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Pharmaceutics exam 2

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Human plasma contains about 5mEq/liter of Ca2+ ions. How many milligrams of CaCl2.2H2O (molecular weight 147g/mole) are required to prepare 250ml of a solution equal in Ca2+ to human plasma?

a)

91.88 g

b)

147 mg

c)

183.75 mg

d)

91.88 mg

2.

10g of sucrose (MW: 342g/mole) is dissolved in 500ml of water at 25C. What is the osmotic pressure of the solution? (R=0.082L atm/mole deg)

a)

0.0697 atm

b)

0.697 atm

c)

0.83 atm

d)

1.43 atm

3.

What is the normality of the 100ml solution containing 585mg of CaCl in water? (Atomic mass of NaCl=58.5)

a)

0.1 N

b)

1 N

c)

10 N

d)

0.01 N

4.

sucrose is a

a)

non-electrolyte

b)

strong acid

c)

electrolyte

d)

weak base

5.

Which of the following statements is correct about osmosis?

a)

the osmotic pressure is proportional to number of ions or molecules of solute dissolved in a solvent

b)

the osmotic pressure is proportional to the molecular or ionic size of the solute dissolved in a solvent

c)

neither

6.

Indicate which of the following statements is correct

a)

When a solution is contained within a semipermeable membrane and separated from the solvent, the solvent will not pass across the membrane into the solution

b)

A solution that has a greater osmotic pressure than plasma is said the be hypotonic

c)

The chemical potential or concentration of a solvent molecule in the solution is greater than that in a pure solvent

d)

When red blood cells are immersed in a hypertonic solution they will shrink

7.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding diarrhea?

a)

The net result of impairment of cryptic and villus cells activity is flow of water from intestinal lumen towards blood

b)

The diarrhea causing microorganisms impoair either the cryptic or villus cells activity or activity of both which results into more production of Cl- ions or less absorption of nutrients and Na+ ions

c)

There is no co-transport system for other substances except glucose and sodium ions in intestine

d)

There is a co-transport system unaffected by diarrhea causing microorganism, which transports Na+ ions to blood regardless of the presence of glucose

8.

Osmolarity is expressed as osmol/L of aqueous solution

a)

true

b)

false

9.

1g of a drug is soluble in 35ml of water. Which one of the following correctly define it solubility as per USP definition

a)

Very slightly soluble

b)

Freely soluble

c)

Sparingly soluble

d)

Very soluble

10.

A solution isosmotic with blood would be definitely isotonic too

a)

true

b)

false

11.

Osmolarity is expressed as osmol/kg of water

a)

true

b)

false

12.

Osmolality is expressed as osmol/kg of water

a)

true

b)

false

13.

Molarity of a solution does not depend on temperature of the solution

a)

true

b)

false

14.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding diarrhea?

a)

Water from blood flows into intestinal lumen due to secretion of Cl- ions into the intestinal lumen by cryptic cells

b)

The diarrhea causing microorganisms impair either the cryptic or villus cells activity but never activity of both which results into more production of Cl- ions or less absorption of nutrients and Na+ ions

c)

The net result of impairment of cryptic and villus cells activity is flow of water from intestinal lumen towards blood

d)

The intestinal villi cells absorb nutrients and Na+ ions from food and pump these ultimately into the circulatory system which creates the flow of water from the blood to intestine

15.

When chloroform and acetone were mixed together, their total vapor pressure is less than that calculated by using Raoul’t law. Which one of the following is the correct explanation for it.

a)

this is an example of positive deviation from Raoult’s law

b)

this is an example of negative deviation from Raoult’s law

c)

the adhesive forces between chloroform and acetone is greater than cohesive forces among chloroform or acetone molecules

d)

the adhesive forces between chloroform and acetone is less than cohesive forces among chloroform or acetone molecules

16.

Van’t Hoff equation for osmotic pressure (pi) is given by where n = # of moles, R = gas constant, V = volume and T = temperature

a)

Vn(pi)=RT

b)

(pi)V=nRT

c)

(pi)n=RT

d)

RT=nV(pi)

17.

The colligative properties depend upon

a)

The number and kind of atoms in the molecules

b)

The number of molecules/ions

c)

The total quantity of the substance

d)

Mole-fraction

18.

Non-electrolytes conduct electricity

a)

true

b)

false

19.

The number of moles of a solute per kilograms of the solvent is termed as

a)

Equivalent weight

b)

molality

c)

normality

d)

molarity

20.

When one mole of a solute is dissolved in one liter of solution, the concentration of the solute is termed as

a)

1 molar

b)

1 normal

c)

1 mole

d)

1 molal

21.

Calculate the energy of a radiation of wavelength 4000 angstroms. (planks constant = 6.624x10-27 erg sec, velocity of light = 3x10^10, and 1 angstrom =10^-8cm)

a)

19.875x10-10 ergs

b)

5.0x10-9 calories

c)

5.0x10-9 joules

d)

5.0x10-12 ergs

22.

Splitting of a NMR peak occurs due to

a)

effect of neighboring electrons

b)

effect of neighboring protons

23.

The shifting of peak of maximum absorption towards longer wavelength in a spectrum is called

a)

Bathochromic or blue shift

b)

Hypsochromic or red shift

c)

Bathochromic or red shift

d)

Hypsochromic or blue shift

24.

The shielding of protons in tetramethylsilane is less than in most of the compounds because it possesses a very low electronegativity

a)

true

b)

false

25.

Below are some potential applications of UV0-visible spectroscopy

a)

the concentration of a protein solution can be calculated if its amino acid sequence and molecular weight in know

b)

the presence of RNA as impurity in a DNA sample can be determined by the ration of its absorbances at 260nm and 280nm

c)

the extent of ionization of an acid can be easily determined

26.

Drugs exhibiting polymorphism or pseudopolymorphism can be differentiated by using IR spectrophotometer

a)

true

b)

false

27.

The beer-lambert law is the basis for deriving quantitative information from an absorption spectrum. Which one of the following is the correct description of the constant in the mathematical equation representing the beer-lambert law?

a)

the constant, k, is call molar absorption coefficient if unit of concentration (c) is mole/liter

b)

the constant, k, is called specific absorption coefficient if unit of concentration (c) is gram/liter

c)

the constant, k, is called specific absorption coefficient if unity of cuvette-length (l) is cm

d)

the constant, k, is called molar absorption coefficient if unit of cuvette-length (l) is cm

28.

Although NMR spectroscopy has intrinsically low sensitivity, it has baby advantages shown below. Following are some of the potential applications on NMR spectroscopy

a)

the detection of decrease in phosphocholine level tumor cells

b)

the detection of decrease in urate oxidase level may indicate efficacy of antmicrobial agents against aspergillus nidulants

c)

the detection of decrease in urine hippurate and/or increase in plasma alanine level may indicate an increase in hepatic insulin sensitivity.

29.

The peak at hughes m/z ratio in a mass spectrum of a drug is indicative of

a)

The base ion of the drug

b)

The equivalent weight of the drug

c)

Molecular weight of the drug

d)

the valence of the drug

30.

There are two commonly used scales for measuring chemical shift in an NMR spectroscopy called Delta and Tau scales which are related by

a)

Delta = 10 - Tau

b)

Tau = 10- Delta

31.

Following are some of the potential application of mass spectroscopy

a)

mass spectra are useful in proving the identity of a compound and establishing its structure

b)

mass spectra are useful in proving the identity of a compound but not in establishing its structure

c)

mass spectra provides an exact molecular weight and molecular formula of a substance

d)

mass spectrum provides an exact molecular weight on a substance but not its molecular formula

32.

UV absorption spectroscopy can be used for detecting impurity in a substance which one of the following is correct about the presence of benzene and impurity in cyclohexane

a)

Benzene can be texted in cyclohexane because it absorbs at 655nm while cyclohexane absorbs and 600nm

b)

Benzene can be detected in cyclohexane because it absorbs at 255nm while cyclohexane absorbs at 200nm

c)

Benzene can be detected in cyclohexane because it absorbs at 600nm while cyclohexane absorbs at 655nm

d)

Benzene can be detected in cyclohexane because it absorbs at 200nm while cyclohexane absorbs at 255nm

33.

The methyl group in both CH3-CH2-Cl and CH3-CH2-Cl-CH3 will appear at the same location in a typical NMR spectrum

a)

yes

b)

no

34.

Drug-excipient interaction can be characterized by IR spectroscopy by

a)

appearance of a new peak

b)

disappearance of a peak

c)

shifting of a characteristic peak

d)

broadening of a peak

e)

alteration in intensity of a particular peak

35.

Chromophores and auxochromes can be differentiated on the basis of the following statement

a)

Chromophores are a group of atoms which absorb efficiently radiation of a characteristic wavelength where auxochromes do not have their own characteristic absorption peak but maximizes the absorption capacity of the chromophore they are attached to

b)

Both chromophores and auxochromes hace characteristic absorption peaks which intensity is increased many folds if they are combined together

c)

Chromophores and auxochromes counteract therefore the absorption peak intensity of a combination product of them is less than their individual peak intensity

d)

Auxochromes are a group of atoms which absorb efficiently radiation of a characteristic wavelength where chromophores do not have their own characteristic absorption peak but maximizes the absorption capacity of the auxochromes they are attached to

36.

Fluorescence spectroscopy could be many fold more sensitive than uv-visible spectroscopy

a)

true

b)

false

37.

A typical IR spectrum can be broadly divided into two parts

a)

vavenumber range of 1450-600cm-1 is called finger print region because this unique for a specific substance

b)

wavenumber range 4000-1450cm-1 is called group frequency region because this is unique for a specific functional group present in a substance

c)

wavenumber range of 4000-1450cm-1 is called finger print region because this unique for a specific substance

d)

wavenumber rance 1400-600cm-1 is called group frequency region because this is unique for a specific functional group present in a substance

38.

Although NMR spectroscopy has intrinsically low sensitivity, it has many advantages as shown below

a)

it in a non-destructive technique

b)

many samples present in a solution (e.g. solution of drug metabolites) can be simultaneously detected

c)

minimal or no sample preparation is needed

39.

Following are some statement about nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy

a)

different protons exist in different environments and thereby possess different magnetic field strength

b)

different protons in a molecule, although, exist in a different environments but possess same magnetic field strength.

c)

neither

40.

Benzene is a colorless organic solvent but nitro benzene is a pale yellow liquid while p-hydroxynitrobenzene is a deep intense yellow liquid. This shift in appearances of color for these three substances can be explained on the basis of the concept of chromophore and auxochromes. Please select correct example of chromophore and auxochromes in the example of nitrobenzene and p-hydroxynitrobenzene from the options below:

a)

Benzene and hydroxyl group is an example of chromophore while nitro is of auxochrome

b)

Hydroxyl is an example of chromophore while benzene and nitro group is of auxochrome

c)

Hydroxyl group is an example of chromophore while nitro group is of auxochrome

d)

Nitro group is an example of chromophore while hydroxyl group is of auxochrome

41.

Following are some statements about phosphorescence

a)

Phosphorescence is the energy released when triplet excited electrons return to the ground state

b)

Phosphorescence is the energy released when single excited electrons return to the ground state

c)

Phosphorescence is a faster process and has shorter lifetime than those of fluorescence

d)

Phosphorescence is a slower process and has longer lifetime than those of fluorescence

42.

The tallest signal in a mass spectrum of substance is called the base peak

a)

true

b)

false

43.

Mole fraction of KCl in a solution containing 10 g of it (i.e. KCl) (atomic mass of KCl = 74.5) in 100 g of water is

a)

0.22

b)

2.22g

c)

0.023

d)

0.22g

44.

One mole of any substance contains Avogadro's number of molecules, which is equal to

a)

6023 x 10 ^23

b)

6.023 x 10 ^23

c)

0.6023 x 10 ^-23

d)

6.023 x 10 ^-23

45.

The number of moles of a solute/total number of moles present is termed as

a)

Normality

b)

Molality

c)

Equivalent weight

d)

Mole fraction

46.

One hundred mL water was add to a 200 mL solution. When the total volume of the solution was measured, it was found only 298 mL (instead of expected volume of 300 mL) even if there is no loss of material during mixing. Is this solution an ideal solution?

a)

Yes, this is an ideal solution

b)

No, this is not an ideal solution

47.

Solute was added to a solvent and mixed well. Some of the solute settled to the bottom of the container. Which statements best explains why all of the solute did not dissolve?

a)

the solvent used was water

b)

the solution was unsaturated

c)

the solution had become saturated

d)

the solute wasn't soluble in the solvent

48.

Indicate which of the following statements is CORRECT

a)

When red blood cells are immersed in a hypotonic solution they will shrink

b)

A solution that has a greater osmotic pressure than plasma is said to be hypertonic

c)

When a solution is contained within a semipermeable membrane and separated from the solvent, the solvent will not pass across the membrane into the solution

d)

The chemical potential or concentration of solvent molecule in the solution is greater than that in pure solvent

49.

Indicate which of the following statements is CORRECT

a)

When red blood cells are immersed in a hypotonic solution they will shrink

b)

A solution that has a greater osmotic pressure than plasma is said to be hypotonic

c)

When a solution is contained within a semipermeable membrane and separated from the solvent, the solvent will pass across the membrane into the solution

d)

The chemical potential or concentration of solvent molecule in the solution is greater than that in pure solvent

50.

Indicate which of the following statements is CORRECT

a)

When red blood cells are immersed in a hypotonic solution they will shrink

b)

A solution that has a greater osmotic pressure than plasma is said to be hypotonic

c)

When a solution is contained within a semipermeable membrane and separated from the solvent, the solvent will not pass across the membrane into the solution

d)

The chemical potential or concentration of solvent molecule in the solution is lower than that in pure solvent

51.

A weak basic drug has a pKa 4.8. In urine, with a pH of 5.8, how much % of this medication would exist in its original form?

a)

1%

b)

0.99%

c)

99.01%

d)

90.91%

52.

What is the pH of a buffer containing 0.1-M acetic acid (pKa 4.8) and 0.08 M sodium acetate?

a)

2.9

b)

3.9

c)

4.7

d)

2.4

53.

What percentage of an acidic drug indomethacine (pKa 4.5) exist in the original un-ionized form in an intestinal tract buffered at pH 8.0?

a)

0.03%

b)

1.01%

c)

99.97%

d)

99.12%

54.

The greater the pKa value for an acid, the greater hydronium ion concentration it would produce on being added to water

a)

true

b)

false

55.

Generally absorption or transport of a drug in ionized form through gastrointestinal (GIT) membrane would be more than its unionized form.

a)

true

b)

false

56.

Equilibrium is involved in the following processes playing an important role in pharmaceutics.

a)

ionization of weak acidic or basic drugs

b)

Partition coefficient and lipid solubility of a drug

c)

saturation solubility iv diffusion and dissolution of drug

57.

Which one of the following properties does not affect absorption of a drug from gastric lumen

a)

pka value

b)

optical rotation

c)

dissociation constant

d)

lipid solubility

e)

pH of the gastric/intestinal fluid

58.

The brush border coats the entire length of stomach as well as small and large intestine which is constituted of

a)

villi

b)

microvilli

c)

none

59.

how are lipids arranged on both side of a biomembrane?

a)

Perpendicularly

b)

Horizontally

c)

Diagonally

60.

The pH range of duodenum is:

a)

7-8

b)

1-3.5

c)

5-7

d)

8-10

61.

Which one of the following is not correct according to pH-Partition Hypothesis on Drug Absorption?

a)

most drugs are absorbed by passive diffusion

b)

weak basic and neutral drugs may be absorbed from the stomach but acidic drugs are not.

c)

weak acidic and neutral drugs may be absorbed from the stomach but basic drugs are not.

d)

the un-ionized form of the acidic or basic drug is preferentially absorbed.

e)

the rate of the drug absorption and amount of drug absorbed are related to its oil-water partition coefficient

62.

What is the stomach’s pH range?

a)

7-8

b)

5-7

c)

8-10

d)

1-3.5

63.

For compounds containing both acidic and basic functional groups, the formation of zwitterions may lead to the lowest solubility at a pH called:

a)

ebullioscopic constant

b)

cloud point

c)

isoelectric point

d)

cryoscopic point

64.

Below are some statements about the relationship between pKa of a weak basic drug and pH of gastrointestinal tract

a)

Most weak bases are poorly absorbed in the stomach, because they are present largely in the ionized form at pH 1-2

b)

Weakly basic drugs with a pKa of less than four, such as dapsone, diazepam, and chlordiazepoxide, are essentially un-ionized throughout the gastrointestinal tract

c)

Most weak bases are poorly absorbed in the stomach, because they are present largely in the un-ionized form at pH 1-2

65.

Digestion and absorption of foodstuff occur simultaneously in the small intestine

a)

true

b)

false

66.

Below are some statements about the concept of equilibrium in pharmaceutics

a)

A condition at which all acting influences are canceled by others, resulting in a stable, balanced, or unchanged system.

b)

The state of a chemical reaction in which its forward and reverse reactions occur at equal rates so that the concentration of the reactants and products remain unchanged with time

c)

A condition at which no change in concentrations of either reactant or product is observed because they stop reading with each other

d)

The state of a reversible chemical reaction in which the forward and reverse reactions occur at equal rates so that there are no further changes in the concentrations of the reactants and products.

67.

Which of the following is NOT a component of biological membrane?

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Oligonucleotides

c)

Phospholipids

d)

fatty acids (lipids)

e)

Proteins

68.

Only absorption of foodstuffs occur in the small intestine

a)

true

b)

false

69.

When a drug is administered orally in a dosage from such as a tablet, capsule, or suspension, the rate of absorption across the biological membrane frequently is controlled by

a)

the fastest step involved in disintegration, dissolution, and absorption

b)

the slowest step involved in disintegration, dissolution, and absorption

70.

Stronger bases, such as guanethidine (pKa > 11) are ionized throughout the gastrointestinal tract and tend to be well-absorbed throughout the gastrointestinal tract.

a)

true

b)

false

71.

When atropine was added to a mixture of water (solvent1) and octanol (solvent2) at 25 degrees C, its concentration in octanol (C1) and in water (C2) was 3.96 mg/mL and 2.2mg/mL, respectively. What is the partition coefficient (P) of atropine in this system?

a)

6.16 octanol/water

b)

0.55 octanol/water

c)

8.71 octanol/water

d)

1.8 octanol/water

72.

What is the minimum time required for the IV injection of a 22 mg dose of a poorly water soluble drug to ensure that precipitation does not occur? Given that solubility of the drug in plasma = 0.7 mg/mL and venous flow rate = 50mL/min

a)

50 seconds

b)

35 seconds

c)

38 seconds

d)

60 seconds

73.

What is the pH below which sulfadiazine (pKa = 6.48) will begin to precipitate in an infusion fluid, when the initial molar concentration of sulfadiazine sodium is 4 X 10^-2 mole/L and the solubility of sulfadiazine is 3.07 X 10^-4 mole/L

a)

6.80

b)

4.10

c)

3.07

d)

8.60

74.

Digoxin is a poorly soluble drug. Therefore, its physical forms such as particle size have a significant effect on its therapeutic outcomes.

a)

true

b)

false

75.

Below are some statements about BCS class I drugs

a)

Class I drugs are well absorbed and are affected by a limited set of interactions that alter drug absorption

b)

Interactions that delay gastric emptying will hasten absorption of these drugs

c)

Gastric emptying rate has significant effect on absorption of class I drugs

d)

Gastric emptying rate does not affect absorption of class I drugs

76.

the most commonly used method to measure lipophilicity is by determining partition coefficient using shake-flask method.

a)

true

b)

false

77.

Minocycline and doxycycline have greater log P value than other tetracyclins. Which of the following statements is/are correct about them?

a)

Only minocycline and doxycycline pass through blood brain and blood ocular barriers while other tetracyclines do not.

b)

Minocycline and doxycycline pass through blood brain barrier but not through blood ocular barrier.

c)

Minocycline and doxycycline pass through blood ocular barrier but not through blood brain barrier

78.

Generally greater the value of partition coefficient, the higher the lipid solubility of the solute

a)

true

b)

false

79.

Chemicals with high Ko/w values (e.g., greater than 10^4) are very hydrophobic

a)

true

b)

false

80.

Solubility among isomers increases with

a)

decreasing boiling point and melting point for liquid and solid, respectively

b)

increasing boiling point and melting point for liquid and solid, respectively

c)

none

81.

Below are some statements about BCS class II drugs

a)

Any interactions that increase drug solubility and dissolution rate in the gastrointestinal tract will exert a positive effect on the gastrointestinal absorption of class II drugs

b)

The absorption of this class of drugs is often enhanced in proportion to the fat content of the co-administered meal

c)

The antifungal drug griseofulvin and the cardiac glycoside drug digoxin are typical examples of class II drug

d)

The absorption of this class of drugs is often decreased in proportion to the fat content of the co-administered meal

82.

The concept of partition coefficient applies only to:

a)

concentrated solutions

b)

dilute solutions

c)

polar solvents

d)

non-polar solvents

83.

The statement "in general the higher the temperature, the greater the solubility of a drug" is applicable only for those solids which possess:

a)

negative heat of solution

b)

higher positive heat of solution

c)

heat of solution equal to zero

84.

the temperature can exert greater influence on the solubility of a drug if it is a weak acid or base

a)

true

b)

false

85.

Generally octanol is used as organic phase for determining partition coefficient. However, other alcohol is also used for this purpose which is one of the following:

a)

Ethanol

b)

Propanol

c)

Isobutanol

d)

Methanol

86.

which one of the following is not affected by partition coefficient?

a)

The passage of water through biological membrane

b)

Dissolution, absorption, distribution, metabolism, elimination, and protein binding of a drug

c)

the relationship between molecular structure and biological activity of a drug

d)

the solubility and permeability of a drug

87.

Below are some statements about the concept of equilibrium in pharmaceutics

a)

A condition at which all acting influences are canceled by others, resulting in a stable, balanced, or unchanged system.

b)

The state of a chemical reaction in which its forward and reverse reactions occur at equal rates so that the concentration of the reactants and products remain unchanged with time

c)

A condition at which no change in concentrations of either reactant or product is observed because they stop reading with each other

d)

The state of a reversible chemical reaction in which the forward and reverse reactions occur at equal rates so that there are no further changes in the concentrations of the reactants and products

88.

how does temperature affect solubility?

a)

the solubility increases with higher temperatures for endothermic solids

b)

the solubility increases with higher temperatures for exothermic solids.

c)

a rise in temperature always decreases solubility

d)

temperature does not affect solubility in any consistent way.

89.

Generally branched chain is more soluble than straight chain of an isomer.

a)

true

b)

false

90.

Phenobarbital is a weak acidic drug. What would be its solubility in solvents A (pH 7), B (pH 8), and C (pH 10)?

a)

It would dissolve more in solvent A then B or C

b)

It would not dissolve in solvent A B or C because they have pH in alkaline range

c)

It would dissolve more in solvent B then A or C

d)

It would dissolve more in solvent C than A or B

91.

The greater the acidity constant, Ka, the stronger the acid would be

a)

true

b)

false

92.

The brush border consists of a 3mm thick uniform coating of mucopolysaccharide which is found lining the internal wall of stomach only

a)

true

b)

false

93.

Below are some statements about the polar surface area

a)

the greater the polar surface area of a drug, the greater would be its oral absorption as well as penetration through the brain

b)

the smaller the polar surface area of a drug, the greater would be its oral absorption as well as penetration through brain

94.

The lower the pKa value for an acid, the greater hydronium ion concentration it would produce on being added to water

a)

true

b)

false

95.

Which one statement is correct

a)

Ionized drugs are useful for optimum therapeutic effect

b)

Un-ionized drugs are useful for optimum therapeutic effect

c)

Either ionized or unionized drugs could be useful or optimum therapeutic effect depending on site of pharmacological action

96.

The stomach may be divided into two main parts: the body of the stomach and the pylorus which secret

a)

Pepsin and mucus

b)

HCl and mucus

97.

We have a 1:1 mixture of a polar and non-polar solvent. If we added a non-polar drug to this mixture, where would you find the most drug?

a)

Polar solvent

b)

Non-polar solvent

c)

Surface of the mixture

d)

Interface of the mixture

98.

A concept of the partition coefficient is involved in following areas of pharmaceutical sciences

a)

Preservation of oil-water systems

b)

Drug action in non-specific sites

c)

Absorption and distribution of drugs throughout the body

99.

Knowledge and understanding of the equilibrium solubility of a drug is absolutely essential because it plays a critical role in

a)

the drug discovery process

b)

drug formulation process

c)

selection of a dosage form for a drug

d)

drug dissolution in the gastrointestinal tract

e)

drug absorption

100.

Below are some statements about BCS class III drugs

a)

intestinal membrane absorption is the rate-limiting step in the absorption of class III drugs

b)

class III drugs are better absorbed in the upper part of the small intestine

c)

any meal co-administration with class III drugs decreases the absorption proportionately to fat content of the meal

d)

any meal co-administered with class III drugs decreases their absorption which is not influenced by the fat content of the meal

101.

If the rate of injection of a drug and its solubility are 5 mg/min and 0.6 mg/mL, respectively, what blood or saline flow rate is required to prevent precipitation of the drug?

a)

Less than 8.33

b)

Greater than 8.33

c)

Greater than 1.2

d)

Less than 1.2

102.

The temperature can exert greater influence on the solubility of a drug if it is a weak acid or base

a)

true

b)

false