2. Which active transport process requires metabolic cell energy to move substances against a concentration gradient?

3. The dental hygienist created a client treatment plan by dividing the oral cavity at the midsagittal plane, or two dentition quadrants per client appointment (UR, upper right; UL, upper left; LR, lower right; LL, lower left). Which quadrants will be treated at each scheduled appointment?

4. Which epithelial membrane covers body cavities that open to the exterior of the body and are adapted for absorption and secretion?

5. Which of the following BEST describes the functions of the hypodermis, or subcutaneous layer of the skin?

6. Which one of the following statements is NOT true about cancellous bone?

7. Which statement describes the importance and function of osteoblasts?

8. Suzy, an RDH, has not maintained good ergonomics during her 20-year professional career as a dental hygienist and is experiencing paresthesia in her right-hand phalanges. This is most likely caused by

9. What do the ulna, radius, and humerus have in common?

10. Which classification of joints is between the radius and carpal bones?

1. All references to body structures are made assuming the body is in anatomical position; anatomical position is the erect position of the body, arms at the sides, with head, eyes, and palms facing forward.

2. The anatomical term that best describes the top surface of the tongue is

3. Which of the following results in the formation of the flat bones of the skull?

4. Each of the following bones of the skull is considered a facial bone EXCEPT the

5. The articulation between the frontal bone and the parietal bones is the

6. The petrous portion of the temporal bone contains the mastoid process. This process serves as an attachment for the trapezius muscle.

7. All three branches of which one of the following nerves passes through foramina on the sphenoid bone?

8. Which of the following bones has paired canals that transmit cranial nerve XII, hypoglossal?

9. Which part of the temporal bone forms the cranial portion of the temporomandibular joint?

10. In which of the following pairs is a moveable articulation formed?

11. Which of the following is an example of a soluble fiber?

12. All the following are biologic roles of carbohydrates EXCEPT

13. The congenital absence of lactase enzyme is considered a primary lactose intolerance. Temporary or permanent loss of lactase enzyme activity as a result of injury or illness is considered a secondary lactose intolerance.

14. Which of the following nonnutritive sweeteners should be avoided by patients who have phenylketonuria?

21. What is the recommended daily allowance (RDA) for digestible carbohydrate for adults and children?

22. All of the following are true about patients with type 2 diabetes EXCEPT

23. All the following signs and symptoms of diabetes mellitus EXCEPT

24. Alcoholism can cause B-vitamin depletion. It can also depress the antidiuretic hormone, resulting in a loss of magnesium, potassium, and zinc in urine.

25. Essential amino acids can be synthesized by the body and do not need to be provided by the diet. Nonessential amino acids are found in food of animal origin.

26. Although an ovolactovegetarian diet can provide essential amino acids that are inadequate in incomplete plant proteins, which of the following nutrients might an ovolactovegetarian be deficient?

27. The linear sequence of the components of amino acids is referred to as which type of structure?

28. Absorption of proteins occurs at the brush border of the microvilli of the small intestine. Absorption occurs only by active transport at specific amino acid sites.

29. All the following are used for de novo synthesis of proteins EXCEPT

30. Positive nitrogen balance is the normal situation for building protein-containing tissue. Negative nitrogen balance indicates net protein breakdown.

1. All of the following are disaccharides EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?

2. Oligosaccharides are composed of how many monosaccharide units?

3. In the mouth, salivary amylase initiates the enzymatic hydrolysis of starch. Salivary amylase also activates pepsin and denatures proteins in the mouth.

4. Which of the following emulsifies fat during the digestive process?

5. All the following are monosaccharides EXCEPT

6. Endocrine activity can affect the absorption process. Type of food mixture would not have an influence.

7. One of the end products of glycolysis is

8. What is the process called in which glycogen is the short-term storage form of glucose in the liver and muscle?

9. Anabolic hormones raise the blood glucose levels. Catabolic hormones lower the blood glucose level.

10. Anabolic hormones are metabolic regulators of all the following EXCEPT

1. The dental hygienist obtains a new client’s consent to obtain dental records from a previous dental provider. In reviewing the record, it appears the client was not truthful concerning his health history. Which of the following ethical principles did the client violate?

2. A new dental office manager distributes guidelines to staff dental hygienists indicating that client appointments will be reduced by 50%. The dental hygienist is concerned about the substandard care that will be delivered because of lack of adequate time. Which of the following ethical principles is violated by this request?

3. A front desk staff person at a dental clinic receives a telephone call from insurance company representative who is seeking health-related information about a client. The person is concerned about sharing information without the client’s consent. Which of the following ethical principles is guiding the front desk person in their decision making?

9. A 16-year-old client informs you that he no longer lives with his parents, identifying himself as an “emancipated minor.” However, the parents continue to pay for the dental treatment. Which of the following statements best describes the situation?

10. A state’s dental practice act is revised and mandates that dental providers take at least one continuing education course on pain management as a requirement for license renewal. This action falls within which board duty?

11. A dental hygienist is scheduled to provide treatment to clients when the dentist is not in the office. The dental hygienist only performs those procedures within the accepted scope of practice as described in the dental practice act. This type of supervision falls within which type of arrangement?

12. A dental hygienist relocates to another state and practices dental hygiene without obtaining a license in that state. Which of the following may be a consequence of practicing without a license?

13. A client writes an article in the newspaper containing false statements about her dental hygienist’s care and treatment. What tort does this describe?

15. During a PTA meeting, a client makes false statements about his dentist. The statement has a negative effect on the provider’s reputation in the community. Which of the following intentional torts does this best describe?

18. Which of the following statements from the ADHA Code of Ethics provides guidance to the dental hygienist about obligations to report cases of suspected abuse or violence against adults and children?

19. After a discussion with a client concerning proposed dental hygiene treatment, including alternatives, risks and benefits, and outcomes, the client accepts and signs an informed consent form. Which of the ethical principles guiding oral health care did the process of obtaining informed consent satisfy?

20. Faculty in a dental hygiene program collaborate with the local dental hygiene group on a research investigating the impact of a new mouthrinse on burning mouth syndrome in perimenopausal women. Which of the following characteristics of a profession does this research project support?

A client bill of rights provides

22. The Hippocratic oath is an example of an early ethical code that advocates health providers should do no harm. Which universal ethical principle best supports this recommendation?

23. A state dental board or dental hygiene committee monitors the behavior of licensed oral health care providers and recommends sanctions for individuals who violate a state dental practice act because

28. A dental provider and a client discuss a proposed dental hygiene treatment plan. The written plan outlines the treatment, the fees, the risks and benefits, the client’s financial obligations, and the expectations of the provider concerning the client’s responsibilities. The provider and client sign the treatment plan. This situation BEST describes