization

e)

Both atrial and ventricular depolarization

66.

The blood pressure recording of a patient is 110/60. Given this value, the diastolic blood pressure is:

a)

110

b)

60

c)

110/60

d)

85

e)

76.7

67.

In the fetus, oxygenated blood bypasses the pulmonary circulation. As a result, there is an opening that leads oxygenated blood from the right atrium directly to the left atrium. This opening is called the:

a)

Ductus venosus

b)

Ligamentum arteriosum

c)

Ductus arteriosus

d)

Foramen ovale

e)

Fossa ovalis

68.

The congenital defect in which the ductus arteriosus is still there in the body of an adult human is called:

a)

Patent ductus arteriosus

b)

Remained ductus arteriosus.

c)

Malformed ligamentum arteriosum

d)

Atrial septal defect

e)

Tetralogy of Fallot

69.

An embolus is:

a)

A blood clot that is stationary (not moving)

b)

A hardened plague

c)

An abnormal widening of a vessel

d)

A blood clot that floats in the blood stream

e)

A sudden lack of oxygen to the brain

70.

What is the name of the disease where there is 80% blockage of the vessels that supply the heart with oxygenated blood?

a)

Endocarditis

b)

Stenosis

c)

Insufficiency

d)

Myocardial ischemia

e)

Myocardial infarction

71.

What is the name of the technique that uses a strong magnetic field and radiowaves to produce cross - sectional images of the body?

a)

Computed Tomography (CT)

b)

Doppler Ultrasonography

c)

Echocardiography

d)

Angiography

e)

Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

72.

Venipuncture is done for the purpose of:

a)

Withdrawing blood for tests and experimentation

b)

Removal of a small piece of tissue for diagnosis

c)

Removal of materials from an occluded vessel.

d)

Increasing the size of an opening of a valve

e)

Visualizing the veins on a computer screen

73.

Angiotensin – converting – enzyme (ACE) inhibitors:

a)

Increase blood pressure by constricting blood vessels

b)

Decrease blood pressure by constricting blood vessels

c)

Increase blood pressure by inhibiting the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II

d)

Decrease blood pressure by inhibiting the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II

e)

Increase blood pressure by inhibiting the conversion of Angiotesinogen to Angiotensin I

74.

Diuretics like Furosemide:

a)

Increase blood pressure by constricting blood vessels

b)

Decrease blood pressure by dilating blood vessels.

Increase blood pressure by inhibiting excretion of water and sodium into urine (decrease urination)

c)

Increase blood pressure by inhibiting excretion of water and sodium into urine (decrease urination)

d)

Decrease blood pressure by increasing excretion of water and sodium into urine (increase urination).

e)

Do nothing to blood pressure

75.

The word root “lymphaden/o” as in “lymphadenopathy” means:

a)

Lymph gland

b)

Lymph node

c)

Lymph vessel

d)

Lymph

e)

More than one choice are correct

76.

The word root “myel/o” as in “myeloma” means:

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Red

c)

Granule

d)

Blood

e)

More than one choice are correct

77.

The word root “splen/o” as in “splenomegaly” means:

a)

Serum

b)

Abdominal viscera

c)

The spleen

d)

Eating

e)

Foreign, strange

78.

The word root “morph/o” as in “amorphous” means

a)

Foreign, strange

b)

Not, without

c)

Shape, form

d)

Neutral

e)

Net, mesh

79.

The suffix “-blast” as in “myeloblast” means:

a)

Blood condition

b)

Transplantation

c)

Embryonic cell

d)

Abnormal condition

e)

Pertaining to

80.

The suffix “-penia” as in “thrombocytopenia” means:

a)

Increase, Sufficiency

b)

Decrease, Deficiency

c)

Attraction for

d)

Carrying, Transmission

e)

None of the above

81.

The suffix “-phylaxis” as in “anaphylaxis” means:

a)

Carrying, Transmission

b)

Formation, Production

c)

Standing still

d)

Protein

e)

None of the above

82.

The prefix “iso-” as in “isochromic” means:

a)

Color

b)

Different

c)

Same, equal

d)

Enlargement

e)

Many, much

83.

The prefix “a-” as in “asphyxia” means:

a)

Pulse

b)

Same, equal

c)

Not, without

d)

Against, up, back

e)

Unequal, dissimilar

84.

A “homograft” is a transplantation of tissues:

a)

Taken from the same individual

b)

Taken from another human being

c)

Taken from an animal (for example: a pig)

d)

Taken from a plant

e)

There is no transplantation

85.

An “autograft” is a transplantation of tissues:

a)

Taken from the same individual

b)

Taken from another human being

c)

Taken from an animal (for example: a pig)

d)

Taken from an automobile

e)

There is no such transplantation

86.

The eosinophil has a major color of:

a)

Lilac (neutral)

b)

Dawn – colored red

c)

Blue

d)

Can be red or blue, according to subtypes

e)

It cannot be stained, therefore, no color

87.

An “agglutination” is:

a)

A process where red blood cells are clumped together

b)

A process where red blood cells are destroyed by enzymes

c)

A state where there’s not enough red blood cells

d)

A state where there’s too many red blood cells

e)

None of the choices is correct

88.

A red blood cell that is “hypochromic”:

a)

Contains enough hemoglobin

b)

Contains too much hemoglobin

c)

Contains too little hemoglobin

d)

Contains too little DNA

e)

Contains too little oxygen

89.

In karyolysis, a _______________ is ______________.

a)

Nucleus / destroyed

b)

Nucleus / built

c)

Cell / destroyed

d)

Cell / built

e)

Hemoglobin molecule / built

90.

How many types of granulocytes are there?

a)

3: neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils

b)

2: lymphocytes, monocytes

c)

5: neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, lymphocytes, monocytes

d)

1: macrophages

e)

3: neutrophils, basophils, NK cells

91.

How many nucleus / nuclei does a typical neutrophil have?

a)

3 to 5

b)

2 to 3

c)

5 to 7

d)

1

e)

Zero. Neutrophils do not have nuclei

92.

How many nucleus / nuclei does a typical red blood cell have?

a)

3 to 5

b)

2 to 3

c)

5 to 7

d)

1

e)

Zero. Red blood cells do not have nuclei

93.

Which of these do you think is the first to appear at the site of infection?

a)

Eosinophil

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Basophil

d)

Macrophage

e)

Lymphocyte

94.

Which of these do you think responds to an Ascaris (helminth / parasite) infection?

a)

Eosinophil

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Basophil

d)

Macrophage

e)

Lymphocyte

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