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2021 Anesthesia Quiz Bowl

Total questions: 35

Worksheet time: 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1. The following extraocular muscles are innervated by the oculomotor (III) nerve, except:

a)

Superior Rectus

b)

Medial Rectus

c)

Inferior Oblique

d)

Superior Oblique

2.

 2. What is the ASA Physical Status Classification of a healthy young man requiring inguinal herniorraphy?

a)

ASA Status 1

b)

ASA Status 2

c)

 ASA Status 3

d)

ASA Status 4

3.

3. What is the average total volume of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

a)

About 100 mL

b)

About 150 mL

c)

About 200 mL

d)

About 250 mL

4.

4. The brachial plexus is usually formed from the anterior rami of what nerve roots?

a)

C4 – C8

b)

C5 – C8

c)

C5 – T1

d)

C6 – T1

5.

5. What is the preoperative fasting recommendation for a young man who just had a full, heavy, fatty meal?

a)

4 hours

b)

6 hours

c)

8 hours

d)

10 hours

6.

6. Which of the following adrenergic receptors causes inhibition of norepinephrine release when stimulated?

a)

Beta-1 receptors

b)

Beta-2 receptors

c)

Alpha-1 receptors

d)

Alpha-2 receptors

7.

7. Which of the following acid-base disorders has a decrease in HCO3 as the primary disturbance?

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

8.

8. Which of the following intravenous anesthetics is a barbiturate?

a)

Thiopental

b)

Etomidate

c)

Propofol

d)

Ketamine

9.

9. The following are the common side effects of opioids, except:

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Nausea

c)

Pruritus

d)

Respiratory Depression

10.

11. Which of the following intravenous anesthetics is least likely to result in nausea and vomiting?

a)

Ketamine

b)

Benzodiazepines

c)

Propofol

d)

Thiopental

11.

12. A 60-year-old female is for elective surgery. What drug should be put on hold?

a)

Beta blocker

b)

Statins

c)

Calcium channel blocker

d)

ACE inhibitor

12.

13. In the Mallampati classification of the oropharynx, what is the classification when the soft palate is visible, but pharyngeal pillars and uvula are not visualized?

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

Class IV

13.

14. Which of the following are paired cartilages of the neck?

a)

Thyroid

b)

Cricoid

c)

Epiglottic

d)

Arytenoid

14.

15. What is the largest nerve supplying the leg?

a)

Femoral Nerve

b)

Lateral Femoral Cutaneous Nerve

c)

Obturator Nerve

d)

Sciatic Nerve

15.

16. Which of the following is not an absolute contraindication to major conduction anesthesia?

a)

Anemia

b)

Coagulopathy

c)

Infection at site

d)

Patient refusal

16.

17. Who is credited with the first use of true surgical anesthesia?

a)

Horace Wells

b)

Crawford Long

c)

William Morton

d)

Sir Humphry Davy

17.

18. In general inhalation anesthesia, what does MAC stand for?

a)

Mean Alveolar Concentration

b)

Mean Anesthetic Concentration

c)

Minimum Alveolar Concentration

d)

Minimum Anesthetic Concentration

18.

19. Who was the anesthetist of Queen Victoria when she gave birth to her eighth child in 1853?

a)

Sigmund Freud

b)

John Snow

c)

Robert Liston

d)

Horace Wells

19.

20. What is the average blood loss during vaginal delivery?

a)

300 cc

b)

600 cc

c)

1,000 cc

d)

1,500 cc

20.

21. What is the most appropriate surgical position during posterior fossa surgery?

a)

Supine position

b)

Lateral decubitus position

c)

Prone position

d)

Sitting position

21.

22. Alveoli first appear at what generation of the airways of the lung?

a)

Generation 17

b)

Generation 18

c)

Generation 19

d)

Generation 20

22.

33. When was the American Society of Anesthesiologist founded?

a)

1900

b)

1905

c)

1910

d)

1915

23.

24. What describes the volume of gas contained within the lungs during a maximal inspiration?

a)

Residual Volume

b)

 Total Lung Capacity

c)

Tidal Volume

d)

Functional Residual Capacity

24.

25. Which of the following responses are evoked by selective stimulation of alpha-1 (post-synaptic) receptors?

a)

Vasodilation

b)

 Bronchodilation

c)

Gastrointestinal relaxation

d)

Mydriasis

25.

26. Which of the following factors can displace the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the right?

a)

Increased body temperature

b)

Alkalosis

c)

Decreased concentrations of 2,3-DPG

d)

Presence of fetal hemoglobin

26.

27. Hoffmann elimination is the spontaneous degradation at physiologic pH and temperature. Which of the following non-depolarizing muscle relaxants undergo Hoffmann elimination?

a)

Rocuronium

b)

Vecuronium

c)

Mivacurium

d)

Atracurium

27.

28. What determines the duration of action of local anesthetics?

a)

pKa

b)

Lipid Solubility

c)

Protein Binding

d)

Partition Coefficient

28.

29. What is the minimum dermatome level for spinal or epidural anesthesia when you do a prostate or bladder surgery?

a)

T12

b)

T10

c)

T6

d)

T4

29.

30. Which of the following is a mixed agonist-antagonist opioid?

a)

Morphine

b)

Fentanyl

c)

Meperidine

d)

Nalbuphine

30.

EXTRA

 

1. What is the first local anesthetic used in history?

a)

Cocaine

b)

Lidocaine

c)

Bupivacaine

d)

Prilocaine

31.

EXTRA

2. When was the first National Anesthesia Day held?

a)

May 25, 2000

b)

October 25, 2000

c)

 May 25, 2005

d)

October 25, 2005

32.

EXTRA

3. Which of the following is defined as the ratio of the density of local anesthetic to the density of the CSF?

a)

Potency

b)

Baricity

c)

Lipid solubility

d)

Protein binding

33.

EXTRA

4. What is the average length of the adult trachea?

a)

10 to 14 centimeters

b)

12 to 16 centimeters

c)

14 to 18 centimeters

d)

16 to 20 centimeters

34.

EXTRA

5. What cranial nerve supplies sensation to the larynx?

a)

Trigeminal Nerve

b)

Facial Nerve

c)

Vagus Nerve

d)

Glossopharyngeal Nerve

35.

10. What is the dermatomal level at the umbilicus?

a)

T6

b)

T8

c)

T10

d)

T12