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Pharm Lecture 3 - Heme/Onc

Total questions: 47

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Cancer is influenced by: (Riggs quiz)

a)

Only genetics

b)

Only environment

c)

Both genetics and environment

d)

Neither genetics nor environment

2.

Which of the following is TRUE about malignant tumors? (Riggs quiz)

a)

Well differentiated

b)

Not invasive

c)

High mitotic index

d)

Grow slowly

3.

Cancer arising in ductal or glandular epithelial tissue: (Riggs quiz)

a)

Adenocarcinoma

b)

Sarcoma

c)

Carcinoma

d)

Leukemia

4.

n the TNM staging system, M refers to tumor: (Riggs quiz)

a)

nodal involement

b)

size

c)

metastasis

d)

epithelial mesenchymal transition

5.

Imaging tumors by visualizing glucose utilization can be accomplished by: (Riggs quiz)

a)

Ultrasound

b)

X-ray

c)

PET scan

d)

CT

6.

Cancer metastasis to the bone may present as: (Riggs quiz)

a)

jaundice

b)

headache

c)

cough

d)

fractures

7.

Genes that have acquired a mutation that has turned the gene "ON" and increased cell proliferation: (Riggs quiz)

a)

oncogenes

b)

protooncogenes

c)

tumor suppressors

8.

Genes that can be mutated to "OFF" and can lose the ability to limit cell proliferation: (Riggs quiz)

a)

protooncogenes

b)

oncogenes

c)

tumor suppressor genes

9.

Vincristine is a cell-cycle specific anti-tumor drug because it causes mitotic arrest in this phase of the cell cycle: (Riggs quiz)

a)

G2

b)

G1

c)

M

d)

S

10.

Compounds that crosslink DNA by adding an alkyl group to the guanine base of DNA: (Riggs quiz)

a)

alkylating agents

b)

antimetabolites

c)

platinum compounds

d)

mitotic inhibitors

11.

Drugs that block the conversion of folic acid to its active form reducing the amount required for several biochemical reactions (nucleotides) are called: (Riggs quiz)

a)

mitotic inhibitors

b)

folic acid analogs

c)

purine analogs

d)

pyrimidine analogs

12.

Drugs that are analogs of cytosine, thymine and uracil-bases and ultimately block DNA synthesis are: (Riggs quiz)

a)

folic acid analogs

b)

purine analogs

c)

pyrimidine analogs

d)

topoisomerase inhibitors

13.

Drugs that are analogs of adenine, guanine, and hypoxanthine (bases for biosynthesis of nucleic acids) and ultimately affect DNA synthesis are called: (Riggs quiz)

a)

folic acid analogs

b)

pyrimidine analogs

c)

purine analogs

d)

mitotic inhibitors

14.

These drugs have mechanisms of action that include DNA intercalation and generation of DNA damaging reactive oxygen species: (Riggs quiz)

a)

hormone antagonists

b)

alkylating agents

c)

antitumor antibiotics

d)

anti-metabolites

15.

Drugs that inhibit mitosis, or cell division through the disruption of microtubules are called: (Riggs quiz)

a)

mitotic inhibitors

b)

anti-tumor antibiotics

c)

antimetabolites

d)

hormone antagonists

16.

Drugs that block enzymes that normally function to untangle the DNA helix during replication are called: (Riggs quiz)

a)

mitotic inhibitors

b)

alkylating agents

c)

topoisomerase inhibitors

d)

platinum compounds

17.

Which of the following is an alkylating agent? (Riggs quiz)

a)

etoposide

b)

5-fluoruracil

c)

cisplatinum

d)

cyclophosphamide

18.

Which of the following is a folic acid analog? (Riggs quiz)

a)

etoposide

b)

methotrexate

c)

mercaptopurine

d)

5-fluorouracil

19.

Which of the following is a purine analog? (Riggs quiz)

a)

methotrexate

b)

5-fluorouracil

c)

vincristine

d)

mercaptopurine

20.

Which type of anti-tumor drug is doxorubicin? (Riggs quiz)

a)

anti-tumor antibiotics

b)

platinum compound

c)

alkylating agent

d)

mitotic inhibitor

21.

Paclitaxel inhibits tumor growth by: (Riggs quiz)

a)

generating ROS

b)

activating mitotic checkpoint

c)

inhibiting topoisomerase

d)

inhibiting the action of estrogen receptor

22.

Two mechanism to inhibit the proliferation of estrogen receptor positive breast cancer are: 1) starve the tumors of estrogen and 2) block the ability of estrogen receptor to function in the cell. (Riggs quiz)

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Aromatase inhibitors function to: (Riggs quiz)

a)

block the synthesis of estrogen

b)

inhibt the activity of estrogen receptor

24.

Tamoxifen functions to: (Riggs quiz)

a)

inhibit the function of estrogen receptor

b)

block the synthesis of estrogen

25.

Which drug is an antibody blocks the ability of tumor cells to block activation of programmed cell death 1 (PD-1) receptor and therefore allows immune recognition of tumor cells? (Riggs quiz)

a)

Tamoxifen

b)

Vincristine

c)

Pembrolizumab

d)

5-fluoruracil

26.

Paclitaxel is a cell-cycle specific anti-tumor drug because it activates the mitotic checkpoint at what stage(s) of the cell cycle:

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

M

d)

S

27.

Which drugs are antimetabolites

a)

methotrexate

b)

5-fluoruracil

c)

mercaptopurine

d)

etoposide

28.

Etoposide inhibits tumor growth by:

a)

generating ROS

b)

activating mitotic checkpoint

c)

inhibiting topoisomerase

d)

inhibiting the action of estrogen receptor

29.

Paclitaxel inhibits tumor growth by:

a)

generating ROS

b)

activating mitotic checkpoint

c)

inhibiting topoisomerase

d)

inhibiting the action of estrogen receptor

30.

These anti-cancer drugs work by generating ROS:

a)

antimetabolites

b)

anti-tumor antibiotics

c)

mitotic inhibitors

d)

alkylating agents

31.

These anti-cancer drugs are cell-phase non-specific:

a)

Alkylating agents

b)

Platinum compound

c)

Antimetabolites

d)

Mitotic inhibitors

32.

These anti-cancer drugs are cell-phase specific:

a)

Alkylating agents

b)

Platinum compound

c)

Antimetabolites

d)

Mitotic inhibitors

33.

Tamoxifen only works on estrogen positive tumors

a)

True

b)

False

34.

cancer

a)

tumors that are benign

b)

tumors that are malignant

35.

tumor: abnormal growth resulting from _______ proliferation and serves no physiological function

a)

uncontrolled

b)

controlled

36.

cancers arising in epithelial tissue

a)

Adenocarcinoma

b)

Sarcoma

c)

Carcinoma

d)

Leukemia

37.

cancer arising from connective tissue

a)

Adenocarcinoma

b)

Sarcoma

c)

Carcinoma

d)

Leukemia

38.

cancer of lymphatic tissue

a)

Adenocarcinoma

b)

Sarcoma

c)

Carcinoma

d)

Leukemia

e)

Lymphoma

39.

cancer of blood forming cells

a)

Adenocarcinoma

b)

Sarcoma

c)

Carcinoma

d)

Leukemia

e)

Lymphoma

40.

Carcinoma in situ (CIS) lesions can have what three possible fates:

a)

can remain stable for a long time

b)

can progress to invasive and metastatic cancer

c)

can regress and disappear

d)

can become contagious to others

41.

In TNM Staging System, ___ represents the number of nearby lymph nodes that contain cancer cells

a)

T

b)

N

c)

M

42.

In TNM Staging System, ___ represents the size and extent of the main (primary) tumor

a)

T

b)

N

c)

M

43.

Cancer cells, unlike most normal cells

a)

continue to grow and pile on top of one another

b)

grow without being attached to a surface

c)

must attach to a surface to grow

d)

maintain contact inhibition

44.

RAS is an example of

a)

oncogene

b)

tumor supressor gene

45.

Retinoblastoma is an example of

a)

oncogene

b)

tumor supressor gene

46.

Antimetabolites are cell-phase specific drugs, most commonly ___ phase.

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

M

d)

S

47.

Which of the following is a platinum compound?

a)

etoposide

b)

cisplatinum

c)

cyclophosphamide

d)

5-fluoruracil