wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

STAAR Last Review!

Total questions: 500

Worksheet time: 17hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Antibiotics only work against what organisms ?

a)

viruses

b)

bacteria

c)

prions

2.

A vaccine triggers your body to produce _____________ which help fight infections.

a)

antibiotics

b)

antibodies

c)

antigens

3.

Viruses can affect which types of organisms? SELECT ALL

a)

plants

b)

animals

c)

bacteria

d)

bricks

4.

Influenza is caused by a ___________________.

a)

virus

b)

bacteria

c)

prion

5.

When a virus enters a cell and it immediately makes copies of itself this is called _______________________________.

a)

remediation

b)

replica

c)

replication

6.
Viruses are...
a)
prokaryotic
b)
eukaryotic
c)
non-living
d)
endospores
7.
Needs host cell to reproduce.
a)
Virus
b)
Bacteria
c)
Fungus
d)
Protozoan
8.
How does a virus cause a person to develop the common cold?
a)
invades the host cell to reproduce
b)
removes energy from the host cell
c)
produces toxins in the host cell
d)
protects the host cell from bacteria
9.
When a virus invades a living cell, its _______
takes over the cell's functions.
a)
outer coat
b)
genetic material
c)
core
d)
cytoplasm
10.
One reason that viruses are considered to be nonliving is that they are not made of ______.
a)
protein
b)
viruses
c)
bacteria
d)
cells
11.
What do viruses have in common with living cells? They both...
a)
store genetic information
b)
have chloroplasts
c)
use glucose for cellular respiration
d)
have endoplasmic reticulum
12.
What do viruses have in common with living cells? They both...
a)
store genetic information
b)
have chloroplasts
c)
use glucose for cellular respiration
d)
have endoplasmic reticulum
13.
What part of the virus is number 1?
a)
Capsid
b)
DNA
c)
Surface Markers
d)
Envelope
14.
What part of the virus is number 3?
a)
Capsid
b)
DNA
c)
Surface Markers
d)
Envelope
15.
What part of the virus is number 3?
a)
Capsid
b)
DNA
c)
Surface Markers
d)
Envelope
16.
What part of the virus is number 4?
a)
Capsid
b)
DNA
c)
Surface Markers
d)
Envelope
17.
What part of the virus is number 2?
a)
Capsid
b)
DNA
c)
Surface Markers
d)
Envelope
18.
A(n) _____ is a virus that enters a bacterial cell.
a)
endospore
b)
decomposer
c)
plasmid
d)
bacteriophage
19.
Which type of replication allows viral genetic material to lay dormant while the host cell reproduces?
a)
active (lytic)
b)
mitosis
c)
hidden (lysogenic)
d)
cellular respiration
20.
Viruses 
a)
have many cells
b)
are misfolded proteins
c)
are a protein coat around genetic material
d)
endospores
21.
What is the main function of the projections on the surface of a virus?
a)
They aid in respiration
b)
They help the virus grow
c)
They help the virus invade its host by attaching to specific sites on the host
d)
They help the virus digest food molecules
22.
Reasons that viruses are considered to be nonliving is because
a)
They are not cellular
b)
They cannot reproduce on their own
c)
They cannot make proteins
d)
all of the above
23.
Which of the following is NOT a possible part of a virus?
a)
 Capsid
b)
   DNA
c)
 Nucleus
d)
RNA
24.

The ___________ cycle allows replication of the phage genome without destroying the host.

a)

lysogenic

b)

lytic

25.

Which viral life cycle kills its host cell by breaking it open?

a)

lytic

b)

lysogenic

26.
What process is this?
a)
phagocytosis
b)
lytic cycle
c)
lysogenic cycle
d)
formation of antibodies
27.
Certain viruses only infect certain cells.
a)
true
b)
false
c)
depends upon the DNA in the virus
d)
depends upon the bacteriophage
28.
How do viruses reproduce?
a)
They copy their own genetic material inside a protein coat.
b)
They kill a cell and reproduce inside it.
c)
They invade a living cell and use the cell's functions to replicate their genetic material.
d)
They do not reproduce because they are not technically living things.
29.
Which organic macromolecules are composed of chains of amino acids that join to form the structural components of organisms?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
nucleic acids
c)
proteins
d)
lipids
30.
Which is the only structure you would expect to see when examining a prokaryotic cell with a compound microscope?
a)
nucleus
b)
chloroplast
c)
cell membrane
d)
mitochondria
31.
Which cell part is present in eukaryotic cells, but not in prokaryotic cells?
a)
cell membrane
b)
cell wall
c)
cytoplasm
d)
nucleus
32.

The ability to maintain a stable internal environment is called ________________.

a)

Metabolism

b)

Mitosis

c)

Heterozygous

d)

Homeostasis

33.
What is the capsid of a virus?
a)
the disease it causes
b)
the receptors to which it binds
c)
the genetic material
d)
its protein coat
34.
What is one way that a lysogenic infection differs from a lytic infection?
a)
A lysogenic virus does not act on bacteria as a lytic virus does.
b)
A lysogenic virus can remain in the host DNA for a longer period without becoming active.
c)
A lysogenic virus contains RNA instead of DNA.
d)
A lysogenic virus directs the production of new viruses right away.
35.

Cell have several mechanisms for regulating their internal environments. Which of these mechanisms involved in maintaining homeostasis requires energy?

a)

osmosis

b)

diffusion

c)

active transport

d)

passive transport

36.
Which of the following macromolecules are a prominent part of animal tissues that function in insulation, helping animals conserve heat?
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic acids
37.

Plants and animal cells have...

a)

Mitochondria and chloroplasts

b)

Nucleus and chloroplast

c)

Cell wall and chloroplast

d)

Mitchochodria and cytoplasm

38.

Which organelle is the command center for eukaryotic (plant and animal) cells?

a)

Cell wall

b)

Nucleus

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Lysosome

39.

what is the function of a lysosome?

a)

To create energy for the cell

b)

To command the cell what to do

c)

To remove waste using digestive enzymes from the cell

d)

To protect the cell

40.

Which of the following are prokaryotic cells?

a)

Plant

b)

Animal

c)

Bacteria

d)

Plant and Animal

41.

What is the difference between a prokaryotic cell and a eukaryotic cell?

a)

Prokaryotes do not have a nucleus or organelles, but a eukaryotic cell does

b)

Eukaryotic cells do not have a nucleus or organelles, but prokaryotes do

42.

Which of the following is a eukaryotic cell?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Plant

c)

Plant and animal

d)

Animal

43.

How can you tell that this is a prokaryote or eukaryote cell?

a)

It is a prokaryote because it doesn't have a nucleus

b)

It is a eukaryotic cell because it has a cell wall and a nucleus

c)

It is eukaryotic because it does not a nucleus nor a cell membrane

d)

It is prokaryote because it has a cell wall

44.

What is the purpose of the nucleus?

a)

It is the command center, contains DNA, and cell division

b)

It protects the cell

c)

It stores energy for the cell

d)

It gets rid of waste in the cell

45.

The outermost layer of a plant cell and animal cell is...

a)

Plant cell - cell membrane, animal cell - cell wall

b)

Plant cell - cell wall; animal cell - cell membrane

c)

Plant and animal cell - cell wall

d)

Plant and animal cell - cell membrane

46.

"Post office" of the cell that packages proteins and fats:

a)

ER

b)

Golgi Body

c)

Nucleus

d)

Cytoplasm

47.

What does a plant cell have that an animal cell doesn't have?

a)

Cell Membrane and Cell Wall

b)

Cell Wall and Mitochondria

c)

Cell Wall and Nucleus

d)

Cell Wall and Chloroplast

48.

What is the jelly-like substance that keeps the organelles floating?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Nucleus

c)

ER

d)

Cytoplasm

49.

What are the "protein-makers" of a cell?

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Mitochondria

c)

ER

d)

Golgi Body

50.

Which organelle holds the cell together? (found in both an animal and plant cell)

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cell Membrane

d)

Ribosome

51.
What is the main purpose of the mitochondria?
a)
Store genetic material
b)
Convert food molecules to energy
c)
Trap sunlight and use it to make food
d)
They ship proteins and other substance across the cell membrane
52.
Which of the following correctly lists the organizational hierarchy of organisms from simplest to most complex?
a)
Cells, organs, organelle, tissues, organ systems organisms
b)
Organelles, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organisms
c)
Tissues, organelles, cell, organs, organ systems, organisms
d)
Tissues, organs, cells, organelles, organ systems, organisms
53.
What's the simplest unit of life?
a)
Cell
b)
Nucleus
c)
Organelle
d)
Protist
54.
Where does cellular respiration take place?
a)
Mitochondria
b)
Nucleus
c)
ER
d)
Ribosomes
55.
What part of the cell is its delivery system?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Nucleolus
c)
Mitochondria
d)
ER
56.
What are structures that perform specific functions inside the cell called?
a)
Organisms
b)
Organelles
c)
Cell membrane
d)
DNA
57.
What is a function of a vacuole?
a)
Make prteins
b)
Store water
c)
Make sugar
d)
Harden the cell
58.
Where does photosynthesis take place?
a)
Cell wall 
b)
Chloroplast
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Vacuole
59.
What structure is found in Eukaryotes but not in prokaryotes?
a)
Ribosomes
b)
Cytoplasm
c)
DNA
d)
Nucleus
60.
Which organelle is responsible for packaging and preparing the assembled proteins to be sent to other areas?
a)
ER
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Cell membrane
d)
Golgi body
61.

It is true, not all cells have a true nucleus, but all cells must have some sort of

a)

DNA

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Osmosis

d)

Call Wall

62.

This part of the cells controls what moves in and out

a)

cell wall

b)

cell membrane

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

organelles

63.
What kind of cell is this?
a)
Eukaryotic
b)
Prokaryotic
64.

Which of the following is the most significant difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

Prokaryotic cells have cell membrane, eukaryotic cells do not

b)

Prokaryotic cells have ribosomes, eukaryotic cells do not

c)

Eukaryotic cells have DNA, prolkaryotic cells do not

d)

Eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles, prokaryotic cells do not

65.
Proteins are produced at which cellular structures?
a)
nuclei
b)
ribosomes
c)
mitochondria
d)
chloroplasts
66.
First type of cell to appear on Earth?
a)
Plant
b)
Animal
c)
Prokaryotic
d)
Eukaryotic
67.
What type of cell is pictured?
a)
Prokaryotic
b)
Eukaryotic
c)
Plant
d)
Animal
68.
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have many differences, but they also share some common features.  Which of the following may be found in either type of cell?
a)
Golgi bodies
b)
ribosomes
c)
mitochondria
d)
nucleus
69.
Which of the following would be found in both eukaryotic AND prokaryotic cells?
a)
chloroplast
b)
cytoplasm
c)
nucleus
d)
endoplasmic reticulum
70.
Which of the following in NOT a characteristic of eukaryotic cells?
a)
DNA is separated from the cytoplasm by a nuclear membrane
b)
Large
c)
Complex 
d)
Lack membrane-bound organelles
71.
Which of the following is NOT a type of eukaryotic cell?
a)
mushroom cell
b)
pea leaf cell
c)
bacterial cell found in Swiss cheese
d)
alligator stomach cell
72.
How are prokaryotes and eukaryotes similar?
a)
They both contain membrane-bound organelles.
b)
They both have cell membranes.
c)
The both have nuclei.
d)
They both have chloroplasts.
73.
What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
74.
Each enzyme only has 1 substrate that will fit its active site.  What is this called?
a)
reusablility
b)
denaturation
c)
specificity
d)
fragility
75.
With what 3 letters do enzymes typically end?
a)
-ose
b)
-ase
c)
-ese
d)
-tic
76.
The graph shows how enzymes affect reactions in cells. Which statement best summarizes the information shown in the graph?
a)
Enzymes increase the energy of the reactants.
b)
Enzymes decrease the energy level of the products.
c)
Enzyme decrease the activation energy of the reaction.
d)
Enzymes reverse the direction of the reaction.
77.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
78.
Any substance that is acted upon by an enzyme is called a(n)?
a)
Coenzyme
b)
Substrate
c)
Vitamin
d)
Polypeptide
79.
In the diagram, what is letter A? 
a)
product
b)
substrate
c)
enzyme-substrate complex
d)
active site
80.
Enzymes are...
a)
nucleic acids
b)
proteins
c)
lipids
d)
carbohydrates
81.
An enzyme speeds up a chemical reaction in the cell but can only be used once.  True or False? 
a)
true
b)
false
82.
What is the function of an enzyme?
a)
enzymes break themselves into small pieces
b)
enzymes slow down chemical reactions
c)
enzymes speed up chemical reactions
d)
enzymes combine products to form reactants 
83.
What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?
a)
The enzymes die.
b)
The shapes of the enzyme are altered denature
c)
The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.
d)
The enzymes remain the same
84.
Which of these is most likely an enzyme?  
a)
Sucrose
b)
Galactose
c)
Fructose
d)
Amylase
85.
Letter D...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
86.
Letter B...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
87.
Letter C...
a)
active site
b)
enzymes
c)
substrate
d)
products
88.
Letter E...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
89.
Which enzyme is most efficient in a basic solution?
a)
A
b)
B
90.
Which biomolecule is found in pastas and breads? (Hint: it is a polymer)
a)
Lipid
b)
Protein
c)
Simple Carbohydrate
d)
Complex Carbohydrate
91.
Which biomolecule is made of nucleotides and include your DNA? (Hint: they carry genetic information)
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipids
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
92.
Which biomolecule includes sugars and starches? (Hint: simple or complex)
a)
Lipids
b)
Proteins
c)
Carbohydrates
d)
Nucleic Acids
93.
Which biomolecule group includes fats, oils, and waxes?
a)
Proteins
b)
Nucleic Acid
c)
Lipids
d)
Carbohydrate
94.
The monomer (building block) of a nucleic acid is
a)
Monosaccharide
b)
Amino Acid
c)
Nucleotide
d)
Polysaccharide
95.
Lipids can be digested into what smaller subunits?
a)
nucleic acids
b)
amino acids
c)
fatty acids
d)
glucose
96.
Which 2 molecules contains the elements C-H-O and function pertains to energy?
a)
Lipids and Protein
b)
Carbohydrates and Nucleic Acids
c)
Protein and Carbohydrates
d)
Carbohydrates and Lipids
97.
Which biomolecule is a main source of quick energy?
a)
Nucleic Acid
b)
Protein
c)
Lipid
d)
Carbohydrate
98.
What is the function of a nucleic acid?
a)
Stores genetic information
b)
Stores energy
c)
Quick source of energy
d)
Builds structures
99.
Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen and Nitrogen are elements in what biomolecule?
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipid
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic acid
100.

Which biomolecule helps form muscles?

a)

Nucleic Acid

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Protein

d)

Lipids

101.
Which biomolecule has sugars and starches?
a)
Lipids
b)
Proteins
c)
Carbohydrates
d)
Nucleic Acid
102.
Which biomolecule functions include enzymes­ which speeds the rate of chemical reactions, structural components in cells, mechanical functions in muscles and cytoskeleton, cell signaling, and immune response; provides structure and helps with chemical reactions 
a)
Protein
b)
Lipids
c)
Carbohydrate
d)
Nucleic Acid
103.
Which biomolecule includes fats, such as triglycerides, oils, waxes, and steroids (cholesterol); insoluble in water; provides energy storage, insulation, part of cell membrane, and hormones 
a)
Nucleic Acid
b)
Lipids
c)
Carbohydrate
d)
Protein
104.
This is a ____.
a)
Golgi body
b)
plasma membrane
c)
lysosome
d)
cell wall
105.
Which process involves the movement of molecules from high concentration to low concentration?
a)
Endocytosis
b)
Active transport
c)
osmosis
d)
phagocytosis
106.
if you put a plant in salt water it will ...
a)
swell because water diffuses into the cells
b)
swell because water diffuses out of the cell
c)
shrivel because water diffuses out of the cell
107.
The process where only water is allowed to pass through the cell membrane from a high to low concentration.
a)
meiosis
b)
respiration
c)
diffusion
d)
osmosis
108.
When the concentration of particles inside of a cell is the same as the concentration of particles outside of the cell. 
a)
active transport
b)
concentration
c)
diffusion
d)
equilibrium
109.
Cells use energy to move materials across a membrane (low to high concentration).
a)
Active transport
b)
Passive transport
c)
Diffusion
d)
Osmosis
110.
Cells transport material across a cell membrane without using energy (high to low concentration)
a)
Passive transport
b)
Concentration
c)
Endocytosis
d)
Active Transport
111.
Cell membrane surrounds a particle and encloses it (for large particles)
a)
Endocytosis
b)
Exocytosis
c)
Permeable
d)
In high concentration
112.
Particles are removed from a cell (pushed out).
a)
Endocytosis
b)
Exocytosis
c)
Permeable
d)
In high concentration
113.
 Look at the diagram of a cross-section of a cell membrane below. The cell membrane controls movement of materials into and out of the cell. The following particles are moving from high concentration to low concentration and are using a carrier protein. How would you describe this type of movement across the membrane? 
a)
simple osmosis
b)
active transport
c)
simple diffusion
d)
facilitated diffusion
114.
Look at the cross section of a cell membrane of a eukaryotic cell. H+ ions are being pumped from a low concentration to a high concentration. How do you describe this type of transport across the cell membrane?
a)
active transport
b)
passive transport
c)
facilitated diffusion
d)
co-transport
115.
 In pure water, a red blood cell from an animal will swell and burst, but a leaf cell from a plant will not. Which structure in the leaf cell is responsible for this difference?
a)
cell membrane
b)
cell wall
c)
 mitochondrion
d)
nucleus
116.
During diffusion molecules tend to move 
a)
   up the concentration gradient
b)
 from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration
c)
 in a direction that doesn’t depend on concentration
d)
 down the concentration gradient
117.

In passive transport, substances move across the cell membrane ________ the concentration gradient

a)

AGAINST

b)

ALONG

c)

WITH

d)

BETWEEN

118.

What macromolecule is embedded into the lipid bilayer and helps to transport molecules?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

119.

Which describes an isotonic environment?

a)

Too much water in the cell will cause the cell to burst - the percentage of water is higher outside the cell than inside the cell

b)

Too little water in the cell will cause the cell to shrink - the percentage of water is lower outside the cell than inside the cell

c)

Concentrations of water are equal inside and outside the cell

120.

The movement of particles from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

a)

active transport

b)

osmosis

c)

diffusion

d)

random movement

121.

The movement of materials from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration would require...

a)

glucose

b)

energy (ATP)

c)

fish

d)

chips

122.
All living things want to remain in...
a)
chaos
b)
homeostasis
c)
limbo
d)
plasmolysis
123.

Which of the following is NOT a type of passive transport?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Diffusion

c)

Endocytosis

d)

Facilitated Diffusion

124.

What are the three types of passive transport?

a)

osmosis, diffusion, active transport

b)

active transport, facilitated diffusion, osmosis

c)

diffusion, osmosis, facilitated diffusion

d)

facilitated diffusion, active transport, diffusion

125.
What type of transport is this?
a)
Endocytosis
b)
Exocytosis
c)
Diffusion
d)
Sodium-Potassium Pump
126.
What type of transport is this?
a)
Endocytosis
b)
Diffusion
c)
Exocytosis
d)
Osmosis
127.
What type of organelle is used during endocytosis and exocytosis?
a)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
b)
Golgi Body
c)
Vesicle
d)
Lysosome
128.

In a saltwater solution, salt is considered the _______.

a)

solvent

b)

solute

c)

solution

129.

Which of these solution types has the highest concentration of solute particles?

a)

Hyptonic

b)

Isotonic

c)

Hypertonic

130.
 An animal cell placed in a hypertonic (salty) solution will
a)
Stay the same
b)
Shrink- get smaller
c)
Swell- get bigger
131.
What is the definition of  Selective Permeability?
a)
The movement of materials across the cell membrane that requires NO ENERGY from the cell.
b)
The movement of materials through (or across) the cell membrane
c)
The ability of the cell membrane to allow some things to pass through while preventing other things from passing through.
d)
The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to a area of low concentration 
132.
In this given scenario, corn syrup is hypertonic to an egg with a dissolved shell. What will happen to the egg when it is place in corn syrup?
a)
It will stay the same.
b)
It will swell- get bigger.
c)
It will shrink- get smaller.
133.
In a scenario, salt is placed into a bowl of water.  What is the solvent?
a)
salt
b)
water
c)
saltwater
134.
 If a cell containing 5% salt is placed into a glass of water with 20% salt, the water is _______ compared to the cell.
a)
hypertonic-
b)
hypotonic
c)
isotonic
135.
Both side of a selectively- permeable membrane are equal. The sides are ______.
a)
isotonic
b)
hypertonic
c)
hypotonic
136.
Where will the water go?
a)
Into the cell
b)
Out of the cell
c)
Equally in & out - it's isotonic
d)
There is no water
137.
A blood cell is placed into the jar, as seen. Where will the water go?
a)
Into the cell
b)
Out of the cell
c)
Equally in & out - it's isotonic
d)
The water is a lie
138.
An animal cell placed in a hypertonic (salty) solution will
a)
Shrink
b)
Swell
c)
Stay the same
139.

If the dots represent sugar which is more concentrated

a)

Inside the cell

b)

Outside the cell

c)

Neither they are equal (equilibrium)

140.

If the dots represent sugar, what direction will water flow?

a)

Into the cell

b)

Out of the cell

c)

Into and out equally (equilibrium)

141.

If the miligrams are referring to the amount of sugar, what direction will water flow?

a)

Into the cell

b)

Out of the cell

c)

Into and out equally (equilibrium)

142.

What are TWO ways you can predict the movement of water?

a)

from a [High] of water to a [Low] of water

b)

towards the [Lower] of solutes

c)

towards the [Higher] of solutes

d)

from a [Low] of water to a [High] of water

143.

How many chromosomes does a human have?

a)

10

b)

23

c)

46

d)

92

144.

the results of mitosis is

a)

2 identical daughter cells

b)

2 different daughter cells

c)

4 identical daughter cells

d)

4 different daughter cells

145.

The result of meiosis is

a)

2 identical daughter cells

b)

2 different daughter cells

c)

4 identical daughter cells

d)

4 different daughter cells

146.

the 4 phases of mitosis in order are

a)

prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase

b)

telophase, metphase, metaphase, anaphase

c)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

d)

telophase, metaphase, anaphase, prophase

147.

The process that produces sex cells is called

a)

photosynthesis

b)

meiosis

c)

mitosis

d)

respiration

148.

What is the life cycle of the cell called

a)

the cell cycle

b)

photosynthesis

c)

mitosis

d)

chromatid

149.

The process by which the number of chromosomes is reduced by half to form sperm and eggs is called

a)

mitosis

b)

cells

c)

meiosis

d)

photosynthesis

150.

The male and female sex cells are also called

a)

body cells

b)

skin cells

c)

somatic cells

d)

gametes

151.

The 3 stages of the cell cycle are

a)

mitosis, meiosis, cytokinesis

b)

interphase, mitosis, cytokinesis

c)

interphase, meiosis, cytokinesis

d)

prophase, mitosis, cytokinesis

152.

The 2 halves of a chromosome are

a)

chromosomes

b)

brother chromatids

c)

sister chromatids

d)

chromatids

153.

what is the correct order of the phases of mitosis?

a)

A, C, B, F ,E, D

b)

E, F, C, D, B, A

c)

A, B, C,D, E, F

d)

A, F, C, E, B, D

154.

how many chromosomes do we get from each parent?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

92

d)

20

155.

Chromosomes move to the middle of the spindle during what phase?

a)

anaphase

b)

telophase

c)

metaphase

d)

prophase

156.

Most of the life of any cell is spent is this phase

a)

interphase

b)

prophae

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase

e)

telophase

157.

the new organism is NOT identical to the offspring in

a)

asexual reproduction

b)

sexual reproduction

158.

how are body cells made

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

159.

makes sex cells

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

160.
a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

161.
a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

162.
a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

163.
a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

164.

if a fruit fly has 8 chromosomes in the body cells, how many are in the sex cells?

a)

16

b)

8

c)

4

165.

if a turkey has 40 chromosomes in its sex cells, how many chromosomes are in its body cells?

a)

80

b)

40

c)

20

166.

Why do organisms use the cell cycle?

a)

to grow

b)

to make sugar

c)

to get energy

d)

to make unique cells

167.

Unicellular organisms use the cell cycle to:

a)

develop

b)

heal

c)

reproduce

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

168.

During which part of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?

a)

interphase

b)

mitosis

c)

cytokinesis

169.

Which part of the cell cycle is divided into prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase?

a)

interphase

b)

mitosis

c)

cytokinesis

170.

What happens at the end of interphase?

a)

the cell splits into 2 identical cells

b)

the cell's nucleus divides

c)

the DNA unwinds

d)

the cell is preparing for mitosis

171.

Simon looks at an image of a slide and notices that all of the chromosomes are lined up in along the middle of the cell. He is likely looking at a cell that is in

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

172.

Which statement best describes chromosomes?

a)

They carry out cellular respiration

b)

They consist of the pigment chlorophyll

c)

Their structure is only visible during interphase

d)

They consist of tightly coiled strands of DNA and proteins

173.

If one strand of DNA has the sequence GCCATT, what would you expect to be the sequence on the opposite strand?

a)

GCCATT

b)

CGGTAA

c)

TTACCG

d)

AATGGC

174.

Which base can only pair up with Cytosine?

a)

Adenine

b)

Thymine

c)

Guanine

d)

all of the above can pair with cytosine

175.

Which process produces oxygen?

a)

replication

b)

cytokinesis

c)

cellular respiration

d)

photosynthesis

176.

Which organisms undergo cellular respiration?

a)

autotrophs

b)

heterotrophs

c)

decomposers

d)

all of the above

177.
What is the cell cycle?
a)
The gradual development of something, especially from a simple to a more complex form.
b)
The study of heredity and the variation of inherited characteristics.
c)
The branch of biology that deals with the relations of organisms to one another and to their physical surroundings.
d)
The series of events that take place in a cell leading to its division and duplication of its DNA to produce two daughter cells.
178.
What happens in the first part of Interphase?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cell Growth
c)
DNA Replication
d)
Anaphase
179.
In what phase does chromatin condense to form chromosomes?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Anaphase
180.
In what phase do the chromosomes get pulled apart into sister chromatid to opposite sides of the cell?
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Anaphase
181.
In what phase do the organelles disperse out into the daughter cells, and the cell prepares for cytokinesis?
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Mitosis
d)
Telophase
182.
What happens during the S phase?
a)
A checkpoint over the connection of the spindle fibers
b)
The cell grows
c)
DNA is replicated
d)
The cell enters the G0 phase
183.
Neuron cells, like the one pictured, rarely replicate. Therefore, we consider them to be in the _____ phase.
a)
G0
b)
G1
c)
S
d)
Delay
184.
At the end of the G1 phase, there's a checkpoint. What is this checkpoint probably checking for?
a)
To see if the cell has grown enough
b)
To see if the DNA was correctly replicated
c)
To make sure the cell does not have cancer
d)
To make sure that the enzymes aren't amalyzed
185.
What stage of the cell cycle follows S phase?
a)
G1
b)
G2
c)
M
d)
Cytokinesis
186.

Which phase of the cell cycle is represented in the diagram?

a)

Prophase

b)

Interphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

187.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have -
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
188.
Where does a cell contain it's genetic material?
a)
nucleus
b)
nucleolus
c)
cytoskeleton
d)
golgi
189.

Which of the following is/are results of the cell cycle ?

a)

growth

b)

repair of damaged cells

c)

replacement of dying cells.

d)

All of the above

190.
Put the following actions in order: DNA replicates, cell grows, cell divides, cell prepares for mitosis. 
a)
DNA replicates, cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides
b)
cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, DNA replicates, cell divides
c)
cell grows, DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides
d)
DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell grows, cell divides
191.
Uncontrollable cell growth is known as _____
a)
obesity
b)
cancer
c)
diabetes
d)
hepatitis
192.

Humans have ________ pairs of chromosomes.

a)

21

b)

23

c)

46

d)

None of the above

193.
Cancer creates abnormal cells by disrupting
a)
the cell cycle
b)
red blood cell formation
c)
DNA replication
d)
ATP synthesis
194.
Cancer is
a)
a premature stop in the cell cycle.
b)
uncontrolled mitosis.
c)
programmed cell death.
195.
What is cancer?
a)
The heart does not receive enough blood.
b)
Sudden disruption of blood flow to part of the brain.
c)
Blood filled weak spot.
d)
Uncontrolled growth and spread of abnormal cells.
196.

What is a mutation?

a)

A mistake in DNA which can lead to cancer

b)

A complete copy of DNA

c)

A change in DNA which doesn't cause an issue

d)

A mistake in your body that is caught and removed

197.
Which sequence of complementary DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG?
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
198.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of adenine present is always equal to the amount of _________.
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
199.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
200.

A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.

a)

Replication

b)

Translation

c)

Transcription

d)

Protein Synthesis

201.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
202.

What is the correct order to make a protein?

a)

Protein, DNA, RNA

b)

RNA, DNA, Protein

c)

DNA, RNA, Protein

d)

Protein, RNA, DNA

203.

Where are proteins made?

a)

muscles

b)

nucleus

c)

outside the nucleus in the cytoplasm

204.

RNA has what base that is instead of thymine?

a)

guanine

b)

adenine

c)

thymine

d)

uracil

205.

RNA contains which sugar?

a)

deoxyribose

b)

Ribose

c)

glucose

d)

fructose

206.
How would the DNA sequence GCTATA be transcribed to mRNA?
a)
GCUAUA
b)
CGATAT
c)
CGAUAU
d)
GCUTUT
207.

Transcribe the following DNA sequence into RNA: (Hint! Remember that RNA has U instead of T!)


AAT TAG GGC TCG

a)

AAT TAG GGC TCG

b)

TTA ATC CCG AGC

c)

UUA AUC CCG AGC

d)

TTU UTC CCG UGC

208.

What is Transcription?

a)

The making DNA segment.from mRNA.

b)

The making of an RNA strand into a protein.

c)

The making of an mRNA strand from the DNA template.

209.
Amino acids are the building blocks of... 
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Atoms
d)
Proteins
210.
What does protein synthesis DO?
a)
makes genes
b)
makes proteins
c)
makes new cells
d)
deletes cells
211.
Nucleotides are made up of a sugar, phosphate, and..?
a)
nitrogenous base
b)
nucleic acid
c)
cholesterol
d)
fatty acid
212.
How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though the look and perform completely different?
a)
The two different cells become mutated
b)
The proteins expressed in each cell are different
c)
They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.
d)
The genome of the different cells changes
213.
_______ is to transcription as ________ is to translation.
a)
mRNA / Amino Acid Chain
b)
Amino Acid Chain / mRNA
c)
Ribosome / Nucleus
d)
mRNA / tRNA
214.
What structure of this molecule binds with the mRNA molecule?
a)
Amino Acid
b)
tRNA
c)
Anticodon
d)
Codon
215.
what is an operon?
a)
a part of a ribsome
b)
a part of a Rna
c)
a unit made up of linked genes that code for proteins needed to do a specific task
d)
needed for dna replication
216.
____ is the activation of a gene that results in transcription.
a)
Gene expression
b)
Gene technology
c)
Eukaryotic expression
d)
Prokaryotic expression
217.

Gene expression is the ability for a gene to be:

a)

in the genome.

b)

transcribed.

c)

non-coding.

d)

a dominant allele.

218.

Which of the following is correct?

a)

Nucleotide triplets code a single amino acid.

b)

Each amino acid codes a nucleotide.

c)

Each nucleotide codes an amino acid.

d)

Amino acid triplets code a single nucleotide.

219.

Translation is a process where:

a)

a polypeptide sequence is produced from a sequence of rRNA codons.

b)

a polypeptide sequence is produced from a sequence of tRNA codons.

c)

a polypeptide sequence is produced from a sequence of mRNA codons.

d)

a DNA nucleotide sequence is used to produce mRNA codon sequence.

220.
Most gene regulation happens at which step along the way?
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
signal transduction
d)
DNA replication
221.
Which best explains why muscle cells are different from blood cells?
a)
Muscle cells are produced by the brain, but blood cells are produced by the heart. 
b)
Different genes are activated in muscle cells than in blood cells. 
c)
Muscles cells experience different environmental influences than blood cells. 
d)
A mutation occurs during the development of muscle cells but not in blood cells. 
222.
How do stem cells know what type of cells to differentiate into?
a)
The nucleus has instructions to turn some genes on and some genes off.
b)
Signals from chemicals in the organism or from the environment determine which genes will be turned on and off.
c)
Genes turn on and off randomly.
d)
The cell has unique DNA that determines what the cell will become.
223.
What is the importance of apoptosis?
a)
To eliminate damaged or unnecessary cells
b)
To create specialized cells
c)
To produce two identical cells
d)
To cause uncontrolled cell growth
224.
DNA has a _____________ structure. 
a)
double helix
b)
single strand
c)
ring 
d)
chain
225.
The mRNA leaves the ________ to find the ribosome to make proteins.
a)
cell
b)
nucleotide
c)
nucleus
226.

DNA holds the code for making

a)

lipids

b)

carbohydrates

c)

proteins

d)

sugars

227.

Choose the sequence of the mRNA strand that would be match up with to the following strand:

GTAGTCA

a)

UATUAGA

b)

ACGACTG

c)

CAUCAGU

d)

CATCAGT

228.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
229.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
230.

What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA

a)

Met-Pro-Ala-Val

b)

Met-Pro-Val

c)

Tyr-Gly-His

d)

Tyr-Gly-Arg-His

231.

Which is the mRNA molecule that would be created from this DNA template:

TGGCAAGTACGT

a)

ACCGTTCATGCA

b)

UGGCAAGUACGU

c)

UCCGUUCUUGCU

d)

ACCGUUCAUGCA

232.
Contains the bases adenine, uracil, cytosine and guanine
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Both
233.
What part of protein synthesis does this diagram represent?
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
RNA
234.
Messenger RNA carries a copy of the DNA code.
a)
true
b)
false
235.
Where do cells get the information to make proteins?
a)
RNA
b)
DNA
c)
phosphate group
236.
DNA travels outside of the nucleus.
a)
true
b)
false
237.
A sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base form the building blocks of which organic compound?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
nucleic acids
c)
lipids
d)
proteins
238.
Which of the following is the template for the production of RNA within a cell?
a)
DNA
b)
protein
c)
ATO
d)
carbohydrate
239.
When an extra base is inserted into the DNA sequence of a gene, the protein doesn't work. Which explains why?
a)
the base increases rate of translation
b)
the base causes DNA to be transcribed in opposite direction
c)
the inserted base causes the codons in the sequence to be incorrect for the desired protein
d)
the base signals enzymes to translate DNA rather than RNA
240.
The DNA sequence ATCAGCGCTGGC is part of a gene. how many amino acids are coded for by this message?
a)
4
b)
8
c)
12
d)
20
241.
One human disease is caused by a change in one codon in a gene from GAA to GUA. The disease is a result of 
a)
a mutation
b)
crossing-over
c)
a meiosis error
d)
polyploidy
242.
What is the relationship between a protein, the cell, and DNA?
a)
DNA is produced by protein which is produced in the cell
b)
Protein is composed of DNA which is produced in the cell
c)
DNA controls the production of protein in the cell
d)
A cell is composed of DNA and protein
243.

Which process?

a)

DNA replication

b)

transcription

c)

mutation

d)

translation

244.

which process is shown?

a)

transcription

b)

DNA replication

c)

recombination

d)

translation

245.
Where does photosynthesis take place in the plant cell?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Cytoplasm
c)

Chloroplast

d)
Mitochondria
246.
What are the two products of photosynthesis?
a)
Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide
b)

Oxygen and Sugar

c)
Sunlight and Sugar
247.
Pigment in green plants that captures the energy in sunlight is called _______.
a)
Pigment
b)
Chlorophyll
c)
Stomata
d)
Green Thing
248.
The three things plants need are sunlight, water, and CO2 for photosynthesis.
a)
True
b)
False
249.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
CO2 + light + H2O --> O2 + Sugar
b)
CO2 + sugar + H2O --> O2 + light
c)
O2 + light + H2O --> CO2 + Sugar
d)
CO2 + O2 + H2O --> Light+ Sugar
250.
Which of the following structure is where cellular respiration occurs in the cell?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
mitochondria
d)
vacuoles
251.
What is cellular respiration?
a)
the breakdown of glucose  to release ATP
b)
the breakdown of glucose to release NADH
c)
the breakdown of glucose to release FADH
d)
the breakdown of glucose to release carbon
252.

Where do plants get the energy for photosynthesis to take place?

a)

nutrients in the soil

b)

the sun

c)

chlorophyll

d)

bee pollination

253.

What two things are the product (end result) of photosynthesis?

a)

chloroplast

b)

glucose

c)

oxygen

d)

carbon dioxide

254.

Where do the leaves and stems of plants get their green color from?

a)

glucose

b)

oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

chlorophyll

255.

Plant cells make their own food by taking in

a)

oxygen and water.

b)

oxygen and hydrogen.

c)

carbon dioxide and water.

d)

carbon dioxide and oxygen.

256.
What is the ultimate ORIGINAL source of energy for living things
a)
Sugar
b)
Sun
c)
Moon
d)
Carbon Dioxide
257.

Cellular Respiration occurs in what cell organelle?

a)

chloroplast

b)

cytoplasm

c)

mitochondria

d)

animal

258.

Which organism go through cellular respiration?

a)

animals

b)

plants

c)

both animals and plants

d)

none

259.

What's the chemical formula for water?

a)

H2O

b)

6H2O

c)

H2O6

d)

H6O

260.

What's the chemical formula for oxygen?

a)

6O2

b)

2O6

c)

O2

d)

O6

261.

What's the chemical formula for glucose?

a)

6C6H12O6

b)

C12H6O12

c)

C6H12O6

d)

CHO

262.
What is the name of the 1st step of cellular respiration?
a)
Glycolysis
b)
Kreb's Cycle
c)
ETC
d)
Anaerobic respiration
263.
Where does glycolysis take place?
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Stroma
c)
Thylakoid
d)
Mitochondria
264.
Which is not a waste product of cellular respiration?
a)
Water
b)
Heat
c)
Carbon Dioxide
d)
Oxygen
265.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
266.

Which statement is true regarding cellular respiration?

a)

The reactants of cellular respiration are identical to the reactants of photosynthesis.

b)

The reactants of cellular respiration are obtained from the products of photosynthesis.

c)

The products of cellular respiration are the same as the products of photosynthesis

d)

Cellular respiration only occurs in autotrophs, photosynthesis occurs only in heterotrophs.

267.

A decrease in the amount of oxygen available will....

a)

not have an effect on the amount of energy produced during cellular respiration

b)

decrease the amount of glucose produced during cellular respiration

c)

cause the amount of water produced during cellular respiration to increase

d)

decrease the amount of energy produced during cellular respiration

268.
What is responsible for delivering oxygen and removing carbon dioxide from the body?
a)
cell nucleus
b)
excretory system
c)
nervous tissue
d)
respiratory system
269.
The __________ is the main organ of the nervous system.
a)
heart
b)
lungs
c)
brain
d)
skin
270.

The circulatory system uses _________ to deliver oxygen to the rest of the body.

a)

blood cells

b)

lungs and nose

c)

Stomach

d)

brain and spinal cord

271.
___________ are the building blocks of life.
a)
cells
b)
legos
c)
blocks
d)
blood
272.
In multicellular organisms, tissues are comprised of _______.
a)
organs
b)
systems
c)
cells
d)
blood
273.
When tissues come together, they form ___________.
a)
cells
b)
atoms
c)
organs
d)
systems
274.
Which of the following body systems work together for support, protection, and movement?
a)
respiratory and cardiovascular
b)
skeletal and muscular
c)
skeletal and integumentary
d)
digestive and respiratory
275.
Which of the following shows the levels of organization of an organism from LEAST to MOST complex.
a)
cells-tissues-systems-organs
b)
organs-cells-systems-tissues
c)
systems-organs-tissues-cells
d)
cells-tissues-organs-systems
276.
This system includes the spinal cord, brain and nerves
a)
Nervous System
b)
Digestive System
c)
Circulatory System
d)

Skeletal System

277.
What body system makes your body move? 
a)
Circulatory
b)
Respiratory
c)
Skeletal
d)
Muscular
278.
What body system removes the waste from your body? 
a)
Circulatory
b)
Excretory
c)
Digestive
d)
Respiratory
279.
My spinal cord helps _________ travel between my brain and the nerves in my body. 
a)
Memories
b)
Blood
c)
Waste
d)
Messages
280.
The main purpose of the _______ system is to ensure the continuation of the species.
a)
respiratory
b)
reproductive
c)
circulatory
d)
endocrine
281.
The main purpose of the ________ system is to produce hormones for the body.
a)
excretory
b)
digestive
c)
reproductive
d)
endocrine
282.
Which body system is a collection of glands that secrete different types of hormones that regulate metabolism, growth and development, sleep, and reproduction?
a)
Excretory System
b)
Endocrine System
c)
Skeletal System
d)
Digestive System
283.

Which body system is responsible for acting as an outer layer to protect the structures underneath from infection and disease?

a)
Integumentary System
b)
Digestive System
c)
Respiratory System
d)
Excretory System
284.

When we breathe in, oxygen goes into our lungs. The Lungs are part of the:

a)

Muscular System

b)

Respiratory System

c)

Circulatory System

d)

Digestive System

285.

Where in the body is oxygen picked up and carbon dioxide dropped off?

a)

The tongue (located in the mouth)

b)

The lungs (located in the chest)

c)

The small intestine (located in the abdomen)

d)

A muscle (located in the leg)

286.

Which of the following is carried by a red blood cell throughout the body?

a)

Glucose

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

Both Carbon Dioxide AND Oxygen

287.

When you walk, muscles in your legs contract and relax. This is a great example of the ____ system in action.

a)

muscular system

b)

circulatory system

c)

execratory system

d)

nervous system

288.

Which of the following is true about our body's system?

a)

The skeletal system sends messages to the body

b)

The digestive system helps carbon dioxide leave the body through the lungs

c)

Blood cells are part of the nervous system

d)

The digestive system helps break down food into energy

289.

Which of the following is NOT TRUE about our body's systems?

a)

The digestive system provides the energy that the muscular system needs to move and function

b)

The circulatory system brings the red blood cells to the lungs so that carbon dioxide can be dropped off and oxygen picked up

c)

The skeletal systems sends signals throughout the entire body.

d)

The muscular system helps us walk, move and sit up

290.

The organ is responsible for pumping blood throughout your body.

a)

The Brain

b)

The Spine

c)

The Heart

d)

The Lungs

291.

Which two body systems are primarily responsible for gas exchange between the body and the environment?

a)

skeletal and muscular

b)

circulatory and respiratory

c)

circulatory and digestive

d)

respiratory and excretory

292.

How does the respiratory system depend on the circulatory system in order to function?

a)

The circulatory system brings waste gases to the lungs and exchanges them for oxygen.

b)

The circulatory system provides structural support and protection to the respiratory system.

c)

The circulatory system pushes gases out of the body through the mouth and nose.

d)

The circulatory system sends messages to the lungs so that one can breathe in and out.

293.

How does the circulatory system depend on the respiratory system in order to function?

a)

The respiratory system removes bacteria from the circulatory system.

b)

The respiratory system produces circulatory system cells.

c)

The respiratory system delivers oxygen to the circulatory system.

d)

The respiratory system provides protection to the circulatory system.

294.

How does the circulatory system depend on the skeletal system?

a)

The skeletal system removes carbon dioxide from the circulatory system.

b)

The skeletal system produces blood cells in the bone marrow.

c)

The skeletal system is responsible for voluntary movement.

d)

The skeletal system helps to digest food for the circulatory system.

295.

Which two systems are responsible for voluntary movement?

a)

circulatory and excretory

b)

digestive and circulatory

c)

skeletal and muscular

d)

skeletal and circulatory

296.

What is the most important function of the excretory system?

a)

Break down food

b)

Pump blood

c)

Remove waste

d)

Voluntary movement

297.

Which is not an important organ in the excretory system?

a)

Bladder

b)

Large Intestine

c)

Esophagus

d)

Kidneys

298.

How do the circulatory and excretory systems work together?

a)

The circulatory system brings nutrients and oxygen so our cells can produce energy.

b)

The circulatory system brings blood to the kidneys to filter and remove waste.

c)

The circulatory system bring white blood cells around the body to fight infection and disease.

d)

The circulatory system helps the excretory system digest food.

299.

How does the immune system depend on the circulatory system in order to function?

a)

The circulatory system produces antibodies used by the immune system.

b)

The circulatory system sends bacteria and viruses to the immune system.

c)

The circulatory system transports immune system cells throughout the body.

d)

The circulatory system protects the immune system from diseases.

300.

Which of the following statements describes the function of bones?

a)

Bones store food for later use.

b)

Bones destroy foreign cells.

c)

Bones protect organs in the body.

d)

Bones send instructions to body parts.

301.

Which two systems work together to remove wastes?

a)

digestive and excretory

b)

respiratory and skeletal

c)

skeletal and circulatory

d)

digestive and respiratory

302.

Which two systems work together to break down and transport molecules?

a)

muscular and respiratory

b)

circulatory and skeletal

c)

digestive and circulatory

d)

endocrine and digestive

303.
What system is the body's way of fighting off pathogens that would make it sick?
a)
Excretory
b)
Immune
c)
Digestive
d)
Endocrine
304.
Which representation would show the organization of life from simplest to the most complex?
a)
Heart muscle tissue, cardiovascular system, heart muscle tissue
b)
cardiovascular system, heart muscle cells, heart muscle tissue
c)
cardiovascular system, heart tissue, heart cells
d)
Heart muscle cells - heart muscle tisse, heart, cardiovascular system
305.
Which two body systems work together to bring about reproduction in humans?
a)
Integumentary and skeletal
b)
Endocrine and reproductive
c)
Nervous and digestive
d)
Immune and muscular
306.

The diaphragm links the respiratory to the muscular system because...

a)

it is made of skeletal muscle tissue that helps you breath.

b)

it is made of smooth muscle tissue that helps you breath.

c)

it is made of cardiac muscle tissue that helps you breath.

307.

The immune system fights diseases. The circulatory system pairs with the immune system because ___.

a)

blood is made in the bones.

b)

plasma carries nutrients.

c)

red blood cells carry oxygen.

d)

white blood cells fight infection.

308.
A student studying interactions between body systems constructs this table. The student plans to fill out the table with phrases that describe an interaction between each pair of systems. 
Which of these phrases could be placed in the position marked with an X? 
a)
Provides nutrients to kidney cells
b)
Provides nutrients to brain cells
c)
Provides nutrients to nerve cells
d)
Provides nutrients to muscle cells 
309.
Which of the following is an example of the endocrine system directly interacting with the nervous system?
a)
The vertebrae protect the spinal cord from injury.
b)
Hormones provide feedback that affects neural processing.
c)
Sensory receptors in bones send signals about body position to the brain. 
d)
The brain sends signals that control the speed at which food moves through the intestines.
310.
Scientists studying illnesses caused by chemically contaminated food conduct research to minimize the effects of these diseases on society. These chemicals harm the body through interactions between the digestive system and the immune system. Scientists conducting this research are likely to describe which of these interactions between the digestive and immune systems? 
a)
Chemicals enter the immune system through a break in the skin. The chemical contamination is then passed to the digestive system by the circulatory system.
b)
The immune system transforms the chemicals in the contaminated foods into harmless chemicals. These harmless chemicals are then broken down by the digestive system.
c)
When contaminated foods are eaten, the immune system prevents the chemicals from entering the digestive system.
d)
Chemicals enter the digestive system through contaminated foods. Once in the body, the chemical contaminants impair the body’s ability to fight off infectious diseases.
311.
 During the final stages of human gestation, receptors for the hormone oxytocin increase on the smooth muscle cells of the uterus. The release of oxytocin during labor stimulates the smooth muscle tissue in the wall of the uterus. The vigorous contraction of the uterine smooth muscle helps push the baby through the birth canal so that delivery can occur. This process involves the interaction of which organ systems? 
a)
Endocrine and muscular only
b)
Endocrine and reproductive only
c)
Endocrine, muscular, and reproductive
d)
Endocrine, reproductive, and excretory
312.
A relationship between two organisms in which one organism benefits and the other is unharmed...
a)
Mutualism 
b)
Competition
c)
Parasitsm 
d)
Commensalism 
313.
A relationship between two organisms in which both organisms benefit. 
a)
Mutualism 
b)
Competition
c)
Parasitsm 
d)
Commensalism 
314.

A relationship in which two species live closely together.

a)

resource

b)

mutualism

c)

succession

d)

symbiosis

315.

A relationship between two organisms in which one organism benefits and the other is harmed...

a)

predation

b)

Competition

c)

Parasitsm

d)

Commensalism

316.

One organism hunts, kills, and eats another organism

a)

predation

b)

Competition

c)

Parasitsm

d)

Commensalism

317.

One organism fights with another over a limited resource

a)

predation

b)

Competition

c)

Parasitsm

d)

Commensalism

318.
Largest number of individuals of a population that the environment can support...  
a)
carrying capacity
b)
population crash
c)
lag phase
d)
mutualism
319.
Any thing or organism that regulates the size of a population of another organism is known as __________.
a)
a limiting measure
b)
a limiting factor
c)
factorization
d)
materialization of precipitation
320.

Amount of offspring an organism can have over its lifetime

a)

growth rate

b)

reproductive potential

c)

carrying capacity

d)

limiting factor

321.

How much a population increases, decreases, or stays the same over a period of time

a)

growth rate

b)

reproductive potential

c)

carrying capacity

d)

limiting factor

322.

Things that can affect a population regardless of the size of the population

a)

growth rate

b)

density independent limiting factor

c)

carrying capacity

d)

density dependent limiting factor

323.

Things that tend to affect a population more as population size increases

a)

growth rate

b)

density independent limiting factor

c)

carrying capacity

d)

density dependent limiting factor

324.
Which two biomes have the least precipitation?
a)
tropical rain forest and temperate grasslan
b)
savanna and tropical dry forest
c)
tundra and desert
d)
boreal forest and temperate woodland
325.
This biome is found around the equator and is home to a large amount of biodiversity.
a)
Deserts
b)
Tropical Rain Forests
c)
Savannas
d)
Chaparral 
326.
The earth's coldest biome is the....
a)
Antartica
b)
Grasslands
c)
Tundra
d)
Freshwater
327.
A Biome covered with grasses is called....
a)
Grasslands
b)
Africa
c)
Meadow
d)
Forest
328.
Birds, beavers, fish, and insects live in this biome.
a)
Marine
b)
Freshwater
c)
Tundra
d)
Taiga
329.
Deer, squirrels, and rabbits live in this cool biome.
a)
Tropical Rainforest
b)
Savannah
c)
Mountainous Forest
d)
Temperate Forest
330.

Biome with many different species of cacti and reptiles and very little rainfall.

a)

Desert

b)

Temperate Rainforest

c)

Tropical Rainforest

d)

Arctic Tundra

331.

1. Which biomes is characterized by considerable variability in rainfall and temperature and the presence of antelope and bison.

a)

Rain forest

b)

Deciduous forest

c)

Desert

d)

grassland

332.

Which biome is characterized by moderate rainfall, cold winters, and the presence of fox and deer?

a)

grassland

b)

deciduous forest

c)

taiga

d)

tundra

333.

The cactus plant lives in a desert environment.

Which characteristic of this plant could be found in many other desert plants?

a)

Leaves and stems that are adapted to conserve water

b)

Broad leaves that protect the plants from the hot sun

c)

Lush growth that serves to trap water if it rains

d)

A deep root system for gathering water

334.
Which biome is home to lions, zebras, wildebeests, giraffes, and elephants?
a)
Grasslands
b)
Tundra
c)
Rainforest
d)
Temperate Forest
335.
Which biome has 4 seasons?
a)
Taiga
b)
Tundra
c)
Grasslands
d)
Temperate Forest
336.
Which biome is home to cacti, scorpions, coyotes, kangaroo rats, and lizards?
a)
Desert
b)
Grasslands
c)
Temperate Forest
d)
Taiga
337.
Which biome is home to jaguars, anacondas, leopards, gorillas, and poisonous tree frogs?
a)
Grasslands
b)
Temperate Forest
c)
Rainforest
d)
Tundra
338.
Cactus have a thick, hard surface (cuticle) that prevent ______________ from evaporating.
a)
Water
b)
Air
c)
Sugar
d)
light
339.
The polar bear's white fur allows it to hide in the cold arctic. This adaptation is called________________.
a)
White on white
b)
Camouflage
c)
Color matching
d)
behavioral adaptation 
340.
The rainforest is very moist and receives much rain. 
Which plants will most likely survive in this kind of environment?
a)
plants with few roots
b)
plants with needles 
c)
plants with large leaves
d)
plants that grow close together
341.
How do adaptations help animals?
a)
To hide from predators
b)
to hunt for food
c)
to survive in their habitats
d)
All of these are correct
342.

Which biome is characterized by coniferous trees, such as spruce, fir and pine as the dominant species of plant growth?

a)

taiga

b)

tropical rain forest

c)

tundra

d)

desert

343.
The biome known for trees with broad leaves that fall off the trees in the winter.
a)
Coniferous Forests
b)
Deciduous Forests
c)
Deserts
d)
Tropical Rain Forests
344.

Desert plants have adaptations for survival, such as -

a)

Stems and roots store water

b)

Leaves with waxy coating or hairy covering

c)

Fewer and smaller stomata

d)

All of these choices

345.

Why do tundra plants typically grow close to the ground?

a)

This allows their roots to grow very deep

b)

To prevent herbivores from eating them

c)

To avoid the wind and conserve heat

d)

All of these choices

346.

Which 2 biomes would you find organisms with large amounts of lipids for insulation?

a)

tundra

b)

grassland

c)

taiga

d)

temperate forest 

347.

Which biome would you find many nocturnal organisms?

a)

tundra

b)

grassland

c)

tropical rainforest

d)

desert

348.

Which 2 biomes would you find plants with deep or long roots to collect more water?

a)

tundra

b)

taiga

c)

tropical rainforest

d)

desert

349.

Which biome has the greatest biodiversity of plants and animals?

a)
Temperate Forest
b)
Rainforest
c)
Tundra
d)
Grasslands
350.

What are adaptations of plants in the tropical rainforest

a)

broad leaves to collect water and sunlight

b)

large roots to help anchor them in the nutrient-poor soil

c)

epiphytes- plants that live up on other plants and trees to have better access to sunlight

d)

all of these

351.

Check all that would be adaptations of organisms in the taiga and tundra

a)

fat for insulation

b)

short, stocky body and limbs

c)

long limbs and ears

d)

camouflage

352.

What is the largest difference between savannah and grassland?

a)

Grassland receives more rainfall and has more trees

b)

Savannah receives more rainfall and has more trees

c)

There isn't any difference, they are the same biome

d)

grassland is closer to the equator than the savannah

353.

Why do conifer trees have needles?

a)

Needles also shed snow more easily and less likely to lose water in dry environments.

b)

Needles can be harmful to many predators that feed on the bark of these leaves.

c)

Needles create more surface area in order to create more photosynthesis.

354.
A frog eats a fly. The frog and fly are demonstrating ________.
a)
mutualism
b)
competition
c)
predator/prey
d)
parasitism
355.
the evolution of two species that is due to mutual influence, often in a way that makes the relationship more beneficial to both species
a)
extinction
b)
coevolution
c)
symbiosis
d)
mutualism
356.
Cattle egrets forage (feed) in fields among cattle. The egret gets easy access to flying insects stirred up by the cattle, and the cattle don't care if they are there or not.
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
competition
d)
parasitism
357.
A relationship between two organisms in which one organism benefits and the other is unharmed...
a)
Mutualism 
b)
Competition
c)
Parasitsm 
d)
Commensalism 
358.
What type of symbiosis?  Hummingbirds feed on nectar from flowers.  The flowers are pollinated by hummingbirds as they move from flower to flower.
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
d)
predation
359.
What type of symbiosis?  Skunks often live in burrows that have been dug and abandoned by woodchucks.  
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
d)
predation
360.
Which symbols best describe parasitism?
a)
+,+
b)
+,-
c)
+,0
d)
-,0
361.
Red-billed oxpeckers are birds that often feed on parasites that infest impala.  This is an example of _______.
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
neutralism
d)
competition
362.
A relationship between two organisms in which both organisms benefit. 
a)
Mutualism 
b)
Competition
c)
Parasitsm 
d)
Commensalism 
363.
When a mosquito bites you, you are the __________ and the mosquito is the  ____________.
a)
host, hostess
b)
parasite, host
c)
host, parasite
d)
prey, predator
364.

Aphids are tiny insects that live on and eat the leaves of plants, removing vital nutrients from the plants.

a)

Predation

b)

Parasitism

c)

Commensalism

d)

Mutualism

365.
True or false: symbiosis is interaction between two different organisms living in close physical association
a)
True
b)
False
366.
Which of he following interactions demonstrates a PARASITIC relationship?
a)
A mosquito sucking blood from a warm blooded animal.
b)
A group of baby otters floating together to help warm each other in the cold waters.
c)
Many fish swimming together to protect each other from predators.
d)
Two hyenas fighting over a female to mate with.
367.

A tapeworm lives in the intestine of a cat absorbing nutrients through its skin. A tapeworm and a cat have this type of relationship.

a)

mutualism

b)

parasitism

c)

commensalism

d)

competition

368.

Lactobacilli are a type of bacteria that live in our lungs and destroy many of the microorganisms that enter our respiratory system. They are highly adapted to living in our lungs and can't survive in many other habitats.

a)

mutualism

b)

commensalism

c)

parasitism

d)

predation

369.

In the jungles of South America lives a thorn tree call an acacia. A species of ant eats secretions of the acacia, drinks its sap, and raises its young in the hollow thorns. The ants also keep competing vines from growing near the acacia tree and they help repel any insects that would damage the acacia tree.

a)

mutualism

b)

commensalism

c)

parasitism

d)

competition

370.

Clown fish live among anemones, acting as a lure for the sea anemone's prey. The clown fish get protection and shelter from the anemone. This is an example of which type of symbiosis?

a)

Commensalism

b)

Mutualism

c)

Parasitism

d)

predation

371.

A bee and a flower work together to benefit each other. This is an example of a ______. The bee helps the flower by pollinating it and the flower helps the bee by providing it with nectar.

a)

commensalistic relationship

b)

parasitic relationship

c)

mutualistic relationship

d)

competition

372.

Hookworms enter the human body by burrowing into the skin of the feet. Once in the skin, they enter the bloodstream and travel to the small intestine where they attach to the walls and begin to drink the person's blood and weaken the victim.

a)

mutualism

b)

commensalism

c)

parasitism

d)

predation

373.

Lichens are close associations of fungi and algae. The fungi hold the water supply and the algae perform photosynthesis to manufacture carbohydrates for both organisms.

a)

mutualism

b)

commensalism

c)

parasitism

d)

competition

374.

Which symbols best describe mutualism?

a)

+,+

b)

+,-

c)

+,0

d)

-,0

375.

Which symbols best describe commensalism?

a)

+,+

b)

+,-

c)

+,0

d)

-,0

376.

Niche restriction is when each species uses less of the niche than they are capable of using. It is observed in closely related species that use the same resources within a habitat.

a)

true

b)

false

377.

Which is NOT an example of indirect competition

a)

2 insect species that eat the same crop but one eats at night and the other during the day

b)

Humans eating crops and insects that eat the same crops

c)

2 male deer fighting over access to female mates

378.

Why are competition and predation not considered symbiotic relationships?

a)

They are not long term relationships

b)

They aren't necessarily between 2 different species

c)

they are considered symbiotic relationships

d)

both A and B

379.
An organism that uses sunlight to create its own food is known as a:
a)
Producer
b)
Heterotroph
c)
Consumer
d)
Decomposer
380.
What does a food chain represent?
a)
How all living organisms within a habitat are connected.
b)
All of the things that a particular animal eats.
c)
How plants create their own food.
d)
A single path of energy transfer within a habitat.
381.
Why might an organism have more than one arrow coming from them in a food web?
a)
More than one organism may eat them. 
b)
They may eat more than one other organism. 
c)
This organism gets its energy from multiple sources. 
d)
They have no resources available to them.
382.
The rabbit in this food web would be considered a:
a)
Decomposer
b)
Producer
c)
Secondary Consumer
d)
Primary Consumer
383.
The fox in this food web would be considered a:
a)
Tertiary Consumer
b)
Producer
c)
Secondary Consumer
d)
Primary Consumer
384.
The mouse in this food web would be considered a:
a)
Primary Consumer
b)
Producer
c)
Tertiary Consumer
d)
Secondary Consumer
385.
The image provided is an example of a(n):
a)
Autotroph
b)
Carnivore
c)
Herbivore
d)
Decomposer
386.
__________ is an organism that eats BOTH plants and animals for energy.
a)
Omnivore
b)
Darnivore
c)
Carnivore
d)
Herbiovre
387.
The diagram shows an example of what kind of organism
a)
Autotroph
b)
Heterotroph
c)
Decomposer
d)
Herbivore
388.
The animals in this image are examples of _________________________ .
a)
Autotrophs
b)
Herbivores
c)
Producers
d)
Heterotrophs
389.
The diagram shows an example of what kind of organism
a)
Autotroph
b)
Heterotroph
c)
Decomposer
d)
Herbivore
390.

What do the arrows mean in food chains?

a)

It's just a line.

b)

How DNA is passed from one creature to another.

c)

Directions like North, South, East, or West.

d)

Energy transferring from one thing to another.

391.

Which of the following is NOT a CONSUMER?

a)

Tomato plant

b)

Fish

c)

Bunny rabbit

d)

Fungus

392.

What is a FOOD WEB?

a)

When spiders make webs on your garden.

b)

Interconnected food chains in an ecosystem.

c)

When my cat eats a bunny.

d)

Cotton candy that gets all over my hamburger.

393.

Where do PRODUCERS get their food (energy) from?

a)

Insects

b)

Moon

c)

Other producers

d)

Sun

394.

Which organisms undergo photosynthesis?

a)

producers

b)

consumers

c)

producers and consumers

395.

Which organisms undergo cellular respiration?

a)

producers

b)

consumers

c)

producers and consumers

396.

Which organisms undergo photosynthesis?

a)

heterotrophs

b)

autotrophs

c)

heterotrophs and autotrophs

397.

Which organisms undergo cellular respiration?

a)

heterotrophs

b)

autotrophs

c)

heterotrophs and autotrophs

398.

Photosynthesis uses sunlight and carbon dioxide to create _______ and cellular respiration uses glucose and oxygen to create ______

a)

glucose; sunlight

b)

glucose; ATP

c)

ATP; glucose

d)

carbon dioxide; oxygen

399.
The efficiency of energy transfer from a lower trophic level to the next highest level is roughly
a)
1%
b)
10%
c)
100%
d)
1000%
400.
In the energy pyramid here, how much of the energy in each level gets lost as heat or used by the organism for survival?
a)
80%
b)
90%
c)
10%
d)
20%
401.
The arrows in a food chain or web represents what?
a)
They point to the organism that is being eaten.
b)
It shows how sunlight flows within an ecosystem.
c)
They show what direction the energy is flowing between organisms. 
d)
They represent how water is transferred within a habitat.
402.
Eat primary consumers (can be carnivores and omnivores)
a)
Tertiary Consumers
b)
Secondary Consumers
c)
Quaternary Consumers 
d)
Top Predators 
403.
Biomass refers to
a)
Chemical Energy
b)
Light Energy
c)
Rank in the feeding heirarchy
d)
Amount of living tissue at the tropic level
404.

If a primary producer has 1,000 Joules of energy, then how much energy would a primary consumer get?

a)

100 J

b)

10 J

c)

1 J

d)

10,000 J

405.

If a tertiary consumer had 20 Joules of energy, then how much energy would a secondary consumer have?

a)

200 J

b)

2,000 J

c)

20,000 J

d)

2 J

406.

Click on the image to make it larger-- Choose the living things that are producers...

a)

wildflowers

b)

rabbit

c)

snake

d)

grass

407.

If the tertiary consumers had 9 J of energy, how much did the primary consumers have?

a)

90

b)

900

c)

9000

d)

.9

408.

If secondary consumers had 92 J of energy, how much did the producers have?

a)

.92

b)

9.2

c)

92

d)

920

409.
The efficiency of energy transfer from a lower trophic level to the next highest level is roughly
a)
1%
b)
10%
c)
100%
d)
1000%
410.
Why is a shark a carnivore.
a)
because it eats seaweed
b)
because it eats dead animals
c)
because it eats sand 
d)
because it eats other animals
411.
In the energy pyramid here, how much of the energy in each level gets lost as heat or used by the organism for survival?
a)
80%
b)
90%
c)
10%
d)
20%
412.
The arrows in a food chain or web represents what?
a)
They point to the organism that is being eaten.
b)
It shows how sunlight flows within an ecosystem.
c)
They show what direction the energy is flowing between organisms. 
d)
They represent how water is transferred within a habitat.
413.
The image provided is an example of a(n):
a)
Producer
b)
Autotroph
c)
Consumer
d)
Insect
414.
An organism that lives by breaking apart dead organic matter into simpler parts is...
a)
scavenger
b)
consumer
c)
decomposer
d)
carnivore
415.
If the grasshopper were to be removed completely from the food web, what organism would be most effected?
a)
The squirrel
b)
The shrew
c)
The deer
d)
The rabbit
416.
Which organism recieves the least amount of energy from the producer?
a)
Owl
b)
Grasshopper
c)
Lilypad
d)
Mouse
417.
Organisms that create their own energy from sunlight or chemicals
a)
Herbivore
b)
Omnivore
c)
Autotroph
d)
Heterotroph 
418.
Which of the following would provide the most energy in an ecosystem?
a)
Producers
b)
Herbivore
c)
Omnivore
d)
Carnivore
419.
A wolf eats a rabbit, that just ate some berries.  What would you call the rabbit?
a)
Producer
b)
Omnivore
c)
Primary Consumer
d)
2nd order Heterotrph
420.

If a primary consumers have 650 kcals of energy available to them in the producers they eat, how many kcals of energy make it into the primary consumer trophic level?

a)

6.5

b)

65000

c)

650

d)

65

421.

An owl eats a rat that lived in an ecosystem where there was 2,800 kcals of energy in the insect population that the rat consumed. How many kcals would transfer to the trophic level the owl is in?

a)

28

b)

280

c)

2,800

d)

28,000

422.

A hawk eats a mouse that lived in an ecosystem where there is 10,000 kcals of energy in the insect population the mouse consumes. How much energy, in kcals, moves up to the trophic level the hawk is in?

a)

1 kcals

b)

10 kcals

c)

100 kcals

d)

1000 kcals

423.

Which of the following correctly shows an energy pyramid?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

424.

The phenomenon by which toxins concentrate in the organisms at higher trophic levels within an ecosystem is known as...

a)

Biotoxicity

b)

Biomagnification

c)

Eutrophication

d)

Predation

425.

Consider the following food chain:

Algae > Mayfly > Minnow > Trout

In a polluted ecosystem, which organism would likely have the HIGHEST level of toxic chemicals in its body?

a)

Algae

b)

Mayfly

c)

Minnow

d)

Trout

426.

Consider the following food chain:

Algae > Mayfly > Minnow > Trout

If the algae had 8500 kcal of energy, how much energy would the minnow receive?

a)

8.5

b)

85

c)

850

d)

8500

427.

Consider the following food chain:

Algae > Mayfly > Minnow > Trout

If the minnow receives 275 kcal of energy, how much energy did the algae have?

a)

27.5

b)

275

c)

2750

d)

27500

428.

Consider the following food chain:

Algae > Mayfly > Minnow > Trout

If the algae had 3500 kcal of energy, how much energy would the trout receive?

a)

3.5

b)

35

c)

350

d)

3500

429.
starts with bare rock followed by lichen
a)
primary succession 
b)
secondary succession
c)
both types of succession
430.
reaches a climax community quicker because soil is already present
a)
primary succession 
b)
secondary succession
c)
both types of succession
431.
After a forest fire, an ecosystem would start regrowth through -
a)
primary succession
b)
secondary succession
c)
climax community
d)
limiting factors
432.
The picture shows what type of succession?
a)
primary
b)
secondary
c)
tertiary
d)
quadanary
433.

How do pioneer species compare in primary and secondary succession?

a)

primary starts with grass and weeds, secondary starts with mosses

b)

primary starts with forest fire, secondary starts with volcano

c)

primary starts with a volcano, secondary starts with a forest fire

d)

Lichens and moss in primary, and grasses/ ferns in secondary

434.

If farmers use a controlled burn to prevent forest fires, what would most likely be the first plants to return?

a)

trees

b)

shrubs

c)

mosses

d)

grasses

435.

Which of the following best describes primary succession?

a)

Volcano wipes out ecosystem that gradually grows back from ash covered soil

b)

Volcano creates a new island of rock that must break down to form an ecosystem

c)

Forest fire burns down forest that must bounce back over time

d)

Tornado destroys a crop that must slowly grow back over time.

436.

What best describes the term succession?

a)

rapid changes that create an ecosystem overnight

b)

gradual changes over time to fully create or restore and ecosystem

c)

forest with the tallest trees

d)

the rate species produce offspring

437.

Which of the following is not an example of secondary succession?

a)

forest fire

b)

volcano

c)

tornado

d)

hurricane

438.

During which stage of succession is there the most biodiversity?

a)

Beginning

b)

Middle

c)

End

d)

Biodiversity is stable

439.

What is the pioneer species in primary succession?

a)

mosses and lichens

b)

grasses

c)

insects

d)

shrubs

440.

What is the climax community?

a)

A community right after a disturbance

b)

A community in the middle of succession

c)

A community right before a disturbance occurs

d)

A community once it has returned to its stable state after a disturbance

441.

How long does secondary succession typically take?

a)

200-1000 years

b)

2000-10,000 years

c)

20-100 years

d)

10,000+ years

442.

How long does primary succession typically take?

a)

10-100 years

b)

100-1000 years

c)

1000- 10,000 years

d)

10,000+ years

443.

Which of these types of environments is MOST LIKELY to experience the arrival of a pioneer species?

a)

an old growth forest

b)

an undisturbed prairie

c)

an established mountain lake

d)

a newly formed volcanic island

444.

Which of these types of environments experiences the LEAST change in the total number and type of species over time?

a)

an ecosystem with only pioneer species

b)

an ecosystem that is in primary succession

c)

an ecosystem that is in secondary succession

d)

an ecosystem with a climax community

445.

What is the relationship between ecological succession and equilibrium in an ecosystem?

a)

Ecological succession helps maintain equilibrium in an ecosystem.

b)

Ecological succession prevents ecosystems from ever reaching equilibrium.

c)

There is no relationship between ecological succession and equilibrium.

d)

Ecological succession and equilibrium are the same thing.

446.

Why does secondary succession occur faster than primary succession?

a)

The environmental conditions

are more extreme in primary

succession.

b)

There are more pioneer species

in secondary succession.

c)

Fewer changes must occur in

secondary succession.

d)

There are more trophic levels in

secondary succession.

447.

During which stage is there the most biodiversity?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

448.

The diagram shows an ecosystem during different stages of succession. In which order will these stage occur, from earliest to latest?

a)

3,2,4,1

b)

4,2,1,3

c)

4,2,3,1

d)

3,1,2,4

449.

the first organisms that appear in an ecological community

a)

ecological succession

b)

primary succession

c)

secondary succession

d)

pioneer species

450.

Which of the following describes a population?

a)

One zebra

b)

Two zebras

c)

A zebra and a gazelle

d)

A zebra, a gazelle, and water

451.

Which of the following describes a community?

a)

One zebra

b)

Two zebras

c)

A zebra and a gazelle

d)

A zebra, a gazelle, and water

452.

Which of the following describes an ecosystem?

a)

One zebra

b)

Two zebras

c)

A zebra and a gazelle

d)

A zebra, a gazelle, and water

453.

What is this an image of?

a)

community

b)

ecosystem

c)

biome

d)

biosphere

454.

Which of the following is correct from most complex to least complex?

a)

mitochondria --> muscle cell --> heart --> cardiac tissue --> digestive system --> horse

b)

mitochondria --> muscle cell --> cardiac tissue --> heart --> digestive system --> horse

c)

horse --> digestive system --> heart --> muscle cell --> cardiac tissue --> mitochondria

d)

horse --> digestive system --> heart --> cardiac tissue --> muscle cell --> mitochondria

455.

Which of the following is correct from least complex to most complex?

a)

individual --> population --> community --> ecosystem --> biome --> biosphere

b)

individual --> community --> population --> ecosystem --> biome --> biosphere

c)

biosphere--> biome --> ecosystem --> community --> population --> individual

d)

individual --> population --> ecosystem --> community --> biosphere

456.

What is the difference between a community and an ecosystem?

a)

community includes only abiotic factors, where ecosystem includes abiotic and biotic factors

b)

ecosystem only includes abiotic factors, where community includes abiotic and biotic factors

c)

community includes only biotic factors, where ecosystem includes abiotic and biotic factors

d)

ecosystem only includes biotic factors, where community includes abiotic and biotic factors

457.

What is the difference between a community and a population?

a)

a community is organisms of same species, where a population is organisms of the different species

b)

a community is organisms of different species, where a population is organisms of the same species

c)

a community is organisms of different species, where a population is only one individual

d)

a community is abiotic and biotic factors, where a population is only biotic factors

458.

Which of the following is most complex?

a)

organ

b)

cell

c)

organelle

d)

tissue

459.

Which of the following is most complex?

a)

organ

b)

organelle

c)

tissue

d)

organ system

460.
Which level of organization is the most complex?
a)
organism
b)
population
c)
community
d)
ecosystem
461.
Multiple organisms of the same species describes a
a)
organism
b)
population
c)
community
d)
ecosystem
462.
A forest full of many kinds of trees and grasses is an example of a
a)
group
b)
organism
c)
population
d)
community
463.
Which level of organization is more complex than a population and less complex than an ecosystem?
a)
organism
b)
population
c)
community
d)
ecosystem
464.
Which is an example of a population?
a)
different kinds of bacteria
b)
A group of fish and sharks
c)
deer, bear, and rabbits
d)
A herd of cattle
465.
which is the correct order of the levels of organization from simple to complex?
a)
organism, population, community, ecosystem
b)
ecosystem, community, population, organism
466.
Which is the definition of a community
a)
multiple organisms of the same species
b)
all the living and nonliving things in an area
c)
a living thing
d)
multiple organisms of different species
467.
When a group of organs work together to perform a particular function they create a/an
a)
organ system
b)
organism
c)
tissue
d)
organ
468.
A group of similar cells that come together to perform a specific function is a/an
a)
organ
b)
organism
c)
organ system
d)
tissue
469.
The smallest level of organization of life in an organism
a)
tissue
b)
cell
c)
organ
d)
organ system
470.

What makes a tropism positive or negative?

a)

Positive = movement towards stimulus, Negative = movement away from stimulus

b)

Negative = movement towards stimulus, Positive = movement away from stimulus

c)

Who cares? It doesn't matter whether it is positive or negative

d)

Positive = when a plant is happy, Negative = when a plant is sad

471.

Venus Flytrap flower reacts to a bug.

a)

Thermotropism

b)

Negative Geotropism

c)

Thigmotropism

d)

Hydrotropism

472.

A plant growing in response to a greenhouse light.

a)

Geotropism

b)

Phototropism

c)

Thigmotropism

d)

Hydrotropism

473.

The root of a plant growing down.

a)

Positive geotropism

b)

Negative geotropism

c)

Thigmotropism

d)

Hydrotropism

474.

The shoot of a plant growing up.

a)

Positive geotropism

b)

Negative geotropism

c)

Thigmotropism

d)

Hydrotropism

475.

Roots of a tree growing towards the water line of a house.

a)

Geotropism

b)

Phototropism

c)

Thigmotropism

d)

Hydrotropism

476.

What is the stimulus in this example?

a)

Internal

b)

Light

c)

Touch

d)

Temperature

477.

A tropism is...

a)

a change in the environment

b)

plant movement in response to a stimulus

c)

something that causes a response

d)

when photosynthesis takes place

478.
The word Tropism mean_________
a)
growth in response to stimuli
b)
to create something new
c)
Chemical energy
d)
Taproot system
479.
What does it mean if a plant has a POSITIVE gravitropism?
a)
That the plant grows toward light.
b)
That the plant grows away from light.
c)
That the plant grows toward gravity.
d)
That the plant grows away from gravity. 
480.
What does it mean if a plant has a NEGATIVE gravitropism?
a)
That the plant grows toward light.
b)
That the plant grows away from light.
c)
That the plant grows toward gravity.
d)
That the plant grows away from gravity. 
481.

Plants curling around a pole or mailbox is an example of:

a)

Phototropism

b)

Germination

c)

Turgor pressure

d)

Thigmotropism

482.
If a plant experiences a gravitropism, then it will do what?
a)
Grow toward or away from light. 
b)
Grow away from light. 
c)
Grow toward light.
d)
Grow in response to gravity. 
483.

The roots in this plant are exhibiting (showing)

a)

Hydrotropism & Geotropism

b)

Photoropism

c)

Only geotropism

d)

Thigmotropism & Phototropism

484.

Which part of the plant shows negative geotropism?

a)

The roots

b)

The leaves and stem

485.
The ovary, style, and the stigma make up the female part of a plant called the ?
a)
stamen
b)
petals
c)
stem
d)
carpel (pistil)
486.
The tip of the style that has sticky hairs to trap pollen is the ___.
a)
stamen
b)
stigma
c)
ovary
d)
style
487.

What does xylem transport?

a)

Water and minerals

b)

Water only

c)

Sugar

d)

Food

488.

What does phloem transport?

a)

Water

b)

Minerals

c)

Fruit

d)

Sugar

489.

Pollen grains are produced by ?

a)

the anther

b)

the stigma

c)

the flowers

d)

the leaves

490.

Compared to plants, fungi cannot-?

a)

make thier own food.

b)

be used in helpful ways.

c)

cause disease in other organisms.

d)

grow in large amounts.

491.

The part of the plant

that is generally above the ground including stems, leaves, buds and reproductive structures

a)

Stem System

b)

Leaf system

c)

Shoot system

d)

Xylem

492.

The tubes and support that transport water

and nutrients up, down and around in plants

a)

Vascular System

b)

Shoot System

c)

Root System

d)

Reproductive System

493.

The process of water movement in plants

due to evaporation out the stomata

and absorption of water through the root hairs

a)

Active Transport

b)

Transpiration

c)

Stomata

d)

Guard Cells

494.

Pores under leaves

that allow for transpiration

and gas exchange

a)

Xylem

b)

Stomata

c)

Phloem

d)

Transpiration

495.

Two cells that regulate the size of the stomata depending on temperature and

water conditions

a)

Phloem

b)

Xylem

c)

Stomata

d)

Guard Cells

496.

Copper is a micronutrient that can be found in soil. Copper is important for reproductive growth in plants and plays an indirect role in chlorophyll production. Which statement correctly describes the interaction that occurs between the root and the shoot systems of plant to allow reproduction to occur?

a)

Copper is produced in the roots when copper-containing compounds are hydrolyzed.

b)

Copper that is absorbed by the roots is transported to reproductive tissue by the shoot system.

c)

The shoot system stores copper for later use by the roots and the reproductive structures.

d)

The shoot system transports copper to the roots after it is taken in through stomata in the leaves.

497.

The outermost layer of plant stems in dicotyledons consists of epidermal cells and guard cells that surround opening called stomata. The epidermal cells ate usually covered with a waterproof layer that provides protection for injury and water loss. The stomata allow gas exange. The epidermal cells and stomata have functions similar to those of which two humans body systems?

a)

Skeletal and respiratory

b)

cardiovascular and skeletal

c)

integumentary and respiratory

d)

cardovascular and integumentary

498.

The response represented in the illustration would most likely be caused by-

a)

a reduced supply of oxygen

b)

long periods of rainfall

c)

high concentrations of glucose

d)

little available water

499.
Which of these includes a plant embryo (seed), a food supply, and a protective covering?
a)
flower
b)
fruit
c)
stem
d)
stamen
500.

Which number or numbers identify the stamen?

a)

3,4

b)

5, 6, 7

c)

2

d)

8, 9

Similar Resources on Wayground

TULANG (CH.1)

500 questions

TULANG (CH.1)

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade - University