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11/12

Total questions: 209

Worksheet time: 3hrs 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

(2B) We are indeed a nation on wheels and we cannot permit these wheels to slow down. Our mass industries must have moving supply lines to feed raw materials into our factories and moving distribution lines to carry the finished product to store or home. A national highway system:

a)

reduces the use of non-renewable resources

b)

increases the use of public transportation

c)

encourages development in city centers

d)

allows the movement of goods to markets

2.

(2B) How did industrialization lead to changing uses of Earth's physical features?

a)

Humans began to dig and drill to obtain fossil fuels to burn for energy

b)

Humans learned to plant seeds to grow food to eat.

c)

Humans built the first canals to connect different regions by water.

d)

People introduced Geographic Information Systems (GIS) to handle natural disasters.

3.

(2B) Which is the best argument for reducing the sizes of these wildlife reserves?

a)

To eliminate colonial influence

b)

To decrease wildlife populations

c)

To expand urban and suburban areas

d)

To create more farmland for growing populations

4.

(2B) What changes led to these diverse uses of the Atlantic Ocean?

a)

Population growth forced Europeans to expand

b)

Technological improvements such as the compass and improvements in ship design made ocean voyages possible

c)

Europeans had challenged the views of the Catholic Church on travel

d)

The spread of the plague encouraged Europeans to search for safer areas

5.

(3A) One reason for the difference between these temperatures is

a)

the amount of carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere

b)

the tilt of Earth on its axis

c)

the tidal pull of the moon

d)

the distance between Earth and the sun

6.

(3A) During the winter months (Dec - Feb) in Texas, which hemisphere is tilted toward the sun?

a)

Northern

b)

Southern

c)

Eastern

d)

Western

7.

(3A) The diagram shows the position of the Southern Hemisphere in which season?

a)

Summer

b)

Fall

c)

Winter

d)

Spring

8.

(3A) Why do most areas near the equator have warm climates?

a)

They receive the most direct rays from the sun

b)

Their surfaces reflect the greatest amount of sunlight

c)

The sun is directly over the equator at noon year-round

d)

They receive equal amounts of daylight hours and nighttime hours

9.

(3B) Which physical process formed the landform along the northeastern border of India?

a)

The deposition of sediment by floods

b)

The eruption of active volcanoes

c)

The erosion of surfaces by wind

d)

The collision of tectonic plates

10.

(3B) Which statement about convergent plate movement is accurate?

a)

Convergent plates move closer together and create river valleys.

b)

Convergent plates move toward each other and create mountains.

c)

Convergent plates slide past each other causing a fault.

d)

Convergent plates slide past each other causing an earthquake.

11.

(3B) Which conclusion is best supported by the climograph?

a)

This city is part of a tropical rain forest

b)

This city is subject to seasonal monsoons.

c)

This city is located in a high-latitude climate zone.

d)

This city is experiencing severe drought.

12.

(3B) Which factor best explains why Japan has established a strict building code?

a)

It is located on the Ring of Fire

b)

It is experiencing increased urbanization

c)

It borders an area known as "Tornado Alley"

d)

It has high rates of erosion due to seasonal flood

13.

(3B) Which of the following is a direct effect of tectonic plate movement?

a)

The physical topography of a mountainous region

b)

Seasonal changes in weather

c)

The distribution of biomes in an area

d)

The average annual precipitation that an area receives

14.

(3B) A transform plate boundary is responsible for the creation of —

a)

rift valleys

b)

volcanoes

c)

earthquakes

d)

continental drift

15.

(3C) Which of the following typically occurs in the biosphere?

a)

Continuous circulation of hot and cold oceanic currents

b)

Regulation of the rate at which thermal energy leaves the planet

c)

The interaction of plants and animals within specific climate regions

d)

The recycling of the continental crust in subduction zones

16.

(3C) Which of the following is caused by the very rapid evaporation of warm ocean water in late summer months?

a)

The erosion of a sandy beach

b)

A tropical hurricane

c)

A catastrophic forest fire

d)

A tornado

17.

(3C) In 2004, a tsunami killed an estimated 225,000 people in Southeast Asia, South Asia, and East AfricA Which statement best describes a tsunami?

a)

It is a giant wave associated with an underwater earthquake

b)

It is a powerful storm that originates over warm, tropical water

c)

It is a violent eruption caused by the movement of tectonic plates

d)

It is a period of below-normal rainfall caused by stalled weather systems

18.

(3C) Plant roots can grow into crevices in rock and eventually break the rock apart.

This is an example of -

a)

the lithosphere affecting the atmosphere through erosion

b)

The hydrosphere affecting the biosphere through tectonic activity

c)

The biosphere affecting the lithosphere through mechanical weathering

d)

The atmosphere affecting the hydrosphere through chemical weathering

19.

(3C) What is the best description of the hydrologic cycle?

a)

Ice melts and increases the ocean volume causing flooding.

b)

Ice seeps into the ground doubling the size of aquifers.

c)

Water dries out in certain regions but floods in others.

d)

Water evaporates into the atmosphere and returns as precipitation.

20.

(3C) According to the graph, improvements in vehicle emissions have reduced pollution within the —

a)

hydrosphere

b)

biosphere

c)

atmosphere

d)

lithosphere

21.

(4A) Which factor best explains the climate distribution of northern Brazil?

a)

Being located at tropical latitudes

b)

The effects of the flow of cool ocean currents

c)

Distance from the continental shelf

d)

Elevation above sea level

22.

(4A) Which area on the map is most likely to have a dry climate?

a)

Western South America

b)

Eastern Australia

c)

Northern Europe

d)

Western Asia

23.

(4A) The winds, which are represented by the arrows in the diagram, contribute to

a)

Hurricanes

b)

Tsunamis

c)

Droughts

d)

Monsoons

24.

(4A) Which physical process caused the formation of the Himalayan Mountains?

a)

Meteorite activity

b)

The collision of tectonic plates

c)

The buildup of sedimentary deposits

d)

Sea-floor spreading

25.

(4A) Compared to New Orleans, Denver tends to have more —

a)

snow

b)

humidity

c)

droughts

d)

floods

26.

(4A) Which factors have greatest effect on climate?

a)

Longitude and vegetation

b)

Latitude and distance from water

c)

Soil type and altitude

d)

Mountain barriers and amount of arable land

27.

(5A) Which statement is best supported by the map?

a)

Both the United States and Canada have a diverse variety of natural resources.

b)

The United States and Canada have large deposits of petroleum on the east coast.

c)

The United States depends on Canada for most of its natural resources.

d)

Both the United States and Canada have unlimited natural resources.

28.

(5A) According to the information on the map, what best characterizes the country in 1865?

a)

Southern rural economy based on slave labor system versus a Northern urban economy based on a manufacturing system

b)

Expansion of the South that included the territories in the North and an interest in equal rights and freedom for every citizen

c)

Traditions fostered by a shared history of farming and plantation life and the desire to settle the country in the West

d)

A unified government based on shared principles of liberty and a growing economy based on cotton and textiles

29.

(5A) Religious festival are celebrated in several countries, including Mexico, the US, and India However festivals in individual countries are characterized by different costumes, religions, and foods.

This highlights that the character of a place is:

a)

Focused on populated areas

b)

Based on outside influences

c)

Related to cultural elements

d)

Determined by other countries

30.

(5A) According to the map, what is the relationship between culture and religion on the Indian subcontinent?

a)

Most people in India practice the same religion for their entire lives

b)

The major religions practiced in India seem to have links to one language

c)

For many in India, the Hindu religion is a core element of their culture

d)

Religions practiced by the people of India are part of other cultures

31.

(5A) Which statement is best supported by the map?

a)

Both the United States and Canada have a diverse variety of natural resources

b)

The United States and Canada have large deposits of petroleum on the east coast.

c)

The United States depends on Canada for most of its natural resources.

d)

Both the United States and Canada have unlimited natural resources.

32.

(5A) Though in the past, most Australians were of British descent, today high rates of immigration are changing the cultural characteristics of Australia However, the people of Australia still share similar characteristics to the British, including driving on the left side of the road, drinking tea, and practicing the Christian religion.

Which statement best describes cultural characteristics of Australia?

a)

Australia is much different today than it was in the past

b)

Australia is related to its social and cultural aspects

c)

Religion is one part of the culture that has changed

d)

Immigration continues to stabilize Australia

33.

(6B) The projected growth in African cities between 2010 and 2025 is attributed to:

a)

climate

b)

urbanization

c)

agriculture

d)

colonization

34.

(6B) Why did many cities expand in size during the early twentieth century?

a)

Government projects made port cities accessible to large ships.

b)

Recent advances in transportation allowed people to travel greater distances to work.

c)

Commercial farms began producing a greater variety of agricultural products for urban consumers

d)

The cost of undeveloped land bordering cities increased

35.

(6B) Which of these describes one way England changed as a result of the Industrial Revolution?

a)

The economy became heavily dependent on commercial agriculture.

b)

Towns near supplies of natural resources were abandoned

c)

Urban areas grew as more jobs became available.

d)

The amount of goods produced in factories declined

36.

(6B) Based on the information, what explains the recent population trends in Texas?

a)

Large companies are relocating to Texas to invest in aviation.

b)

Large companies are relocating to Texas because of its central location.

c)

Large companies are encouraging expansion of oil production in Texas.

d)

Large companies are encouraging immigrants to move to North Texas.

37.

(6B) Which factor attracted many Europeans to New York City in the mid-nineteenth century?

a)

The increase in economic opportunities due to expanding industrialization

b)

An improvement in living conditions due to innovations in sanitation

c)

The ease of travel due to the construction of transportation networks

d)

An increase in agricultural productivity due to climate conditions

38.

(6B) Which process identifies the shift of major areas of human settlement from the countryside to towns and cities?

a)

Commercialization

b)

Urbanization

c)

Desertification

d)

Globalization

39.

(7B) What push factor had the greatest influence on the migration of the peoples listed?

a)

Environmental

b)

Economic

c)

Cultural

d)

Political

40.

(7B) During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, Europeans migrated to the Americas in part because

a)

the Americas contained an abundance of fertile land

b)

an epidemic was spreading in European cities

c)

Protestant religions were banned in the Americas

d)

the institution of slavery had been outlawed in several European countries

41.

(7B) In the twentieth century these factors encouraged migration primarily:

a)

by people with significant economic resources

b)

from one developed country to another

c)

from developing to developed countries

d)

among people with similar religious beliefs

42.

(7B) The reading describes what type of migration trend?

a)

Syrians are leaving their country due to a lack of stability and safety.

b)

Syrians are leaving their country for better economic opportunities.

c)

Syrians are leaving their country because of environmental disasters.

d)

Syrians are leaving their country for more social freedoms in neighboring countries.

43.

(7B) Which of these best explains the population shift in Europe that resulted from the formation of the European Union?

a)

People migrated to Western Europe in search of employment in more-industrialized countries.

b)

Increased opportunities for trade with Africa encouraged people to migrate to southern Europe.

c)

The development of new markets in former Soviet countries encouraged people to migrate to Eastern Europe.

d)

People migrated to northern Europe in search of greater economic and political freedoms.

44.

(7C) Which is an accurate statement about world population trends?

a)

Rural populations are declining as megacities expand

b)

The rate of natural increase shows trends in infant mortality

c)

Population trends include live births, death rates, and crop distribution

d)

Japan led the world in population growth, while Africa shows low birthrates

45.

(7C) Which factor best explains the growth in urban populations?

a)

Less pollution

b)

Climate change

c)

Economic opportunities

d)

Higher birth rates

46.

(7C) Which of the following best describes population growth from 1980 to 1998?

a)

The rate of population growth was slower in African countries than in South American countries.

b)

Most of the countries with the fastest rates of population growth were located in Central Asia

c)

The rate of population growth was faster in Australia than in North America

d)

Most of the countries with the slowest rates of population growth were located in Europe.

47.

(7C) During which period was the increase in world population growth the greatest?

a)

1 AD to 1850

b)

1850 to 1930

c)

1930 to 1970

d)

1970 to 2011

48.

(7C) Which statement about human population trends is true?

a)

Africa currently has the highest growth rate, but it will soon be surpassed by Oceania

b)

Latin America is the most populous region, but tis growth will slow in the near future

c)

North America has the world's lowest growth rate, and its population is projected to steadily decline

d)

Asia has the largest population, and it is projected to remain most populous over the next few decades

49.

(7D) A young woman of Canada's First Nations wants to maintain her cultural identity.

The best measure she could take would be to -

a)

speak English at home

b)

move to a more populated province

c)

pursue a degree in higher education

d)

interview an elder about family traditions

50.

(7D) Another benefit of globalization is increased:

a)

environmental safety

b)

isolation of local cultures

c)

low-wage earners

d)

access to technological innovations

51.

(7D) The loss of local traditions, increased levels of pollution, and the risk of pandemics are negative aspects of:

a)

Genocide

b)

Ethnic Cleansing

c)

Cottage Industries

d)

Globalization

52.

(7D) Which challenge of globalization is demonstrated by the rapid spread of SARS in 2003 and the H1N1 flu in 2009?

a)

Cultural movements that limit vaccinations for children

b)

Health problems caused by decreased government funding

c)

Accelerated transmission of viruses due to increased travel

d)

Improved sanitation resulting in resistant strains of viruses

53.

(8A) How does the technology shown in this photograph help humans adapt to the environment?

a)

By detecting sunken ships

b)

By helping ships navigate

c)

By monitoring fish migration

d)

By warning of a natural disaster

54.

(7D) Despite advances in medicine, pandemics still occur today in part because:

a)

more developed nations have refused to share vaccines to prevent diseases

b)

the world's leading governments refuse to work together to combat disease

c)

the spread of disease between nations has become easier with air travel

d)

modern ships are able to carry diseases for longer periods of time

55.

(8A) Based on the passage, the construction of the Three Gorges Dam will:

a)

decrease renewable energy production and increase production of food and trade

b)

increase renewable energy production and improve the movement of goods

c)

decrease renewable energy production and damage China's farm lands

d)

increase renewable energy production and increase shipping costs

56.

(8A) Which title best completes the chart?

a)

Changes in Settlement Patterns

b)

Influences of Culture and Language

c)

Geographic Barriers Between Continents

d)

Modification of the Physical Environment

57.

(8A) Which situation is referred to in this excerpt?

a)

The rapid growth of urban populations

b)

The rapid conversion of an important habitat to other uses

c)

The spread of invasive species to non-native habitats

d)

The release of toxic chemicals into Earth's atmosphere

58.

(8A) In which location would the environmental adaptation shown above most successfully serve its purpose?

a)

A place with low elevation

b)

A place that experiences regular monsoons

c)

A place that experiences frequent sunny days

d)

A place with high daily temperatures

59.

(9A) The Amazon River Basin is considered a physical region because:

a)

it is located entirely within one country

b)

the people who live there speak the same language

c)

it is connected by a geographical feature

d)

the people of the region practice ancient customs

60.

(9A) Which two regions are most often linked because of their common language, religion, and cultural traditions?

a)

The Sahara Desert and Europe

b)

Europe and North Africa

c)

North Africa and the Middle East

d)

Europe and the Middle East

61.

(9A) Which characteristic is common to all the countries located in the shaded region on this map?

a)

A warm climate

b)

Coniferous forests

c)

The widespread practice of Hinduism

d)

The use of a Romance language

62.

(9A) The Silk Road spanned 4,000 miles across what is today Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan.

The Silk Road is an example of a region defined by:

a)

A trade network

b)

Political units

c)

Language

d)

Religion

63.

(13B) The map demonstrates that counties with —

a)

high urban populations tend to vote for Democratic candidates

b)

both high urban and high rural populations tend to vote for Democratic candidates

c)

high urban populations tend to vote for Republican candidates

d)

both high urban and high rural populations tend to vote for Republican candidates

64.

(14A) Which statement is best supported by the headlines?

a)

Economic differences lead to conflict.

b)

Conflict between nations impacts entire regions.

c)

Disputes between nations end quickly.

d)

Technology improves international relations.

65.

(16A) Texas has a large population of Spanish-speaking residents because it -

a)

borders Mexico

b)

Was once claimed by France

c)

Was settled by Native Americans

d)

Has a strong trading relationship with Cuba

66.

(16A) In which cultural region would you find the cities of Bangkok, Hanoi, Manila, and Singapore?

a)

Middle East

b)

North America

c)

South Asia

d)

Southeast Asia

67.

(16A) Carnival festivals celebrated throughout the Caribbean and South America are an example of:

a)

an intermingling of two cultures through diffusion

b)

a minority group assimilating and adopting a new culture

c)

the urbanization of indigenous groups in a region

d)

how globalization impacts cultures

68.

(16A) The Hittites were an ancient people who established an empire in the Fertile Crescent.

What innovation is associated with the Hittites?

a)

They were brave hunters who invented fire

b)

They were great scholars who invented writing

c)

They were a warlike culture that developed iron weapons

d)

They were an organized society that developed structured government

69.

(16B) A Southerner saying "y'all" with a drawl is an example of -

a)

a dialect found in a certain region

b)

a new language related to migration

c)

an evolved language with strong Sanskrit roots

d)

a blended language associated with trade routes

70.

(16B) What does the painting reveal about modern artistic expression in Canada?

a)

It is influenced by Canadian culture

b)

It is influenced by Spanish culture

c)

It is influenced by Native Indian cultures.

d)

It is influenced by French culture.

71.

(16B) This diagram represents the organization of groups in traditional Hindu India based on:

a)

hereditary castes

b)

gender roles

c)

individual talents

d)

ethnic backgrounds

72.

(16B) Which is the best definition of an institution?

a)

Rules for the proper behavior of an individual

b)

A set of beliefs about the purpose of life

c)

An organization developed by societies to take care of social needs

d)

The things people usually do, such as how they eat and dress

73.

(16B) Which is a valid generalization about customs?

a)

They cannot be changed

b)

They usually lead to political reforms

c)

They have little influence on the development of the economy

d)

They include both how people dress and the foods they eat

74.

(16C) The cartoons demonstrate that the Israel/Gaza conflict is —

a)

complicated by media reports

b)

supported by the international community

c)

viewed differently by each side

d)

concerned more with food distribution than peace efforts

75.

(16C) Two major reasons that Saudi Arabia is important to many people around the world are:

a)

its economic equality and large universities

b)

its free markets and commercial agriculture

c)

its religious sites and oil resources

d)

its armed forces and modern cities

76.

(16C) Due to its isolationist nature, North Korea's human rights record is difficult to evaluate. However, non-governmental organizations (NGOs), think tanks, and defectors continue to report that North Korea maintains a record of consistent, severe human rights violations, stemming from the government's total control over all activity.

It can be inferred from this excerpt that:

a)

unrestricted Internet access is common in North Korea

b)

North Koreans are free to protest government policies

c)

the principles of free enterprise are supported by the North Korean government

d)

many North Koreans receive censored information about the rest of the world

77.

(16C) Which statement best explains how Jerusalem is perceived throughout the world?

a)

Foreign students regard it as an intellectual center for higher education

b)

Several countries claim it as a colonial possession.

c)

Economists view it as an important center for international trade.

d)

The adherents of several major religions regard it as a holy city.

78.

(16C) Which reason best explains both of the events described?

a)

Lawmakers seek to limit religious freedom in France

b)

Iran's government is opposed to Western culture in their country

c)

Different cultures perceive their own and other cultures differently

d)

There is a global effort to have people dress in a similar fashion

79.

(19A) The project described in the excerpt is an example of how technology and human modifications of the environment can:

a)

contribute to the economic development of a country

b)

be used as bargaining tools by a regulatory body

c)

result in the irreversible destruction of natural resources

d)

increase demand for renewable energy sources

80.

(19A) What major benefit is associated with the activity shown in this photograph?

a)

Improved port access resulting from enlarged navigation channels

b)

Improved seawall construction that prevents flooding

c)

Decreased amounts of water pollution

d)

Reduced damage to marine habitats

81.

(19A) The opening of the Erie Canal in 1825 was significant because it:

a)

opened inland ports, which reduced the influence and power of New York City as an Atlantic port

b)

forced shippers in Minnesota along the Mississippi River to raise rates in order to remain competitive

c)

made wagons and stagecoaches in the northeast United States obsolete virtually overnight

d)

increased trade, commerce, settlement, and the spread of social and religious movements

82.

(19A) Which argument would an opponent of the construction of a new nuclear power plant most likely use?

a)

There are limited supplies of nonrenewable resources.

b)

The demand for electric power is growing.

c)

There is an unacceptable risk of radiation exposure.

d)

The use of fossil fuels creates air pollution.

83.

(19A) How did the development of an interstate highway system change the urban landscape in the United States?

a)

There was an expansion of economic activity away from city centers.

b)

There was a decrease in the construction of new housing in the suburbs.

c)

There was an increase in the number of areas specifically designated as public parks.

d)

There was a decrease in transportation options available in inner cities.

84.

(19B) In spite of its summer climate, the population in the South has grown due to:

a)

the popularity of southern cooking

b)

a more relaxed lifestyle in the South

c)

technology that allowed widespread air conditioning

d)

the availability of inexpensive land for manufacturing

85.

(19B) What other important effect has air conditioning had on American society?

a)

It has reduced the need for seasonal migrant workers.

b)

It has made America's geographical differences more significant.

c)

It has allowed more people to move to Sunbelt states.

d)

It has limited urban growth in Houston, Phoenix, and Las Vegas.

86.

(19B) The graph shows typical energy consumption for a household in a moderate climate. A household in a hot climate would most likely see an increase in the percentage of energy used for -

a)

air conditioning

b)

heating

c)

lighting

d)

televisions

87.

(19B) Which area is most likely to build a desalination plant?

a)

a hot city near a river

b)

a wet city near a forest

c)

a dry city near an ocean

d)

a cold city near a mountain

88.

(19C) One argument in favor of using genetically modified crops is that doing so:

a)

protects biological diversity on cultivated land

b)

reduces the use of pesticides on crops

c)

allows for the cultivation of native food sources

d)

guarantees high yields of cash crops

89.

(19C) According to the statement, how can Las Vegas best support its population?

a)

Create a more diverse economy

b)

Develop ways to increase its water supply

c)

Improve transportation infrastructure

d)

Mechanize agricultural production to limit irrigation

90.

(19C) Advances in motorized farm equipment and irrigation have resulted in:

a)

a lower demand for food

b)

greater production of agricultural goods by fewer people

c)

an increased number of people involved in agriculture

d)

periodic shortages of food

91.

(19C) China's position as the top emitter of greenhouse gases was a direct result of:

a)

its increased reliance on industrial manufacturing

b)

its measures to nationalize the agricultural and manufacturing sectors

c)

the migration of people from the country's urban areas to its rural areas

d)

its policy of promoting public transportation

92.

(19C) What is a possible effect of organic farming?

a)

Soils are healthier

b)

Air pollution increases.

c)

Tap water has more nutrients.

d)

Crop yields are larger.

93.

(20A) Geographic information system (GIS) technology can be used to:

a)

find wreckage of a plane crash

b)

analyze data for decisions on future land use

c)

find directions from one place to another

d)

take topographic pictures from space

94.

(20A) Which of the following has been a useful benefit of Global Positioning System (GPS) technology?

a)

GPS can store large amounts of digitalized data for emergency situations.

b)

Consumers can use GPS to navigate their cars when traveling.

c)

GPS can prevent cars and trucks from having road accidents

d)

GPS has made it easier for countries to desalinate sea water.

95.

(20A) What conclusion about Internet usage can be drawn from the chart?

a)

Internet usage limits international cooperation

b)

Lower standards of living are linked to higher Internet usage

c)

More developed nations have greater access to the Internet than less developed nations do

d)

Eastern Hemisphere nations use the Internet more than Western Hemisphere nations

96.

(20A) A city wants to determine the best location for a landfill. It is creating a composite map based on a terrain map, a land-use map, a road map, and 3-D images of groundwater reservoirs.

What technology is it relying on to create the composite map?

a)

the Internet

b)

Global Positioning System

c)

Geographic Information Systems

d)

Geostationary Operational Environmental Satellites

97.

(20A) Which of the following describes a situation that could benefit from use of the Global Positioning System (GPS)

a)

a local resident would like to view old roadways and bridges that still exist under a manmade lake

b)

A real estate broker wants a map of all waterfront parcels in the town to show to a prospective buyer

c)

An environmentalist needs to create a composite map of groundwater sources, roads, and forested areas

d)

A tour bus driver must make several stops along a route that is new to her. She has limited time to get from one place to another.

98.

(20A) Which title best completes the organizer?

a)

Uses of Global Positioning Systems

b)

Uses of Geographic Information Systems

c)

Uses of Topographic Maps

d)

Uses of Aerial Photography

99.

(13B) In 2009, parliamentary elections were held in South Africa. 77% of the 23 million registered

voters took part in the election.

Which conclusion is best supported by this evidence?

a)

The strength of most parties was spread evenly throughout South Africa.

b)

The African National Congress was victorious in a majority of election districts.

c)

Most parties enjoyed support in particular regions.

d)

The majority of voters supported minority parties.

100.

The exact location of a place on earth based upon a latitude and longitude

a)

pop spot

b)

city

c)

point of origin

d)

absolute location

101.
The 0 degree line of latitude
a)
prime meredian
b)
equator
c)
hemisphere
d)
symbols
102.
Maps that show things like coal, forests, iron ore, oil, etc .
a)
physical
b)
natural resource
c)
political
d)
historical
103.
Maps that show natural features and elevations of the lands
a)
historical
b)
political
c)
physical
d)
population
104.

Maps that show boundaries such as country and state boundaries

a)

political

b)

physical

c)

professional

d)

population

105.
Southwest Asia and North Africa are generally referred to as "The Middle East" because the people there have a shared language, religion and similar cultures.
a)
Region
b)
Location
c)
Place
d)
Human Environment Interaction
106.
What type of map is this?
a)
Political
b)
Physical 
c)
Economic Activity
d)
Population
107.
This map is most useful to determine
a)
total population in Asia
b)
natural resources in Japan
c)
population density in China
d)
distribution of cities in Africa
108.
40.4406° N, 79.9959° W
describe the ______________ location of Pittsburgh, PA.
a)
Relative
b)
Absolute
c)
Regional
d)
Political
109.
250 Eagle Rock Rd,
Elkton, VA 22827
This is the __________ location of our high school.
a)
relative
b)
topographic
c)
definite
d)
absolute
110.
Identify this map
a)
Road map
b)
Climate Map
c)
Physical Map
111.
A map that shows places and boundaries such as townships, counties, states, provinces or nations is
a)
political map
b)
population map
c)
climate map
d)
physical map
112.
What is the process of moving from one place to another????
a)
migration
b)
immigration
c)
Urban
d)
Culture
113.
What is the movement of ideas,religion,cultureETC... from one place to another?????
a)
sikihsm
b)
heterogenos
c)
diffusion
d)
traditional economy
114.
A geographic area that is located outside towns and cities is called a ______ environment.
a)
urban
b)
deciduous 
c)
tundra
d)
rural
115.
What is the process of moving from one place to another?
a)
Diffusion
b)
Immigration
c)
Migration
d)
Indigenous
116.
height above a given level best defines what??
a)
latitude
b)
elevation
c)
diffusion
d)
equinox 
117.
What country is shown in orange?
a)
China
b)
Brazil
c)
Mongolia
d)
India
118.
Which continent is home of the Sahara Desert and is considered the hottest?
a)
South America
b)
Europe
c)
Africa
d)
Australia
119.
When geographers identify a perceptual region, they define it based on (WG.9B)
 
 
a)
An area surrounding and related to an important central landform or feature
b)
An area which people associate with having certain traditions or values.
c)
An area with political borders thatnationalities, cultures, and landforms.
d)
An area that has certain resources or produces certain crops or products.
120.
One limitation of geospatial technology is that it cannot provide information about (WG.20A)
. 
a)
Things below the surface
b)
Why humans do things
c)
The impact of industry
d)
Areas humans cannot safely visit.
121.
Newspaper delivery areas are an example of which type of region? (WG.9B)

a)
Formal
b)
Functional
c)
Statistical Vernacular
d)
Vernacular
122.
Which term refers to the physical character of a location? (WG.5A)
 

a)
Situation
b)
Site
c)
Relative location
d)
Absolute location
123.
Which is the main purpose for global positioning (GPS) technology? (WG.20A)
a)
To determine relative locations on Earth  
b)
To determine absolute locations on Earth  
c)
To determine elevations of geographic features on Earth 
d)
To determine the physical characteristics of regions
124.
 A map that highlights differences in height between mountains and lower regions is called (WG.21A)


a)
political map
b)
  A mental map
c)
A physical map
d)
A thematic map
125.
_____________ refers to a mathematical means to present the curved surface of Earth on a flat surface. (WG.21A)
 
a)
Relief
b)
Spatial perspective
c)
Planar projection
d)
Map projection
126.
In the grid system used to map locations on Earth’s surface, lines parallel to the Equator are called (WG.21A)
 
a)
Latitudinal lines
b)
Geometric lines
c)
Barometric lines
d)
Longitudinal lines
127.
A political border that is established by a physical geographic feature such as a mountain range or a river is a (WG.14A)
 
a)
Natural boundary
b)
Geometric boundary
c)
Cultural boundary
d)
Ethnic boundary
128.
In the above contour map, lines are used to indicate differences in (WG.20A)


a)
Temperature
b)
Elevation
c)
Precipitation
d)
Vegetation
129.
Historically, cities usually developed near (WG.6A)
a)
Deserts
b)
Navigable waterways
c)
Canyons
d)
The sources of rivers
130.
What is the difference between GPS and GIS? (WG.20A)
 
a)
GPS uses GIS data
b)
GIS uses GPS data to determine location
c)
GPS is the layering of data, whereas GIS is the gathering of data
d)
GIS is the layering of data, whereas GPS is the gathering of data
131.
Based on the map above, which inference can be drawn regarding the population of the United States? (WG.13B)
a)
East coast states have much larger populations than west coast states.
b)
States in the central region have the greatest population density.
c)
California and Texas have the largest populations.
d)
There is no correlation between population size and electoral vote share.
132.
Taking photos of Earth from space is also called (WG.21A)
 
a)
Aerial photography
b)
Satellite imagery
c)
Geographic information systems
d)
Global positioning systems
133.
In which category would you classify Islam?  (WG.16B)
a)
animistic 
b)
monotheistic 
c)
polytheistic 
d)
traditional
134.
Which religion is correctly paired with its holy book?  (WG.16B)
a)
Islam - the Analects
b)
Confucianism - the New Testament 
c)
Christianity - the Quran 
d)
Judaism - the Torah 
135.
Religious festivals are celebrated in several countries, including Mexico, Brazil, Hong Kong, the United States, and India. However, festivals in individual countries are characterized by different costumes, religions, and foods. This highlights that the character of a place is — (WG.16A)
a)
determined by other countries.
b)
based on outside influences. 
c)
focused on populated areas. 
d)
related to cultural elements. 
136.
This diagram represents the organization of groups in traditional Hindu India based on--
a)
gender roles
b)
individual talents
c)
hereditary castes
d)
ethnic backgrounds
137.
Texas has a large population  of Spanish speaking residents because it (WG.16A)
a)
was once claimed by France 
b)
was settled by Native Americans 
c)
borders Mexico 
d)
has a strong trading relationship with Cuba
138.
A Southern drawl is an example of —  (WG.16B)
a)
a dialect found in a certain region 
b)
a new language related to migration 
c)
a blended language associated with trade routes
d)
an evolved language with strong Sanskrit roots 
139.
The Hittites were an ancient people who established an empire in the Fertile Crescent. What innovation is associated with the Hittites? (WG.16A, WG.22C)
a)
They were an organized society that developed structured government
b)
They were a warlike culture that developed iron weapons. 
c)
They were great scholars who invented writing. 
d)
They were brave hunters who invented fire. 
140.
The Palestine Liberation Organization was formed in 1964 to regain the land of Palestinian Arabs. A citizen of Israel is likely to view this organization as — (WG.16C)
a)
a terrorist group
b)
a peace-keeping force 
c)
a humanitarian group 
d)
an ally 
141.
Which reason best explains both of the events described above?  WG.16C
a)
Iran’s government is opposed to Western culture in their country. 
b)
Lawmakers seek to limit religious freedom in France. 
c)
Different cultures perceive their own and other cultures differently. 
d)
There is a global effort to have people dress in a similar fashion.
142.
The Amazon Rain Forest constitutes a region because it (WG.9A)
 
a)
Is under the rule of a single government
b)
Is cut off from surrounding areas by mountains 
c)
Has a common climate and the same plants and animals 
d)
Has greater trade within its area than without 
143.
__________ refers to the system of racial segregation existing in South Africa between 1948 and 1994. (WG.5A)
Voortrekker 
 
a)
Voortrekker 
b)
Corvee 
c)
Apartheid 
d)
Degredado
144.
What indigenous ancient Chinese philosophy emphasizes obedience to authority and the concept of filial piety? (WG.5A)
a)
Buddhism 
b)
Daoism 
c)
Hinduism 
d)
Confucianism 
145.

What part of the water cycle does this picture show?

a)

condensation

b)

precipitation

c)

evaporation

d)

transpiration

146.
In the water cycle, the sun provides
a)
energy for water to evaporate from oceans, lakes and rivers.
b)
water for evaporation to happen. 
c)
energy to produce electricity. 
d)
water for condensation to happen. 
147.
What source of energy evaporates the most water from Earth’s surface?
a)
volcanoes
b)
the sun
c)
lightning
d)
wind
148.

When water changes from a liquid to a gas in plants it is called...

a)

condensation.

b)

evaporation.

c)

sublimation.

d)

transpiration.

149.

As a part of the water cycle, water from Earth's surface enters the clouds and finally falls back to the ground in the form of rain. What is the correct sequence of processes water undergoes in this example?

a)

Evaporation, Condensation, Precipitation

b)

Precipitation, Condensation, Evaporation

c)

Condensation, Evaporation, Precipitation

d)

Evaporation, Precipitation, Condensation

150.

What is another name or synonym for the water cycle?

a)

Geologic cycle

b)

Hydrologic cycle

c)

Geosphere

d)

Carbon cycle

151.
When the Northern Hemisphere is pointing towards the sun, what season is the Southern Hemisphere?
a)
Winter
b)
Spring
c)
Fall
d)
Summer
152.
What causes the seasons to change?
a)
The Earth's distance from the Sun
b)
The waming and cooling of Earth's core
c)
The Earth's tilt in relation to the sun
d)
The Earth rotation on its axis.
153.
Why does the area around the equator stay the same temperature year-round?
a)
It remains the same distance from the sun year round.
b)
It recieves the same amount of direct sunlight year round.
c)
Its days are more than 18 hours long year round
d)
The equator rotates slower than the poles
154.

What is it called when the Earth's nights and days are equal in time?

a)

aquifer

b)

equinox

c)

equal nights

d)

equinix

155.

What is the name given to the longest day of sunlight in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

solstice

b)

equinox

c)

midnight sun

d)

axis

156.
Select the best answer- What is weather?
a)
Weather is what is happening in the atmosphere in a certain place at a certain time.
b)
Weather is the atmosphere.
c)
Weather is precipitation.
d)
Weather is wind.
157.

What is the weathering process in which rocks are broken down into smaller pieces (sediments) and do not change the rock composition?

a)

chemical weathering

b)

mechanical weathering

c)

acid rain

d)

oxidation

158.

Bobby observed that a metal trash can was covered with rust. What type of weathering caused the rust on the trash can?

a)

Mechanical weathering

b)

Chemical weathering

c)

Wind weathering

d)

Erosion weathering

159.

Potholes forming in the road after a cold winter is an example of:

a)

mechanical weathering

b)

chemical weathering

160.

Lichens (small green plants) growing on a large boulder release enzymes and other acids that slowly break the rock apart. This is an example of:

a)

mechanical weathering

b)

chemical weathering

161.

Where is the Ring of Fire located?

a)

Atlantic Plate

b)

Pacific Plate

c)

Japanese Plate

d)

North American Plate

162.

What is a tsunami?

a)

a massive volcano

b)

a large hurricane

c)

a massive, destructive, wave that is caused by underwater earthquakes.

d)

none of the above

163.

What is the Great Kanto Earthquake?

a)

A devastating earthquake that struck Japan in 1956.

b)

A devastating earthquake that struck Japan in 1923.

c)

A devastating tsunami that struck Japan in 1923.

d)

none of the above

164.

How do the people of Japan prepare for disaster?

a)

fire drills with local fire fighters

b)

organizations offer disaster management and preparedness classes

c)

strict building codes/study how buildings respond to earthquakes

d)

stay proactive

e)

all of the above

165.
Are polar biomes the same as tundra biomes?
a)
polar biomes are the coldest of the tundra biomes
b)
No
166.

Biome with plants and grasses, but no trees.

a)

grassland

b)

desert

c)

forest

d)

arctic tundra

167.

Biome with many different species of cacti and reptiles and very little rainfall.

a)

Desert

b)

Temperate Rainforest

c)

Tropical Rainforest

d)

Arctic Tundra

168.

Forest biome with many different trees, mosses and ferns; most trees lose and regrow their leaves each year.

a)

temperate rainforest

b)

biome

c)

desert

d)

grassland

169.
Type of forest biome near the equator; receives a lot of rain; temperatures are warm all year.
a)
desert
b)
tropical rain forest
c)
arctic
d)
temperate rain forest
170.

Which biome contains large populations of grazing herbivores, few species of birds, and deep, rich soil?

a)

tropical rain forest

b)

desert

c)

deciduous forest

d)

grassland

171.
Which biome is the driest?
a)
Desert
b)
Tundra
c)
Taiga
d)
Rainforest
172.
Which biome is characterized by low temperatures and low amounts of rainfall?
a)
tundra
b)
desert
c)
temperate deciduous forest
d)
tropical rain forest
173.
One characteristic feature of tundra is that only the surface thaws in the summer and refreezes in the winter, leaving a layer of permanently frozen subsoil.  This characteristic is known as
a)
glaciation
b)
permafrost
c)
crystallization
d)
soilfrost
174.

Which side of the mountain often receives the most precipitation?

a)

A. leeward side

b)

B. Peak

c)

C. rain shadow

d)

D. windward side

175.

Why large bodies of water affect climate?

a)

A. Water heats up and cools more slowly than land.

b)

B. Water heats up and cools faster than land.

c)

C. Water and land cool at the same time

d)

D. Water and land heat at the same rate

176.

How does the windward side differ from the leeward side?

a)

A. The windward side receives more precipitation than leeward side.

b)

B. The leeward side has more vegetation than the windward side.

c)

C. The windward side receives more heat than the leeward side.

d)

D. The leeward side receives more precipitation than the windward side.

177.

How does land topography affect climate?

a)

A. Places in windward side experiences lower temperature than leeward side

b)

B. Places in windward side experiences higher temperature than leeward side

c)

C. Places in leeward side has wet and dry season.

d)

D. Places in windward side has dry season.

178.

How do ocean currents affect climate?

a)

A. Ocean currents that bring along cold water inland make the climate cold, while ocean currents that take along warm water to coastal areas makes the climate warm.

b)

B. Ocean currents that bring along warm water inland make the climate cold, while ocean currents that take along cold water to coastal areas makes the climate warm.

c)

C. As the temperature of water increases, temperature of air also increases.

d)

D. Ocean currents bring cold and warm water around the world.

179.

Ocean currents flow in different direction, how does ocean current flow in northern hemisphere?

a)

A. Downward

b)

B. Clockwise

c)

C. Counterclockwise

d)

D. Upward

180.
The Coriolis Effect is caused by
a)
Earth rotating around the sun
b)
Earth rotating on its axis
c)
The tides
d)
Gravity
181.
Due to the Coriolis Effect, water in the northern hemisphere moves
a)
clockwise
b)
counter clockwise
c)
both
d)
neither
182.
Due to the Coriolis Effect, water in the southern hemisphere moves
a)
clockwise
b)
counter-clockwise
c)
both
d)
neither
183.
Warm ocean currents generally come from
a)
The North Pole
b)
The South Pole
c)
The Equator
d)
Both A and B
184.
Deep Ocean currents are a result of
a)
Global Wind Patterns
b)
Earth's Rotation
c)
Density
d)
All of the above
185.
Where is ocean water the densest.
a)
The surface
b)
The middle
c)
The bottom
d)
Lake Michigan
186.

______ causes surface currents.

a)

The Coriolis Effect

b)

gravity

c)

density differences

d)

wind

187.

_______ causes the Coriolis Effect

a)

Earth's rotation

b)

gravity

c)

wind

d)

density

188.
How does the Coriolis Effect influence hurricanes and cyclones
a)
determines how powerful they will be
b)
determines where they will go
c)
determines where they form
d)
determines the direction of the wind rotation
189.
What is the Coriolis Effect and how does it effect global winds?
a)
Curving of winds due to rotation of earth curves wind counterclockwise in Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere
b)
Movement of ocean currents caused by earth rotation' counterclockwise in Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in Southern Hemisphere
c)
curve of global winds caused by global rotation clockwise in Northern Hemisphere and counterclockwise in Southern Hemisphere
190.
Push factors are....
a)
good things that draw a person to another country
b)
reasons that drive a person out of their country
c)
reasons people migrate to a new area
191.
Pull factors are....
a)
good things that draw a person to another country.
b)
reasons people leave an area
c)
reasons that drive a person out of their country
192.

What word describes a poor country with an economy based on farming?

a)

standard of living

b)

dependent population

c)

less developed nation

d)

more developed nation

193.

Countries with high levels of literacy and higher education are in which level of economic development?

a)

More Developed

b)

Newly Industrialized

c)

Less Developed

194.

Three indicators of development of a country

a)

GDP per capita, literacy rate and life expectancy.

b)

Richness, industrial production and business

c)

Multinationals and industry

d)

Technology, trade and research

195.

DEVELOPED Countries practice which economic activities?

a)

Primary & Secondary

b)

Only Tertiary

c)

Primary, Secondary, Tertiary, & Quaternary

d)

Only Quinary

196.

DEVELOPING countries practice which type of economic activities?

a)

All of them

b)

Mainly Primary & Secondary

c)

Only Quaternary

d)

Only Tertiary & Quinary

197.

Supreme ruler that inherited their power

a)

Theocracy

b)

Republic

c)

Monarchy

d)

Confederation

198.

People vote on issues directly or vote for representatives to make political decisions for them.

a)

Democracy

b)

Theocracy

c)

Monarchy

d)

Dictatorship

199.

A single person exercises complete power over others. Citizens have few rights in this government system.

a)

Dictatorship

b)

Democracy

c)

Oligarchy

d)

Federation

200.

A government run by religious leaders, where there is no legal separation between church and state.

a)

Monarchy

b)

Democracy

c)

Theocracy

d)

Communism

201.

Classless society that abolishes private ownership

a)

Democracy

b)

Communism

c)

Monarchy

d)

Theocracy

202.

Government makes all economic decisions and owns most of the property

a)

Market Economy

b)

Command Economy

c)

Socialism

d)

Traditional Economy

203.

An economic system in which production and distribution questions are answered by prices and profits (supply & demand)

a)

Market Economy

b)

Socialism

c)

Command Economy

d)

Traditional Economy

204.

Production of goods and extraction of resources (examples: farming, mining, logging, & oil drilling)

a)

Quaternary

b)

Tertiary

c)

Secondary

d)

Primary

205.

Manufacturing, processing, & construction

a)

Secondary

b)

Tertiary

c)

Primary

d)

Quaternary

206.

Services

a)

Tertiary

b)

Secondary

c)

Quaternary

d)

Primary

207.

Intellectual activities

a)

Tertiary

b)

Secondary

c)

Primary

d)

Quaternary

208.

What is a resource?

a)

can be defined as any material or product that we can find useful

b)

can be defined as an specific material that works on an specific activity

c)

can be defined as all the material that can provide energy

209.

Natural resources are...

a)

materials that we produce

b)

materials that we take from the environment

c)

all the scenery that we can see