Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

N10-007 uC Security

Total questions: 62

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

SNMP uses a series of objects to collect information about a managed device. The structure, similar to a database, containing these objects is referred to as what?

a)

LSA

b)

RIB

c)

MIB

d)

DUAL

2.

Which of the following best defines an IDS sensor?

a)

An IDS sensor secures communication between two sites over an untrusted network.

b)

An IDS sensor defines a set of rules dictating which types of traffic are permitted or denied as that traffic enters or exits a firewall interface.

c)

An IDS sensor scans, audits, and monitors the security infrastructure for signs of attacks in progress.

d)

An IDS sensor enables external clients to access data on private systems without compromising the security of the internal network as a whole.

3.

Which of the following best defines a firewall?

a)

A firewall secures communication between two sites over an untrusted network.

b)

A firewall defines a set of rules dictating which types of traffic are permitted or denied as that traffic enters or exits a firewall interface.

c)

A firewall receives a copy of traffic being analyzed, can recognize the signature of a well-known attack, and respond appropriately.

d)

A firewall sits in-line with traffic being analyzed, can recognize the signature of a well-known attack, and respond appropriately.

4.

One error occurred during the transmission of 8 bits. What is the BER?

a)

.25

b)

0125

c)

025

d)

.125

5.

A toner probe is also known as what?

a)

OTDR

b)

TDR

c)

Fox and hound

d)

Tip and ring

6.

Which of the following tools best helps you determine which wires on a punch down block connect back to a specific user's office?

a)

Protocol analyzer

b)

Loopback plug

c)

Toner probe

d)

Punch down tool

7.

What is the name of the physical security device that is credit card sized and allows a user to authenticate onto a network?

a)

Bioidentification

b)

Smart card

c)

SmartID

d)

Biometrics

8.

Which of the following security threats can infect a system or propagate to other systems without any intervention from an end user?

a)

Worm

b)

Virus

c)

Keylogger

d)

Trojan horse

9.

Which of the following can send an alert to a network administrator if humidity levels in a server farm exceeds a configured threshold?

a)

Environmental monitor

b)

TDR

c)

OTDR

d)

Multimeter

10.

What type of software application should network administrators routinely use to verify the security of their network and check for any weaknesses?

a)

Honeypot

b)

Vulnerability scanner

c)

Profile scanner

d)

Posture monitor

e)

Antivirus

11.

Which of the following protocols are most commonly used to provide security for an HTTPS connection? (Choose two.)

a)

L2TP

b)

TLS

c)

PPTP

d)

SSL

12.

Which of the following remote access security technologies is a TCP-based protocol used to communicate with an AAA server and encrypts an entire authentication packet, rather than just the password?

a)

RADIUS

b)

TACACS+

c)

CHAP

d)

Kerberos

13.

Which of the following is a vulnerability scanner product from Tenable Network Security®?

a)

Honeynet

b)

Nmap

c)

Nessus®

d)

Honeypot

14.

What is the name of the physical security device that's commonly grouped with keys and can be used to gain access to a network or a physical location?

a)

Smart cards

b)

Access token

c)

Key fob

d)

SmartID

15.

Which of the following is a system designed to appear as an attractive attack target?

a)

Honeynet

b)

Nmap

c)

Nessus®

d)

Honeypot

16.

While an IPsec tunnel is being established, the peers at each end of the tunnel determine whether or not a certain feature should be used. This feature makes sure that a session key will remain secure, even if one of the private keys used to derive the session key becomes compromised. What is the name of this feature?

a)

Diffie-Hellman (DH)

b)

Security association (SA)

c)

Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol (ISAKMP)

d)

Perfect forward secrecy (PFS)

17.

Which of the following security threats is a piece of code (for example, a program or a script) that infects a system, because an end-user executed a program?

a)

Worm

b)

Trojan horse

c)

Keylogger

d)

Virus

18.

Identify the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) component that is a piece of software, which runs on a managed device (for example, a server, router, or a switch).

a)

MIB

b)

SNMP agent

c)

SNMP manager

d)

SNMP trap

19.

Which two of the following are firewall inspection types?

a)

Hardware

b)

Packet filtering

c)

Stateful

d)

Software

20.

Which two of the following virtual private network (VPN) protocols lack native security features?

a)

L2TP

b)

SSL

c)

TLS

d)

PPTP

21.

Which of the following protocols can be used to remotely connect to and control the desktop of a Microsoft Windows® computer?

a)

WINS

b)

RTP

c)

RDP

d)

SNMP

22.

Identify the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) component that is also known as an NMS.

a)

MIB

b)

SNMP trap

c)

SNMP manager

d)

SNMP agent

23.

Which of the following security threats is a program that appears to be for one purpose (for example, a game), but secretly performs another task (for example, collecting a list of contacts from an end-user's e-mail program)?

a)

Worm

b)

Virus

c)

Keylogger

d)

Trojan horse

24.

Which of the following is a symmetric encryption algorithm available in 128-bit, 192-bit, and 256-bit key versions?

a)

TKIP

b)

RSA

c)

3DES

d)

AES

25.

A notification that a specific operation failed to complete successfully is classified as what syslog severity level?

a)

Informational (6)

b)

Warnings (4)

c)

Errors (3)

d)

Critical (2)

26.

Which of the following security solutions consists of software running on a host to protect that host against a collection of well-known attacks?

a)

NIPS

b)

L2F

c)

NIDS

d)

HIPS

27.

Which two of the following protocols are commonly used to communicate with an AAA server?

a)

Kerberos

b)

TACACS+

c)

RDP

d)

RADIUS

28.

What are the three levels of security associated with events appearing in Microsoft Windows® application logs?

a)

Error

b)

Critical

c)

Warning

d)

Information

29.

A dedicated network device that acts as an intrusion prevention system (IPS) sensor is called a

a)

NIPS

b)

HIPS

c)

HIDS

d)

NIDS

30.

Which of the following is a Microsoft Windows® log that would report events such as a failed login attempt?

a)

Syslog

b)

Application

c)

Security

d)

System

31.

Which of the following is a set of communication rules that govern the secure implementation of a VPN?

a)

IPSec

b)

PPTP

c)

DHCP

d)

TLS

32.

Which two of the following virtual private network (VPN) tunneling protocols can be used to provide security for HTTPS?

a)

L2TP

b)

PPTP

c)

TLS

d)

SSL

33.

Which of the following remote access security technologies is a UDP-based protocol used to communicate with an AAA server and does not encrypt an entire authentication packet, but only encrypts the password?

a)

Kerberos

b)

RADIUS

c)

TACACS+

d)

CHAP

34.

Which component of an SNMP solution is a piece of software, which runs on a managed device (for example, a server, router, or a switch)?

a)

SNMP trap

b)

MIB

c)

SNMP agent

d)

SNMP manager

35.

Which of the following IDS/IPS detection methods could trigger an alarm if a certain string of bytes, in a certain context, is observed?

a)

Non-statistical anomaly detection

b)

Statistical anomaly detection

c)

Policy-based detection

d)

Signature-based detection

36.

Which of the following is a Microsoft Windows® log that would report events related to software applications running on the underlying operating system?

a)

Application

b)

Security

c)

System

d)

Syslog

37.

Which of the following user authentication technologies is used by Microsoft Windows® clients to remotely access a Microsoft Windows® network?

a)

802.1X

b)

PKI

c)

RAS

d)

MS-CHAP

38.

Which of the following remote access security technologies performs authentication through a three-way handshake (that is, challenge, response, and acceptance messages) between a server and a client, where the three-way handshake allows a client to be authenticated without sending credential information across a network?

a)

CHAP

b)

TACACS+

c)

RADIUS

d)

Kerberos

39.

Which of the following IDS/IPS detection methods watches network traffic patterns over a period of time and dynamically builds a baseline?

a)

Non-statistical anomaly detection

b)

Signature-based detection

c)

Policy-based detection

d)

Statistical anomaly detection

40.

While an IPsec tunnel is being established, which of the following acts as an agreement between the two IPsec peers about the cryptographic parameters to be used in the ISAKMP session?

a)

Security association (SA)

b)

Diffie-Hellman (DH)

c)

Perfect forward secrecy (PFS)

d)

Secure sockets layer (SSL)

41.

Which of the following remote access technologies is a Citrix Systems® proprietary protocol that allows applications running on one platform (for example, Microsoft Windows®) to be seen and controlled from a remote client, independent of the client platform (for example, UNIX)?

a)

ICA

b)

PPP

c)

RDP

d)

RAS

42.

Which of the following IDS/IPS detection methods allows an administrator to define what normal traffic patterns are supposed to look like?

a)

Signature-based detection

b)

Policy-based detection

c)

Statistical anomaly detection

d)

Non-statistical anomaly detection

43.

Which Syslog severity level produces highly detailed information that is typically used for troubleshooting purposes?

a)

4

b)

1

c)

0

d)

7

44.

Which of the following specifies how authentication is performed by IEEE 802.1X?

a)

SSO

b)

EAP

c)

TFA

d)

Multifactor authentication

45.

While an IPsec tunnel is being established, which of the following securely establishes a shared secret key, over the unsecured medium?

a)

Perfect forward secrecy (PFS)

b)

Diffie-Hellman (DH)

c)

Security association (SA)

d)

Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol (ISAKMP)

46.

Which of the following is an IPSec protocol that provides authentication and integrity services but does not support encryption?

a)

ESP

b)

AH

c)

IKE Phase II

d)

IKE Phase I

47.

What feature allows a firewall to permit traffic to flow from a trusted network (for example, a corporate intranet) to an untrusted network (for example, the Internet) and then allow return traffic for that session, while blocking sessions initiated on the untrusted network?

a)

Implicit deny all instruction

b)

Demilitarized zone

c)

Stateful inspection

d)

Packet filtering

48.

Which of the following is a publicly available network security scanner?

a)

Honeypot

b)

Honeynet

c)

Nmap

d)

Access control lists

49.

Which of the following requires two types of authentication (but no more) from a user seeking admission to a network?

a)

EAP

b)

SSO

c)

Multifactor authentication

d)

TFA

50.

Which of the following security attacks occurs when an attacker exploits a known vulnerability in an application (for example, an error in an application that allowed that application to write to an area of memory dedicated to a different application), which could cause another application to crash?

a)

Packet sniffing attack

b)

Buffer overflow attack

c)

Social engineering attack

d)

Man-in-the-middle attack

51.

Which of the following user authentication protocols added two-way authentication to an earlier version of the protocol?

a)

802.1X

b)

PKI

c)

RAS

d)

MS-CHAP

52.

What type of authentication credentials are used by SNMPv2c?

a)

SHA

b)

Username/password

c)

Community strings

d)

MD5

53.

Which of the following security attacks leverages the PORT command?

a)

FTP bounce attack

b)

Smurf attack

c)

DoS attack

d)

DDoS attack

54.

Which of the following remote access technologies is a common Layer 2 protocol offering features such as: multilink interface, looped link detection, error detection, and authentication?

a)

PPP

b)

RDP

c)

RAS

d)

ICA

55.

Which of the following security attacks uses Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) traffic with the intended victim's spoofed source IP, directed to a subnet, to flood a target system with Ping replies?

a)

DoS attack

b)

Smurf attack

c)

FTP bounce attack

d)

DDoS attack

56.

Identify the broad categories of SNMP message types. (Choose three.)

a)

Set

b)

Trap

c)

Get

d)

Put

57.

Which of the following user authentication technologies uses digital certificates and a certificate authority (CA)?

a)

802.1X

b)

MS-CHAP

c)

RAS

d)

PKI

58.

Which of the following remote access security technologies is a client-server authentication protocol and uses the concept of a trusted third party (that is, a Key Distribution Center) that hands out tickets that are used instead of a username and password combination?

a)

TACACS+

b)

CHAP

c)

Kerberos

d)

RADIUS

59.

Which of the following is a continually changing document that dictates a set of guidelines for network use?

a)

Syslog report

b)

QoS policy

c)

Security policy

d)

Post-mortem report

60.

What is a snapshot of performance on a typical usage level for the network?

a)

Incremental report

b)

SLA

c)

Baseline

d)

Differential report

61.

What Microsoft Windows application enables you to view a variety of log types, including application, security, and system logs?

a)

Control Panel

b)

Event Viewer

c)

Performance Monitor

d)

Microsoft Management Console

62.

What is a best practice to prevent you from damaging a circuit board with static from your body?

a)

Apply antistatic spray to the circuit board.

b)

Ground the circuit board.

c)

Stand on a carpeted floor (or a rug) when working on a circuit board to provide insulation between your body and an electric ground potential.

d)

Wear an ESD wrist strap.

e)

UPS