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Worksheets

Firewall Exam Review

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following geographic network types is made up of an interconnection of LANs?

a)

Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

b)

Wide Area Network (WAN)

c)

Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)

d)

Campus Area Network (CAN)

2.

You have implemented a network where each device provides all other devices on the network with access to shared files.

What type of network do you have?

a)

Multiple access

b)

Client-server

c)

Polling

d)

Peer-to-peer

3.

You have implemented a network where hosts are assigned specific roles, such as file sharing and printing roles. Other hosts access those resources, but do not host services of their own.

What type of network do you have?

a)

Peer-to-peer

b)

Intranet

c)

Client-server

d)

Extranet

4.

Which of the following geographic network types are typically managed by a city as a public utility?

a)

Personal area network (PAN)

b)

Metropolitan area network (MAN)

c)

Wide area network (WAN)

d)

Local area network (LAN)

5.

You have a small network that uses a switch to connect multiple devices. Which physical topology are you using?

a)

Mesh

b)

Bus

c)

Star

d)

Ring

6.

Your manager has asked you to implement a wired network infrastructure that will accommodate failed connections. You don't have a large budget, so you decide to provide redundancy for only a handful of critical devices.

Which of the following network topologies should you implement?

a)

Partial mesh

b)

Full mesh

c)

Star

d)

Bus

7.

You have a network that uses a logical ring topology. How do messages travel through the network?

a)

Messages travel from one device to the next until they reach the destination device.

b)

Messages are sent to a central device that forwards them to the destination devices.

c)

Messages are sent directly to the destination device only.

d)

Messages are sent to all devices connected to the network.

8.

You have a network that uses a logical bus topology. How do messages travel through the network?

a)

Messages are sent directly to the correct destination device.

b)

Messages travel from one device to the next until they reach the destination device

c)

Messages are sent to a central device that forwards them to the destination devices.

d)

Messages are broadcast to all devices connected to the network.

9.

Which of the following topologies connects all devices to a trunk cable?

a)

Tree

b)

Ring

c)

Star

d)

Bus

10.

Which of the following topologies connects each device to a neighboring device?

a)

Star

b)

Tree

c)

Bus

d)

Ring

11.

In which of the following topologies does each device on the network act as a repeater, sending the signal to the next device?

a)

Ring

b)

Tree

c)

Bus

d)

Star

12.

Which of the following topologies connects each network device to a central hub?

a)

Ring

b)

Star

c)

Mesh

d)

Bus

13.

You have implemented an ad hoc wireless network that doesn't employ a wireless access point. Every wireless network card can communicate directly with any other wireless network card on the network.

What type of physical network topology has been implemented in this type of network?

a)

Ring

b)

Mesh

c)

Tree

d)

Bus

e)

Star

14.

Your manager has asked you to implement a network infrastructure that will accommodate failed connections.

Which of the following network topologies provides redundancy for a failed link?

a)

Mesh

b)

Bus

c)

Ring

d)

Star

15.

You want to implement a fault tolerant topology as you connect routers on your wide area network. Which of the following topologies meets your needs?

a)

Mesh

b)

Ring

c)

Bus

d)

Star

16.

What device is used to create a physical star topology?

a)

Bridge

b)

Firewall

c)

Switch

d)

Router

17.

Which of the following functions are performed by the OSI Transport layer? (Select three.)

a)

End-to-end flow control

b)

Reliable message delivery

c)

Path identification and selection

d)

Consistent data formatting between dissimilar systems

e)

Data segmentation and reassembly

18.

What is the basic purpose of the OSI Physical layer?

a)

Coordinates rules for managing network servers

b)

Defines basic physical structures, such as disks.

c)

Coordinates rules for routing packets.

d)

Coordinates rules for transmitting bits.

19.

Which of the following are included as part of Data Link layer specifications? (Select two.)

a)

Controlling how messages are propagated through the network.

b)

Identifying physical network devices.

c)

Composing electrical signals as they pass through the transmission medium.

d)

Synchronizing individual bits as they are transmitted through the network.

20.

In the OSI model, what is the primary function of the Network layer?

a)

Ensures that packets are delivered with no loss or duplication

b)

Routes messages between networks

c)

Transmits data frames

d)

Allows applications to establish, use, and end a connection

21.

Which of the following tasks is associated with the Session layer?

a)

Host ID number assignment

b)

Acknowledgement coordination

c)

Transmission synchronization

d)

Connection establishment

22.

In the OSI model, which of the following functions are performed at the Presentation layer? (Select two.)

a)

Provide network services

b)

Transmit data frames

c)

Specify data format (such as file formats)

d)

Maintain separate client connections

e)

Encrypt and compress data

23.

In the OSI model, which of the following functions are performed at the Application layer? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Integrating network functionality into the host operating system

b)

Conversation identification

c)

Data translation

d)

Enabling communication between network clients and services

24.

Which of the following functions are performed at the Physical layer of the OSI model?

a)

Provisioning environments where you can run network applications

b)

Moving data across network cables

c)

Data translation

d)

Enabling network services

e)

Conversation identification

25.

The Data Link Layer of the OSI model is comprised of two sublayers. What are they? (Select two.)

a)

MAC

b)

DLC

c)

LLC

d)

LAT

e)

SAN

26.

Which of the following are functions of the MAC sublayer? (Select two.)

a)

Defining a unique hardware address for each device on the network

b)

Letting devices on the network have access to the LAN

c)

Creating routing tables based on MAC addresses

d)

Mapping hardware addresses to link-layer addresses

27.

Which OSI model layer is responsible for guaranteeing reliable message delivery?v

a)

Transport

b)

Session

c)

Data Link

d)

Application

28.

Which of the following protocols allows hosts to exchange messages to indicate problems with packet delivery?

a)

DHCP

b)

TCP

c)

IGMP

d)

IP

e)

ICMP

29.

Which protocol is used on the World Wide Web to transmit web pages to web browsers?

a)

NNTP

b)

HTTP

c)

HTML

d)

SMTP

30.

Your company has just acquired another company in the same city. You need to integrate the two email systems so that messages can be exchanged between the email servers. Currently, each network uses an email package from a different vendor.

Which TCP/IP protocol will enable message exchange between systems?

a)

ICMP

b)

SMTP

c)

IMAP4

d)

POP3

e)

FTP

31.

You are an application developer, and you are writing a program for exchanging video files through a TCP/IP network. You need to select a transport protocol that will guarantee delivery.

Which TCP/IP protocol provides this capability?

a)

TFTP

b)

RIP

c)

FTP

d)

TCP

e)

IP

32.

Which of the following protocols stores email on the mail server and allows users to access messages from various client devices without having to download the emails?

a)

POP3

b)

IMAP4

c)

NTP

d)

SMTP

33.

Which protocol is used to securely browse a website?

a)

HTTPS

b)

ARP

c)

SSH

d)

SIP

e)

UDP

34.

The UDP transport protocol provides which of the following features? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Guaranteed delivery

b)

Low overhead

c)

Connectionless datagram services

d)

Sequence numbers and acknowledgements

35.

What protocol sends email to a mail server?

a)

SNMP

b)

FTP

c)

POP3

d)

TFTP

e)

SMTP

36.

You have a large TCP/IP network and want to keep a host's real time clock synchronized. What protocol should you use?

a)

NNTP

b)

NTP

c)

SAP

d)

SNMP

e)

SMTP

37.

Which of the following TCP/IP protocols do email clients use to download messages from a remote mail server?

a)

FTP

b)

SNMP

c)

SMTP

d)

POP3

e)

SPC

38.

You are asked to recommend an email retrieval protocol for a company's sales team. The sales team needs to access email from various locations and possibly different computers. The sales team does not want to worry about transferring email messages or files back and forth between these computers.

Which email protocol is designed for this purpose?

a)

MFTP

b)

POP3

c)

POP4

d)

IMAP4

e)

SMTP

39.

Which of the following protocols includes extensive error checking to ensure that a transmission is sent and received without mistakes?

a)

UDB

b)

TCP

c)

UDP

d)

UCP

40.

What is the binary format for the following decimal IP address?

131.9.202.111

a)

10000011.00001001.11001010.01101111

b)

10000110.00001011.11000101.10101110

c)

10000001.00001010.11000011.01010111

d)

10000111.00001101.11001110.01011101

41.

What is the decimal format of the following binary IP address?

11001110.00111010.10101010.01000011

a)

190.42.154.51

b)

205.57.169.66

c)

206.58.170.67

d)

238.90.202.99

42.

Which network component connects a device to transmission media and allows the device to send and receive messages?

a)

Client

b)

Network interface card

c)

Peripheral

d)

Protocol

e)

Server

43.

Which of the following statements accurately describes how a modem works? (Select two.)

a)

It demodulates analog PC data into digital data that can be transmitted through a telephone network.

b)

It demodulates analog data from a telephone network into digital PC data.

c)

It communicates over a telephone network using digital signals.

d)

It modulates digital data from the PC into analog data and transmits it on a telephone network.

e)

It modulates digital data from a telephone network into analog data that a PC can use.

44.

You have a server that has a 100BaseFX network interface card that you need to connect to a switch. The switch only has 100BaseTX switch ports.

Which device should you use?

a)

Repeater

b)

Gateway

c)

Hub

d)

Bridge

e)

Media converter

45.

Which device sends signals from a computer onto a network?

a)

Router

b)

Gateway

c)

Cable

d)

Transceiver

46.

At which OSI model layer does a media converter operate?

a)

Layer 1

b)

Layer 2

c)

Layer 3

d)

Layer 4

47.

You want a switch to have the ability to modify the media type the switch port supports. Which type of module might you use to make this possible?

a)

SFP

b)

MPLS

c)

GBIC

d)

OC-x

48.

Which of the following is a valid MAC address?

a)

73-99-12-61-15

b)

83-5A-5B-0B-31-55-F1

c)

192.168.12.15

d)

C0-34-FF-15-01-8E

e)

255.255.255.0

49.

Which of the following is a valid MAC address?

a)

145.65.254.10

b)

AB.07.CF.62.16.BD

c)

FABC.875E.9BG6

d)

95ABC2F4.ABC5.569D.43BF

50.

A host wants to send a message to another host that has the IP address 115.99.80.157. IP does not know the hardware address of the destination device. Which protocol can be used to discover the MAC address?

a)

ICMP

b)

DHCP

c)

ARP

d)

IGMP

e)

BOOTP

51.

Which of the following is true about the MAC address? (Select two.)

a)

It is a 48-bit address.

b)

It is typically represented by octets of decimal numbers between 0-255.

c)

It is a 32-bit address

d)

It is a 64-bit address

e)

It is typically represented by hexadecimal numbers.

52.

Which of the following best describes how a switch functions?

a)

It connects multiple segments of different architectures. It translates frames and broadcasts them to all of its ports.

b)

It connects multiple cable segments (or devices) and forwards frames to the appropriate segment

c)

It connects multiple cable segments (or devices) and broadcasts frames to all of its port

d)

It connects multiple segments of different architectures. It translates frames and forwards them to the appropriate segment.

53.

How do switches and bridges learn where devices are located on a network?

a)

When a frame enters a port, the destination MAC address is copied from frame header.

b)

When a frame enters a port, the source IP address is copied from the frame header.

c)

When a frame enters a port, the source MAC address is copied from the frame header.

d)

When a frame enters a port, the destination IP address is copied from the frame header.

54.

An eight-port switch receives a frame on port number 1. The frame is addressed to an unknown device. What will the switch do?

a)

Drop the frame.

b)

Send the frame out all eight ports

c)

Send the frame out ports two through eight.

d)

Send the frame out the destination port.

55.

Which of the following hardware devices regenerates a signal out all connected ports without examining the frame or packet contents? (Select two.)

a)

Router

b)

Bridge

c)

Hub

d)

Switch

e)

Repeater

56.

At which OSI layer does a router operate to forward network messages?

a)

Data Link

b)

Session

c)

Physical

d)

Transport

e)

Network

57.

Your company purchases a new bridge that filters packets based on the MAC address of the destination computer. On which layer of the OSI model is this device functioning?

a)

Data Link

b)

Transport

c)

Session

d)

Presentation

58.

At which of the following OSI layers does a router operate?

a)

Layer 1

b)

Layer 2

c)

Layer 3

d)

Layer 4

59.

Which of the following devices operate at the Data Link layer of the OSI model? (Select three.)

a)

Hubs

b)

Switches

c)

Routers

d)

Network interface cards (NICs)

e)

Bridges

60.

Which of the following devices operate at OSI model Layer 2? (Select two.)

a)

Hub

b)

Network interface card

c)

Switch

d)

Router

e)

Firewall

61.

A switch is associated with which OSI model layer?

a)

Physical

b)

Data Link

c)

Network

d)

Transport

62.

At which layer of the OSI model do hubs operate?

a)

Physical

b)

Data Link

c)

Layer 3

d)

Internet

63.

Which of the following devices operates at the OSI model Layer 2?

a)

Router

b)

Hub

c)

Switch

d)

Firewall

64.

Which of the following devices operates at the OSI model Layer 1?

a)

Firewall

b)

Router

c)

Switch

d)

Hub

65.

Which of the following hardware devices links multiple networks and directs traffic between networks?

a)

Router

b)

Repeater

c)

Hub

d)

Bridge

66.

You are the network administrator for a small organization. Recently, you contracted with an ISP to connect your organization's network to the internet to provide users with internet access. Since doing so, it has come to your attention that an intruder has invaded your network from the internet on three separate occasions.

What type of network hardware should you implement to prevent this from happening again?

a)

Proxy server

b)

Firewall

c)

Switch

d)

Hub

e)

Router

67.

Which of the following is the best device to deploy if you want to protect your private network from a public untrusted network?

a)

Hub

b)

Router

c)

Firewall

d)

Gateway

68.

Which of the following is a good reason to install a firewall?

a)

To cache web pages.

b)

To limit public access to just your DHCP server instead of your whole network.

c)

To prevent hackers from accessing your network.

d)

To translate between internet IP addresses and the IP addresses on your private network

69.

You are the administrator of your company's network. You want to prevent unauthorized access to your intranet from the internet. Which of the following should you implement?

a)

Proxy server

b)

Firewall

c)

ICS

d)

Packet Internet Groper

70.

You recently created a new network segment for the development department. Because the hosts are now on a different network segment, they can no longer contact the DHCP server. Both network segments are connected via a Cisco router.

Which of the following would be the best action to take in order to fix the problem?

a)

Move the DHCP server to the new network segment

b)

Configure the router to forward broadcast messages.

c)

Install and configure a new DHCP server on the development network segment.

d)

Implement an IP helper address on the router

71.

You have a workstation connected to a small branch network using a single switch. The network does not have any routers and is not connected to the internet. What are the minimum configuration parameters required on the workstation to be able to communicate with all hosts on the network?

a)

IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway

b)

IP address

c)

IP address and subnet mask

d)

IP address and default gateway

72.

Which of the following is the last IP address that can be assigned to hosts on the 166.70.0.0 network using the default subnet mask?

a)

166.70.0.255

b)

166.70.255.254

c)

166.70.255.255

d)

166.70.0.254

e)

166.71.0.0

73.

Your network has been assigned the Class C network address 200.78.151.0. Which of the following addresses can be assigned to hosts on your network? (Select three.)

a)

200.78.151.0

b)

200.78.151.252

c)

200.78.151.111

d)

200.78.151.257

e)

200.78.151.12

74.

Your network has been assigned the Class B network address of 179.113.0.0. Which three of the following addresses can be assigned to hosts on your network?

a)

179.113.0.0

b)

179.113.0.118

c)

179.113.89.0

d)

179.113.65.12

e)

179.112.95.64

75.

Assuming the network is indicated by the default portion of the IP address, which three of the following IP addresses belong to the Class A network 114.0.0.0? (Select three.)

a)

114.122.66.12

b)

115.77.89.4

c)

114.58.12.0

d)

114.0.0.15

e)

115.88.0.55

76.

A host on the network has an IP address of 129.11.99.78 using the default subnet mask. How would you identify the address and mask using CIDR notation?

a)

129.11.99.78:16

b)

129.11.99.78:8

c)

129.11.99.78/16

d)

129.11.99.78/24

77.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of using subnets?

a)

Subnets place each device within its own collision domain.

b)

Subnets combine multiple IP network addresses into one network address.

c)

Subnets let you connect a private network to the internet.

d)

Subnets divide an IP network address into multiple network addresses.

78.

Which of the following terms are often synonymous with or made possible with CIDR? (Select two.)

a)

Classful

b)

NAT

c)

VLSM

d)

Classless

e)

OSPF

79.

You manage a subnet that uses the subnet address 198.162.1.0/23.

Which of the following best describes how addressing is configured for the subnet?

a)

Private

b)

Supernetting

c)

Subnetting

d)

Classful

80.

You manage a server that uses an IP address of 192.168.255.188 with a mask of 255.255.0.0.

Which of the following describes the address type?

a)

Broadcast

b)

Multicast

c)

Classful

d)

Public

e)

Classless

81.

You've decided to use a subnet mask of 255.255.192.0 on the 172.17.0.0 network to create four separate subnets.

Which network IDs will be assigned to these subnets in this configuration? (Select two.)

a)

172.17.16.0

b)

172.17.0.0

c)

172.17.32.0

d)

172.17.96.0

e)

172.17.128.0

82.

Which of the following IP address ranges is reserved for automatic private IP addressing?

a)

169.192.0.0 - 169.192.254.255

b)

192.168.0.1 - 192.168.254.255

c)

192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.254

d)

169.254.0.1 - 169.254.255.254

e)

169.168.0.1 - 169.168.255.255

83.

What is the network address and subnet mask used by APIPA? (Select two.)

a)

255.255.0.0

b)

255.255.255.0

c)

255.0.0.0

d)

169.254.0.0

e)

169.255.0.0

84.

CorpServ is a small company with 14 client systems and a network printer. Because there are only a limited number of networked systems, you decide to use APIPA addressing for the network. With APIPA configured, all systems are able to communicate with each other, but you are having trouble configuring Internet access.

What is the likely cause of the problem?

a)

Private addresses cannot directly communicate to hosts outside the local subnet.

b)

The DNS server is unavailable to resolve internet host names.

c)

The default gateway is not set on the client systems.

d)

The default gateway is not set on the server.

e)

All client systems must be rebooted.