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Path - ID

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 3570secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

benefits only the human; no harm to the microorganism

a)

Symbiosis

b)

Mutualism

c)

Commensalism

d)

Pathogenicity

e)

Opportunism

2.

benefits the human and the microorganism

a)

Symbiosis

b)

Mutualism

c)

Commensalism

d)

Pathogenicity

e)

Opportunism

3.

benefits only the microorganisms no harm to the human

a)

Symbiosis

b)

Mutualism

c)

Commensalism

d)

Pathogenicity

e)

Opportunism

4.

benefits the microorganism; harms the human

a)

Symbiosis

b)

Mutualism

c)

Commensalism

d)

Pathogenicity

e)

Opportunism

5.

a situation in which benign microorganisms become pathogenic because of decreased human host resistance

a)

Symbiosis

b)

Mutualism

c)

Commensalism

d)

Pathogenicity

e)

Opportunism

6.

Period from initial exposure to the onset of the first symptoms; could last from hours to years.

a)

Incubation period

b)

Prodromal period

c)

Invasion period

d)

Convalescence

7.

The occurrence of initial symptoms are often very mild with feelings of discomfort and tiredness.

a)

Incubation period

b)

Prodromal period

c)

Invasion period

d)

Convalescence

8.

farther and affects other body tissues: SYMPTOMS

a)

Incubation period

b)

Prodromal period

c)

Invasion period

d)

Convalescence

9.

Recovery occurs and symptoms decline, or the disease is fatal, or has a period of latency.

a)

Incubation period

b)

Prodromal period

c)

Invasion period

d)

Convalescence

10.

Gram ________ bacteria have lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane that is known as _________. ***

a)

negative; endotoxin

b)

negative; exotoxin

c)

positive; endotoxin

d)

positive; exotoxin

11.

agents that can produce fever (exogenous or endogenous)

a)

pyrogens

b)

vectors

c)

biofilms

12.

Gram stain detects peptidoglycan --> gram ____ picks up stain ***

a)

positive

b)

negative

13.

proteins released during bacterial growth

a)

exotoxins

b)

endotoxins

14.

Released during lysis of bacteria

a)

exotoxins

b)

endotoxins

15.

fever-producing: YES

a)

exotoxins

b)

endotoxins

16.

toxicity (ability to cause disease): HIGH

a)

exotoxins

b)

endotoxins

17.

Involves small mutations in the genes for HA or NA

a)

antigenic drift

b)

antigenic shift

18.

mutation results in new strain (big change)

a)

antigenic drift

b)

antigenic shift

19.

infects multiple species

a)

Flu A

b)

Flu B

20.

only infects humans

a)

Flu A

b)

Flu B

21.

binds host cell

a)

HA-hemagglutinin

b)

NA-neuraminidase

22.

essential for release of new virions

a)

HA-hemagglutinin

b)

NA-neuraminidase

23.

Gram stain detects peptidoglycan --> gram _____ does not pick up stain ***

a)

positive

b)

negative

24.

are heavy; can land in mouth, nose or eyes of people nearby. Produced by coughing, sneezing or talking

a)

droplets

b)

aerosol

25.

made of micro-droplets that are lighter and stay suspended in the air for longer than droplets. Produced during normal breathing.

a)

droplets

b)

aerosol

26.

transfer microorganisms passively from a contaminated site to an individual

a)

mechanical vector

b)

biologic vector

27.

transmit microbes through bites or stings

a)

mechanical vector

b)

biologic vector

28.

Vectors are

a)

direct contact

b)

indirect contact

29.

from mother to offspring

a)

vertical transmission

b)

horizontal transmission

30.

Listeria, CMV, Toxoplasma

a)

Microbes that cross placenta

b)

Microbes that ascend birth canal

c)

Microbes that pass through breast milk

31.

group B strep, HIV, Candida

a)

Microbes that cross placenta

b)

Microbes that ascend birth canal

c)

Microbes that pass through breast milk

32.

Staph aureus

a)

Microbes that cross placenta

b)

Microbes that ascend birth canal

c)

Microbes that pass through breast milk

33.

Diseases with relatively high, but constant, rates of infection in a particular population

a)

Endemic

b)

Epidemic

c)

Pandemic

34.

Number of new infections in a particular population that greatly exceeds the number usually observed

a)

Endemic

b)

Epidemic

c)

Pandemic

35.

An epidemic that spreads over a large area such as a continent or worldwide

a)

Endemic

b)

Epidemic

c)

Pandemic

36.

Ability to spread from one individual to others and cause disease

a)

Virulence

b)

Communicability

c)

Opportunistic

d)

Vector

37.

Agent that carries infectious microorganisms from an infected organism to uninfected ones

a)

Virulence

b)

Communicability

c)

Opportunistic

d)

Vector

38.

Capacity of an organism to cause severe disease

a)

Virulence

b)

Communicability

c)

Opportunistic

d)

Vector

39.

Normally not causing disease, but able to do so when an individual's immune system is suppressed

a)

Virulence

b)

Communicability

c)

Opportunistic

d)

Vector

40.

Bacteria that grow in complex multicellular masses called ______ have some protection from host immune responses and antibiotics

a)

pyrogens

b)

vectors

c)

biofilms

41.

Bacteria that produce endotoxins are called _______ bacteria because they cause fever.

a)

pyrogenic

b)

biofilm

42.

Occurs with hepatitis B and hepatitis C with a predisposition to cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma.

a)

Chronic active hepatitis

b)

Fulminant hepatitis

c)

Encephalopathy

43.

-Is a complication of hepatitis B (with or without hepatitis D infection) or hepatitis C.

-Causes widespread hepatic necrosis.

-Is often fatal.

a)

Chronic active hepatitis

b)

Fulminant hepatitis

c)

Encephalopathy

44.

-Manifests as confusion, stupor, and coma.

-Liver failure and death can occur

a)

Chronic active hepatitis

b)

Fulminant hepatitis

c)

Encephalopathy

45.

indicates there is an ongoing infection, acute or chronic

a)

HBsAg

b)

Anti-HBs

c)

HBeAg

d)

Anti-HBc

e)

Anti-HBc (IgM)

46.

Indicates recovery and immunity from hepatitis B virus by natural infection or has been successfully vaccinated against hepatitis B

a)

HBsAg

b)

Anti-HBs

c)

HBeAg

d)

Anti-HBc

e)

Anti-HBc (IgM)

47.

the person was infected with the virus and the virus particle was open to the immune system

a)

HBsAg

b)

Anti-HBs

c)

HBeAg

d)

Anti-HBc

e)

Anti-HBc (IgM)

48.

*immunized individuals do not get exposure to

a)

core proteins (HBeAg)

b)

surface antigen (HBsAg)

49.

*not measurable after vaccination

a)

core proteins (HBeAg)

b)

surface antigen (HBsAg)

50.

-Appears at onset of symptoms in acute hepatitis B and persists for life.

-Indicates previous or ongoing infection in an undefined time frame.

a)

HBsAg

b)

Anti-HBs

c)

HBeAg

d)

Anti-HBc

e)

Anti-HBc (IgM)

51.

-Indicates recent infection, 6 months or less

-Acute infection

a)

HBsAg

b)

Anti-HBs

c)

HBeAg

d)

Anti-HBc

e)

Anti-HBc (IgM)

52.

viral surface antigen

a)

HBsAg

b)

Anti-HBs

c)

HBeAg

d)

Anti-HBc

53.

antibody to the surface antigens

a)

HBsAg

b)

Anti-HBs

c)

HBeAg

d)

Anti-HBc

54.

viral core protein

a)

HBsAg

b)

Anti-HBs

c)

HBeAg

d)

Anti-HBc

55.

Antibody to the viral core proteins

a)

HBsAg

b)

Anti-HBs

c)

HBeAg

d)

Anti-HBc

56.

Fulminant hepatitis is most common in ***

a)

Hepatitis A

b)

Hepatitis B (with hep D infection)

c)

Hepatitis B (w/o hep D infection)

d)

Hepatitis C

e)

Hepatitis E

57.

Lesions can occur from scarring from cirrhosis common in

a)

chronic Hep A

b)

chronic Hep B

c)

chronic Hep C

58.

Hepatitis causing the most severe damage to hepatocytes

a)

Hep A

b)

Hep B

c)

Hep C

d)

Hep D

e)

Hep E

59.

Begins approximately 2 weeks after exposure; ends with the appearance of jaundice.

a)

Incubation phase

b)

Prodromal (preicteric) phase

c)

Icteric phase

d)

Recovery phase

60.

Is highly transmissible at this phase

a)

Incubation phase

b)

Prodromal (preicteric) phase

c)

Icteric phase

d)

Recovery phase

61.

Clinical manifestations: Fever, malaise, anorexia, and liver enlargement and tenderness; RUQ pain

a)

Incubation phase

b)

Prodromal (preicteric) phase

c)

Icteric phase

d)

Recovery phase

62.

Is the actual phase of illness.

a)

Incubation phase

b)

Prodromal (preicteric) phase

c)

Icteric phase

d)

Recovery phase

63.

Clinical manifestations: Jaundice and hyperbilirubinemia (itching); fatigue and abdominal pain, liver is enlarged smooth and tender.

a)

Incubation phase

b)

Prodromal (preicteric) phase

c)

Icteric phase

d)

Recovery phase

64.

Prevented through vaccination

a)

Hepatitis A

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Hepatitis C

d)

Hepatitis D → through Hep B vaccine

e)

Hepatitis E → vaccine only in China

65.

-Is responsible for most cases of posttransfusion hepatitis.

-Is also implicated in infections related to IV drug use and human immunodeficiency viral (HIV) infection.

a)

Hepatitis A

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Hepatitis C

d)

Hepatitis D

e)

Hepatitis E

66.

-Is transmitted through contact with infected blood, body fluids, and contaminated needles.

-Maternal transmission occurs if the mother is infected during the third trimester.

a)

Hepatitis A

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Hepatitis C

67.

filamentous fungi grow as multinucleate, branching hyphae, forming a mycelium

a)

molds

b)

yeasts

68.

grows as ovoid or spherical; single cells multiply by budding and division

a)

molds

b)

yeasts

69.

Human-to-human-only with

a)

dermatophytes

b)

mycosis

70.

strategy of fungi: they have ________ to adhere to receptors (typically toll-like receptors) ***

a)

polysaccharides

b)

pili

c)

capsules

d)

biofilms

71.

most common fungal infection

a)

Cryptococcus neoformans

b)

Candida albicans

72.

Capsule-resistance to phagocytosis

a)

Cryptococcus neoformans

b)

Candida albicans

73.

Candida albicans: infection remains localized

a)

immunocompetent

b)

immunocompromised

74.

Candida albicans: infection can become systemic

a)

immunocompetent

b)

immunocompromised

75.

Transmitted by the tsetse fly

a)

Trypanosomes

b)

Leishmania spp.

c)

Entamoeba Histolytica

d)

Giardia lamblia

76.

Transmitted by sand fleas

a)

Trypanosomes

b)

Leishmania spp.

c)

Entamoeba Histolytica

d)

Giardia lamblia

77.

failure of at least two organs caused by a systemic inflammatory response after a severe illness or injury

a)

bacteremia

b)

sepsis

c)

septic shock

78.

a systemic response to inflammation, defined clinically by specific changes from baseline temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, or WBC parameters

a)

bacteremia

b)

sepsis

c)

septic shock

79.

found in contaminated water or food and transmission is by ingestion

a)

Trypanosomes

b)

Leishmania spp.

c)

Entamoeba Histolytica

d)

Giardia lamblia

80.

change their variable surface glycoproteins (VSG)

a)

Trypanosomes

b)

Leishmania spp.

c)

Entamoeba Histolytica

d)

Giardia lamblia

81.

Survive intracellularly

a)

Trypanosoma

b)

Leishmania

c)

Entamoeba Histolytica

d)

Giardia lamblia

82.

Switching Variant Surface Glycoprotein Gene Expression in Trypanosomes

a)

gene conversion

b)

telomere exchange

c)

transcriptional switch

83.

In Sepsis, Microbes Enter the Bloodstream Directly and/or Indirectly: microbes enter the bloodstream from a site of localized infection

a)

direct

b)

indirect

84.

In Sepsis, Microbes Enter the Bloodstream Directly and/or Indirectly: microbes release toxic substances directly into the bloodstream

a)

direct

b)

indirect

85.

Enzyme used to generate complementary DNA (cDNA) from an RNA template, a process termed reverse transcription; used by retroviruses to replicate their genomes

a)

Reverse transcriptase

b)

Integrase

86.

Enzyme that integrates (forms covalent links between) its DNA into the host DNA

a)

Reverse transcriptase

b)

Integrase

87.

envelope proteins

a)

gp41

b)

gp120

c)

CD4

d)

CCR5

e)

gp160

88.

the spike

a)

gp41

b)

gp120

c)

CD4

d)

CCR5

e)

gp160

89.

converts single-stranded viral RNA into double-stranded DNA

a)

Reverse transcriptase

b)

Integrase

90.

inserts viral DNA into the infected cell's DNA, where it may remain dormant

a)

Reverse transcriptase

b)

Integrase

91.

encodes a protein that is modified by viral protease to generate smaller matrix (e.g., p17) and capsid proteins (e.g., p24)

a)

gag gene

b)

env gene

92.

encodes a glycoprotein that is processed by cellular protease (furin) into the TM and SU proteins

a)

gag gene

b)

env gene

93.

replication and release of new virions triggers apoptotic cell death of the infected cell; infected cells also become a target for killing by CD8+ T-cytotoxic cell

a)

Infected cell death

b)

Neighboring uninfected cell death

94.

release of death ligands (e.g., Fas ligand [FasL], TNF) initiates apoptosis in neighboring uninfected Th cells

a)

Infected cell death

b)

Neighboring uninfected cell death

95.

Viral replication and T-cell destruction continue in the lymph nodes, although the individual is generally asymptomatic.

a)

Period of Clinical Latency

b)

Disease Progression

c)

Initial Phase of Infection

96.

As the disease progresses, the person may develop constitutional symptoms—a variety of symptoms of acute viral infection that do not involve opportunistic infections or malignancies.

a)

Period of Clinical Latency

b)

Disease Progression

c)

Initial Phase of Infection

97.

When the number of CD4+ cells is critically suppressed, the person becomes susceptible to a variety of opportunistic infections and cancers.

a)

Period of Clinical Latency

b)

Disease Progression

c)

Initial Phase of Infection

98.

Antibodies against HIV-1 are not yet detectable (window period)

a)

Initial Phase of Infection

b)

Latent Phase of Infection

c)

Disease Progression

99.

Viral products, including p24 antigen, viral RNA, and infectious virus, may be detectable in the blood a few weeks after infection

a)

Initial Phase of Infection

b)

Latent Phase of Infection

c)

Disease Progression

100.

Most antibodies produced against envelope proteins in the early phase are absorbed onto viral particles in the blood and are not detectable by most routine assays.

a)

Initial Phase of Infection

b)

Latent Phase of Infection

c)

Disease Progression

101.

Antibody levels against p24 and other viral proteins, as well as HIV-specific CTLs, generally increase and then remain constant until the development of AIDS.

a)

Initial Phase of Infection

b)

Latent Phase of Infection

c)

Disease Progression

102.

As the immune system becomes severely depressed and excess viral antigen is released into the blood, measurable antibody levels decrease.

a)

Initial Phase of Infection

b)

Latent Phase of Infection

c)

Disease Progression

103.

Inhibitors of the enzyme reverse transcriptase

a)

NRTIs

b)

NNRTIs

c)

PIs

d)

Entry/Fusion Inhibitors

104.

Inhibitors of non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

a)

NRTIs

b)

NNRTIs

c)

PIs

d)

Entry/Fusion Inhibitors

105.

Inhibitors of the viral protease

a)

NRTIs

b)

NNRTIs

c)

PIs

d)

Entry/Fusion Inhibitors

106.

prevent attachment of the virus to the target cell or prevent fusion between HIV and the cell membrane

a)

NRTIs

b)

NNRTIs

c)

PIs

d)

Entry/Fusion Inhibitors

107.

Inhibitors of the viral integrase enzyme

a)

Entry/Fusion Inhibitors

b)

INSTIs

c)

Pharmacokinetic enhancers

108.

-Administered with some PIs and INSTIs

-Affect intestinal transport proteins and liver enzyme that would normally break down some antiretroviral drugs, thus allowing smaller doses to be used

a)

Entry/Fusion Inhibitors

b)

INSTIs

c)

Pharmacokinetic enhancers

109.

Which of the following is indicative of autoimmune hepatitis? [Riggs prac quiz]

a)

Positive ANA result

b)

elevated ALT levels

c)

HBsAG positive

d)

HBsAG negative

110.

HBsAg is a measure of: [Riggs prac quiz]

a)

a history of infection (time line non-specific)

b)

immunization

c)

resolved infection

d)

Acute infection

111.

A 45-year-old woman was diagnosed 6 months ago with acute hepatitis B infection. She is unaware of how she contracted the virus. She takes no medications and since the diagnosis, she has started taking a multivitamin and has started exercising. She now has the following serologies: HBsAg negative; anti-HBsAg positive; HBeAg negative; anti-HBcAg positive. Which of the following is the correct diagnosis? [Riggs' prac quiz]

a)

Susceptible to infection

b)

Chronic active infection with high infectivity

c)

Resolved acute infection

d)

Immune due to vaccination

112.

low systemic vascular resistance, normal or elevated cardiac output, body temperature instability, elevated blood cytokine levels, possible manifestations of infection and of organ dysfunction

a)

bacteremia

b)

sepsis

c)

septic shock

113.

presence of viable bacteria in the blood

a)

bacteremia

b)

sepsis

c)

septic shock

114.

life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection

a)

bacteremia

b)

sepsis

c)

septic shock

115.

sepsis that is complicated by persistent hypotension refractory to fluid therapy

a)

bacteremia

b)

sepsis

c)

septic shock