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ORGANIC PHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY PART 2

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Epinephrine is also known as:

a)

tocopherol

b)

adrenalin

c)

emetine

d)

levarterenol

2.

1,3-dimethylxanthine is:

a)

caffeine

b)

theobromine

c)

theophylline

d)

aminophylline

3.

Of the following penicillin congeners, the one with the broadest spectrum of action is:

a)

pen v

b)

methicillin

c)

carbenicillin

d)

oxacillin

4.

Zantac is

a)

cimetidine

b)

famotidine

c)

ranitidine

d)

nizatidine

5.

Cytotec is:

a)

sucralfate

b)

misoprostol

c)

omeprazole

d)

pirenzepine

6.

Ma huang is a/an:

a)

imidazole alkaloid

b)

alkaloidal amine

c)

purine

d)

steroidal alkaloid

7.

Procaine is a/an:

a)

amine

b)

ester

c)

alcohol

d)

ketone

8.

The functional group found in codeine and scopolamine is a/an:

a)

amine

b)

alcohol

c)

ester

d)

ether

9.

Aureomycin is

a)

kanamycin

b)

erythromycin

c)

chlortetracycline

d)

oxytetracycline

10.

Bonamine is:

a)

meclizine

b)

dramamine

c)

scopolamine

d)

aspirin

11.

Polyene antibiotics include:

I. nystatin II . amphotericin B III. Griseofulvin

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II

d)

II and III

12.

Among the three xanthines, it is drug of choice for obtaining a stimulating effect of the CNS.

a)

caffeine

b)

theophylline

c)

theobromine

d)

d. all of the above

13.

3. A polysaccharide that is used as plasma expander is:

a)

starch

b)

insulin

c)

dextrose

d)

dextran

14.

The combination type oral contraceptive pill contains:

a)

an androgen and a progestin

b)

an estrogen and progestin

c)

an androgen and an estrogen

d)

FSH and LH

15.

Simethicone is chemically classified as a/an:

a)

wax

b)

silicone

c)

sulfur

d)

ketone

16.

An acidifying agent employed in effervescent salts and refrigerant drinks:

a)

acetic acid

b)

. lactic acid

c)

tartaric acid

d)

. citric acid

17.

This is an analgesic agent that is used to lessen severity of labor pains in obstetrics

a)

colchicines

b)

codeine

c)

apomorphine

d)

Demerol

18.

Benzaldehyde is synthetic:

a)

cinnamon oil

b)

bitter almond oil

c)

corn oil

d)

rose oil

19.

The ring common among penicillins and cephalosphorins:

a)

benzene ring

b)

B-lactam ring

c)

thiazole ring

d)

phenothiazone

20.

Retin-A is:

a)

alltoin

b)

adapalene

c)

tretinoin

d)

benzoyl

21.

Barbiturates with an intermediate duration of action

a)

amorbital

b)

Phenobarbital

c)

pentobarbital

d)

secobarbital

22.

Vitamin C is extremely important in wound healing. Its principal effect is on the

a)

maturation of osteoblast

b)

Collagen formation

c)

reduction of inflammation

d)

epithelial proliferation

23.

CNS depressants with skeletal muscular relaxant property, except:

a)

Methacarbamol, USP

b)

Carisoprodol, USP

c)

Baclofen

d)

Buspirone

e)

Meprobamate

24.

The drug of choice for the treatment of genital herpes being potent against DNA formation:

a)

Symmetrel

b)

Herplex

c)

Acyclovir

d)

Vidarabine

25.

The drug most effective against malarial parasites in the liver but not effective against parasites within erythrocytes:

a)

primaquine

b)

pyrimethamine

c)

quinacrine

d)

chloroquine

26.

Feldene is:

a)

sulindac

b)

piroxicam

c)

Indomethacin

d)

ketoprofen

27.

Voltaren is:

a)

acemetacin

b)

ibuprofen

c)

diclofenac

d)

naproxen

28.

Depo-Provera is

a)

cyproterone acetate

b)

nandrolene decanoate

c)

medroxyprogesterone acetate

d)

. leuproreline acetate

29.

Which of the following actions of histamine is not blocked by H1 antagonist:

a)

increase in salivary excretion

b)

increase in gastric secretions

c)

vasodilation

d)

itchiness

30.

Opium is an example of:

a)

narcotic analgesic

b)

non-steroidal analgesic

c)

antipyretic analgesic

d)

anti-inflammatory analgesic

31.

Which of the following penicillin derivatives is both acid-stable and resistant to penicillinase?

a)

methicillin

b)

disodium carbenicillin

c)

ampicillin

d)

oxacillin

e)

phenoxymethyl penicillin

32.

A diuretic that will manifest a competitive inhibition of the action of aldosterone:

a)

Triamterene

b)

Spirinolactone

c)

Furosemide

d)

Chlorothiazide

33.

Sulfonamides are metabolized by humans principally by:

a)

acetylation

b)

deamination

c)

oxidation

d)

conjugation

e)

goiterogenic

34.

Benzalkonium chloride is a germicidal surfactant which rendered inactive in the presence o

a)

organic acid

b)

gram-negative organisms

c)

cationic surfactants

d)

soaps

e)

inorganic salts

35.

Acetazolamide (Diamox) is rarely the drug of choice for diuretic therapy because it:

a)

is too potent

b)

causes systemic acidosis and alkaline urine

c)

is habit forming

d)

does not exhibit tachyphylaxis

e)

induces enzymes, especially carbonic anhydrases

36.

The antipsychotic drug loxapine succinate (Loxitane) is a _____ compound:

a)

phenothiazine

b)

benzodiazepine

c)

dibenzoxazepine

d)

thioxanthene

e)

butyrophenone

37.

Diphenoxylate (Lomotil) is an agent useful in the treatment of diarrhea. It is structurally similar to:

a)

kaolin

b)

meperidine

c)

diphenhydantoin

d)

pectin

e)

oxalic acid

38.

Streptomycin and other aminoglycoside antibiotics are:

a)

ototoxic

b)

carcinogenic

c)

hyperglycemic

d)

hepatotoxic

e)

goiterogenic

39.

Which of the following is classified as a broad-spectrum antibiotic?

a)

ampicillin

b)

penicillin G

c)

sodium methicillin

d)

sodium cloxacillin

e)

potassium phenethicillin

40.

An antimanic agent:

a)

haloperidol

b)

. lithium salts

c)

LSD

d)

phenol

41.

Liquefied phenol, USP:

a)

phenol containing 10% water

b)

phenol as surgical antiseptic

c)

carbol-fuchsin solution

d)

treatment of tinea infection

42.

Castellani’s paint:

a)

phenol containing 10% water

b)

carbol-fuchsin solution

c)

phenol as surgical antiseptic

d)

antibacterial dye

43.

This is an effective antidote for the treatment of poisoning by copper:

a)

penicillamine

b)

dimercaprol

c)

lugol’s solution

d)

castellani’s paint

44.

Tetracycline is:

a)

an intermediate spectrum, bactericidal

b)

a broad spectrum, bacteriostatic

c)

a broad spectrum, bactericidal

d)

an intermediate spectrum, bacteriostatic

45.

Which of the following is not soluble in or miscible with alcohol, USP?

a)

ether

b)

acacia

c)

methanol

d)

Phenobarbital

e)

water

46.

The drug used in all types of tuberculosis is:

a)

ethambutol

b)

cycloserine

c)

streptomycin

d)

isoniazid

e)

p-aminosalicylic acid

47.

Levarterenol (Levophed) is:

a)

a. L-epinephrine

b)

L-norepinephrine

c)

Isoproterenol

d)

L-dopa

e)

L-ephedrine

48.

The most active aminoglycoside against Mycobacterium tuberculosis is:

a)

streptomycin

b)

amikacin

c)

neomycin

d)

tobramycin

e)

kanamycin

49.

The most effective agent in the treatment of Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Chlamydia infection is:

a)

penicillin G

b)

tetracycline

c)

vancomycin

d)

gentamicin

e)

bacitracin

50.

Which of the following penicillins is resistant to penicillinase?

a)

Polymyxin B

b)

Penicillin G

c)

Dicloxaci

d)

Carbenicillin

e)

Streptomycin

51.

Aluminum and calcium salts inhibit the intestinal absorption of which of the following agents?

a)

Isoniazid

b)

Chloramphenicol

c)

. Phenoxymethyl penicillin

d)

Erythromycin

e)

Tetracycline

52.

. The quinolone derivative effective against P. Aeruginosa is:

a)

norfloxacin

b)

ciprofloxacin

c)

ofloxacin

d)

enoxacin

e)

lomefloxacin

53.

Which of the following penicillins is resistant to penicillinase?

a)

Ampicillin

b)

Oxacillin

c)

Carbenicillin

d)

Ticarticillin

e)

Mezlocillin

54.

Rancidity of fats may be due to

a)

reduction to alcohols

b)

Impurities

c)

oxidation of double bonds

d)

saponification

e)

hydrogenation

55.

A thiazide diuretic can:

a)

enhance action of amphetamines

b)

antagonize action of guanethidine

c)

antagonize action of digitalis drugs

d)

enhance action of oral hypoglycemics

e)

antagonize action of tricyclic antidepressants

56.

Surfactants are characterized by:

a)

the presence of water-solubilizing groups

b)

negative charges

c)

positive charges

d)

d. the presence of fat-solubilizing groups

e)

the presence of water-solubilizing and fat-solubilizing c. positive charges groups in the same molecule

57.

Piperazine citrate (Antepar), gentian violet, pyrivinium pamoate (Povan) and thiabendazole Mintezol) are all:

a)

anthelmintics

b)

dyes

c)

antiseptics

d)

scabicides

e)

anticholinergics

58.

AZT or Azidothymidine is used in the treatment of

a)

Koch’s infection

b)

HIV or AIDS

c)

carbuncle

d)

ringworm

59.

Is a folate-reductase inhibitor:

a)

Trimethoprim

b)

Trimethoprim

c)

Penicillin

d)

Tetracycline

60.

The structure of this class of antibiotic has a beta-lactam ring and a thiazolidine ring.

a)

Tazobactam

b)

Penicillin

c)

Cephalosporins

d)

Monobactam

61.

The generic name of Duracef:

a)

Cephradine

b)

Cephazoline

c)

Cephadroxil

d)

Cephalexin

62.

The preparation is used as pediculicide:

a)

Ultralan cream

b)

rimycin ointment

c)

Betronavate ointment

d)

Kwell lotion

63.

An antibiotic that is obtained from Streptomyces noursei

a)

Amphotericin b

b)

Nystatin

c)

Griseofulvin

d)

Clindamycin

64.

The plant containing the anticancer drug, vincristine and vnblastine:

a)

Mayapple

b)

Periwinkle

c)

European year

d)

Datura alba

65.

A very common adverse reaction of alkylating agents used in the treatment of cancer:

a)

alopecia

b)

miosis

c)

mydriasis

d)

ataxia

66.

These are calcium channel blockers, except

a)

Verapamil

b)

Nifedipine

c)

Atenolol

d)

Diltiazem

67.

The generic name of the brand Diabinese:

a)

Chlorpropramide

b)

Glibenclamide

c)

Metformin

d)

Acetohexamide

68.

A loop or high-ceiling diuretic:

a)

Furosemide

b)

Sorbitol

c)

Spirinolactone

d)

Hydrochlorothiazide

69.

This drug is used as an osmotic diuretic:

a)

Mannitol

b)

Ethanol

c)

Isopropanol

d)

Glycitol

70.

These drugs are narcotic analgesics, except:

a)

morphine

b)

codeine

c)

nalbuphine

d)

. mefenamic acid

71.

This is used as an inhalation anesthetic:

a)

droperidol

b)

thiopental

c)

halothane

d)

midazolam

72.

levodopa is used in the treatment of:

a)

leukemia

b)

Parkinson’s disease

c)

Alzheimer’s diseas

d)

Tay Sach’s disease

73.

The generic name of Nubain:

a)

Nalbuphine

b)

Naloxone

c)

Pentazocine

d)

Methadone

74.

Methenamine is also called:

a)

Uridine

b)

Uracil

c)

Uric acid

d)

Urothropin

75.

Neurotoxicity caused by Isoniazid can be treated with:

a)

thiamine

b)

pyridoxine

c)

menaquinone

d)

ergocalciferol

76.

A broad-spectrum anthelmintic that is effective against a variety of nematode infestations and is the generic name of Antiox:

a)

Piperazine

b)

Thiabendazole

c)

Pyrantel pamoate

d)

Mebendazole

77.

A common agent in smoking cessation programs providing patches:

a)

lobeline

b)

nicotine

c)

emetine

d)

coal tar

78.

Thiabendazole (Mintezol), a benzimidazole derivative, is an anthelmintic drug used primarily to treat infections caused by:

a)

Ascaris

b)

Necator americanus (hookworm)

c)

Strongyloides

d)

Enterobios vermicularis

e)

Taenia saginata (flatworm)

79.

One of the reasons why aminoglycosides are frequently combined with other antibiotics in treating certain infections is to

a)

prevent drug infections

b)

prevent drug emergence of resistant bacteria

c)

increase renal excretion

d)

increase oral absorption

80.

Angiotensin-converting enzymes (ACE) inhibitors are associated with a high incidence of which of the following adverse reactions?

a)

hepatitis

b)

hypokalemia

c)

agranulocytosis

d)

proteinuria

e)

hirsutism

81.

. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents has a good penetrability into the cerebrospinal fluid?

a)

streptomycin

b)

gentamicin

c)

tobramycin

d)

chloramphenicol

e)

cephalexin

82.

The scientist who can lay claim to the title of Father of Chemotherapy:

a)

Robert Koch

b)

Joseph Lister

c)

Paul Ehrlich

d)

Alexander Fleming

e)

Giuseppe Brotzu

83.

Effective administration routes of nitroglycerin for angina pectoris include all of the following, except:

a)

oral

b)

inravenous

c)

transdermal

d)

sublingual

84.

This group is responsible for the bone marrow toxicity of chloramphenicol:

a)

. NO2 group

b)

. NH2 group

c)

OH group

d)

COOH group

e)

benzene group

85.

Diazepam is used in the treatment of all of the following, except:

a)

anxiety

b)

Status epilepticus

c)

skeletal muscle spasm

d)

analgesia

e)

preoperative sedation

86.

Which is not true regarding ceftriaxone:

a)

a 3rd generation cephalosporin

b)

resistant to B-lactamase

c)

. administered parenterally

d)

once daily dosing

e)

resistant to acid

87.

. All of the following substances are present in opium, except:

a)

thebaine

b)

methadone

c)

codeine

d)

morphine

e)

papaverine

88.

. An antipyretic aniline derivative with weak anti-inflammatory activity:

a)

acetylsalicylic acid

b)

. acetaminophen

c)

. mefenamic acid

d)

indomethacin

e)

sulindac

89.

. The most potent of the inhalation anesthetic agents:

a)

methoxyflurane

b)

halothane

c)

enflurane

d)

nitrous oxide

e)

isoflurane

90.

Which of the following antineoplastics is not considered an antimetabolite?

a)

methotrexate

b)

thioguanine

c)

etoposide

d)

fluorouracil

e)

cytarabine

91.

. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the aminoglycoside antibiotics?

a)

they are highly ionized in solution

b)

they are bactericidal

c)

they are more effective in alkaline medium

d)

they are ototoxic and nephrotoxic

e)

hey are easily absorbed after oral administration

92.

Baclofen, a derivative of GABA is used in:

a)

spasticity in patients with multiple sclerosis

b)

parkinsonism

c)

management of spasticity in rheumatic disorders

d)

. spasticity of cerebral palsy

93.

Long term use of tetracyclines in pregnant women should be avoided due to several reasons. Which of these is not true?

a)

they chelate calcium ions

b)

. they may predispose to discoloration of deciduous teeth in the infant

c)

they are toxic to the fetus and may cause abortion

d)

they can cause yellow atrophy of the liver in the mother

e)

they get deposited in growing bones

94.

All of the following antibiotics produce neuromuscular blockade, except:

a)

ampicillin

b)

kanamycin

c)

streptomycin

d)

neomycin

e)

amikacin

95.

For the treatment of systemic mycosis, which of the following antifungal agents can be administered by intravenous route?

a)

miconazole

b)

amphotericin B

c)

ketoconazole

d)

clioquinol

e)

nystatin

96.

Which of the following agents is not used for local candidiasis?

a)

nystatin

b)

gentian violet

c)

griseofulvin

d)

miconazole

e)

clotrimazole

97.

All of the following are effective and clinically useful against worm infestation caused by Ascaris Lumbricoides, except:

a)

piperazine

b)

niridazole

c)

mebendazole

d)

pyrantel pamoate

e)

thiabendazole

98.

A good local anesthetic should have all of the following properties, except:

a)

systemic toxicity should be low

b)

effective at body fluid pH

c)

onset of anesthesia should be gradual and short duration of action to avoid toxicity

d)

must be effective regardless of the site of application

e)

not irritant to the tissue and should not cause any permanent structural damage to nerves

99.

From the list given below, identify the drug possessing “triad of features” which includes antiamebic. antigiardiasis, and antitrichomonal:

a)

iodoquinol

b)

chloroquine

c)

chloroquine

d)

metronidazole

e)

piperazine

100.

Amongst the following, the drug of choice for acute attack of Plasmodium vivax malaria is:

a)

amodiaquine

b)

chloroquine

c)

primaquine

d)

quinine

e)

mefloquine

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