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Biology Final Remi

Total questions: 260

Worksheet time: 4hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Identify which of the following term describes changes occurring at synapses that causes an increase in synaptic transmission

a)

neuronal plasticity

b)

encoding

c)

retrieval

d)

long term potentiation

2.

The transfer of information from short term memory to long term memory is called.

a)

encoding

b)

stimulation

c)

remodeling

d)

plasticity

3.

Compare and Contrast long-term potentiation and short-term memory?

a)

I Long term memory is limited capacity

b)

II both are longer in duration than sensory memory storage

c)

III short term memory is unlimited incapacity

d)

IV Long term memory is unlimited in duration

4.

A brain injury results in the inability to recall old memories but new memories can be formed. hypothesize which process was most likely affected.

a)

encoding from STM to LTM

b)

retrieval from STM to LTM

c)

Retrieval from LTM to STM

d)

encoding from LTM to STM

5.

According to what is known about long-term potentiation and memory formation, which of the following are the best ways to prepare each week from the workshop?

a)

I read the lecture notes several times

b)

ii attend the reviews and actively take notes while watching lectures.

c)

iii make your own organizers for each of the outcomes

d)

iv retype the notes several times and bring your laptop to the workshop,

e)

v participate in study groups in which students teach each other the material from lecture.

6.

correctly sequence memory formation starting with the stimulus from the environment?

a)

encoding to short term memory, long term memory storage, sensory memory storage, long term potentiation.

b)

encoding to short term memory, long term memory storage, long term potentiation, sensory memory storage.

c)

long term memory storage, encoding to short term memory, sensory memory storage, long term potentiation.

d)

sensory memory storage, encoding to short term memory, long term memory, long term potentiation.

7.

identify which statement best describes the term chunking with respect to learning?

a)

learning a set of related information

b)

going to several lectures in one day

c)

studying several hours in one day

d)

organizing the lectures notes alphabetically

8.

identify which of the following is an example of emergence?

a)

a bicycle can be broken down into small mechanical parts?

b)

cells can be broken down into organelles and molecules

c)

a water molecule has polarity

d)

the mass of the large molecule is the sum of the mass of its atoms.

9.

within a single water molecule, hydrogen forms a---- bond with an atom of --------

a)

polar covalent, oxygen

b)

hydrogen bond, hydrogen

c)

hydrogen bond, oxygen

d)

polar covalent, hydrogen

10.

Compare and Contrast chemical bonds. which statement correctly describes both polar covalent bonds and ionic bonds?

a)

results in the sharing of electrons

b)

are interactions involving electrons

c)

results in the sharing of electrons always result in an electrically charged molecule

d)

always results in an electrically charged molecule, require the involvement of water molecule, are interactions involving electrons.

11.

which of the following interactions are only intramolecular attractions?

a)

hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds

b)

nonpolar covalent bonds, ionic bonds

c)

polar covalent bonds, hydrogen bonds

d)

polar covalent bond, non polar covalent bond

12.

identify which of the following are true about excited electrons.

a)

the charge becomes positive, they move away from atoms nucleus

b)

the charge becomes positive, they have higher kinetic energy

c)

they have higher kinetic energy, they have higher potential energy.

d)

they move away from the atom's nucleus, they have higher potential energy.

13.

Compare and contrast emergent properties of water which of the following results from attractions between water molecules.

a)

ice is denser than liquid water

b)

cohesion results in surface tension

c)

water is a polar molecule

d)

water moves by osmosis

14.

what is the correct order of the stages of investigating if grass grows faster in july than august?


I grow 10 different plots of grass and measure their rate of growth and moisture for the months of July and August.

II the hypothesis is supported.

III predicts that grass grows significantly faster when the soil has higher moisture.

IV the observation Is that grass grows faster in july than august.

V the hypothesis is that grass grows faster in july because the sol has more moisture than in August.

a)

IV , I, III, II

b)

V, IV, III, II, I

c)

IV, V, III, I, II

d)

V, II, III, IV, I

15.

hypothesize what kind of bond is most likely to form between two atoms with a very small difference in electronegativity.

a)

peptide

b)

ionic

c)

covalent

d)

hydrogen

16.

identify which of the following statement correctly describes hydrolysis.

a)

breaks down polymers

b)

endergonic

c)

used to make polysaccharides

d)

results in peptide bonds

17.

compare and contrast functional groups. what properties are shared between carbonyl and hydroxyl groups?

a)

contain carbon bound to hydrogen

b)

are charged

c)

contain nitrogen

d)

are polar

18.

identify which of the following is true about hydrocarbons chains?

I they can differ through the plasma membrane

II they contain a ratio of 1C to 2H to 1 Oxygen

III they are usually nonpolar

IV they are biological monomers

a)

i and iii

b)

i and ii

c)

ii and iv

d)

iii

19.

hypothesize how changing the r group on a molecule from methyl group to a hydroxyl group would change the properties of a short hydrocarbon.

I become hydrophilic

II becomes acidic

III becomes hydrophobic

Iv can form hydrogen bonds

a)

iii and iv

b)

i and iv

c)

ii and iii

d)

i and ii

20.

glucagon is a hormone that then triggers the release of sugar from your liver, for the sugar to be released the following reaction must take place in your liver.

a)

glucosidic linkage

b)

hydrolysis

c)

dehydration synthesis

d)

hydrogen bond

21.

identify which functional group is primarily responsible for the hydrophilic nature of the primary molecules of plasma membranes.

a)

phosphate group

b)

hydroxyl group

c)

methyl group

d)

carboxyl group

22.

compare and contrast biological molecules, which of this statement correctly describes both of the pictured molecule?

I produce as the result of a hydrolysis reaction between monomers

II requires the addition of water molecule to break it into its monomers

III it is a hydrocarbon

Iv it can interact with water molecules

a)

i and ii

b)

ii and iv

c)

i and iii

d)

ii, iii, anc iv

23.

identify which of the following statements is true with regards to protein structure?


I formation of primary structure is spontaneous.

II alpha helices are an example of tertiary structure

III tertiary structure involves interaction between r group.

IV primary structure is th sequuence of amino acids in a protein.

a)

Iv and v

b)

iv

c)

i and iii

d)

iii and iv

24.

corectly sequence evolutionaru developments in the history of life?

I prokaryotes

II endosymbioses

III photosynthesis

IV multicellular eukaryotes

V terrestrail animals

a)

iii, ii, i, iv, v

b)

i, ii, iii, iv, v

c)

iii, i,ii,iv,v

d)

i, iii, ii, iv, v

25.

in which pair do both terms correctly decribe the earliest cellular life?

a)

predator, eukaryote

b)

prokaryote, heterotroph

c)

areobe, eukaryote

d)

autotroph, prokaryote

26.

analysis of ancient rocks has shown the atmosphere of early earth was very low in free oxygen and that simple organic compounds probably accumulated in shallow water, which of the following does this support?

a)

rna worl hypothesis

b)

oparin haldene hypothesis

c)

serial endosymbiosis

d)

iron sulfur world hypothesis

27.

which of the following are requirements for the abiotic synthesis of organic monomers?

I inorganic building blocks like CO2 and H2

II atmospheric oxygen

III protein enzymes

IV an energy source

a)

ii and iii

b)

i and iv

c)

i, ii, and iv

d)

ii and iii

28.

you are swimming in the ocean and encounter a small structure. when you take it back to the lab you find that it is comprised of organic phosphate and hydrocarbons forming a sphere. inside there are no proteins only some simple sugar and ions. what have you found.

a)

a cell membrane

b)

a nucleus

c)

prokaryotic cell

d)

protocell

29.

oxygen is determental to the spontaneous formation of organic monomers because of it.

a)

is an oxidizing agent

b)

does not react with existing monomers

c)

requires an enzyme to react with other molecules

d)

increases the rate of peptide bond formation

30.

life on earth did not leave a fossil record until 3.5 years prior to this, scientist have hypothesized that the precursors to cells mjust have gone through a series of four steps to form a single cell. correctly sequence the events that occured prior to the first cells on earth.

I formstion of macromolecules

II formation of protocells

III abiotic synthesis of small organic molecules

IV self replicating molecules

a)

I, II, III, IV

b)

iii, ii, i, iv

c)

iii, i, ii, iv

d)

ii, iii, iv, i

31.

compare and contrast the domains of life, which contains cells with endomembrane system?

i archea

ii bacteria

iii eukarya

a)

i

b)

iii

c)

i and ii

d)

ii and iii

32.

identify where DNA is found within a bacterium.

a)

plamsa membrane

b)

lysosome

c)

cytoplasm

d)

nuclear envelop

33.

hypothesize which of the following steps in protein transport will not occur as a result of a cell being exposed to poison.

i tertairy folding of polypeptide

ii exocytosis of the protein

iii synthesis of ribosomes

iv fomation of peptide bond

v protein modification in golgi apparatus

a)

i, iv, and v

b)

ii and v

c)

ii, iii, v

d)

ii

34.

compare and contrast protocells and living cells. which of the following are charcteristics shared by both?

i growth followed by division

ii osmotic swelling

iii internal environment diffrent from external environment

iv information storage and transmission

a)

ii, iii, iv

b)

i, ii, iii

c)

iii, iv

d)

i,ii, iii, iv

35.

identify which of the following structure catalyzes the formation of peptide bond?

a)

golgi apparatus

b)

endoplasmic reticulum

c)

ribosomes

d)

nucleus

36.

correctly sequence the order in which a hydrolase enzyme passes through the emdomembrane system as it is being synthesized and modified.

i rough er

ii golgi apparatus

iii secondary lysosome

iv primary lysosome

a)

iii, iv, ii, i

b)

iv, iii, i, ii

c)

i, ii, iv, iii

d)

ii, i, iv, iii

37.

if the cell is functioning normally, hypothesize in which cell structures these labeled phopholipids could eventually be found?

i ribosomes

ii nuclues

iii golgi aparatus

iv lysosomes

a)

ii and iii

b)

ii, iii, iv

c)

i, iii

d)

ii, iii, iv

38.

compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, which structures are found in both types of cell?

i nucleiod

ii ribosomes

iii DNA

iv plasma membrane

v proteins

a)

i, ii, iv

b)

iii, v

c)

i, iii, iv

d)

ii, iii, iv, v

39.

identify which of the following is a charcteristics of the nuclear envelop.

a)

synthesize ribosome

b)

separate nucleus from cytoplasm

c)

is only present in prokaryotes

d)

contains structure involved in protein synthesis

40.

identify which of the follwoing move substances both across the membrane and against concentration gradient.

a)

proton h pumps

b)

facilitated diffucion

c)

phagocytosis

d)

exocitosis

41.

a solution that surrounds a cell and causes it to lose water?

a)

osmotic

b)

isotonic

c)

hypotonic

d)

hypertonic

42.

which of the following are unable to move through a phospholipids bilayer via simple diffusion?

a)

hydrocarbon

b)

nonpolar gases like co2

c)

small polar molecules like H2O

d)

large polar molecules like glucose

43.

hypothethize which of the following membrane functions would be interrupted if all transmembrane proteins were removed from the plasma membrane?

i active transport

ii signal transduction

iii facilitated diffusion

iv simple diffusion

a)

ii, iii, iv

b)

i, ii

c)

i, ii, iii

d)

ii, iv

44.

identidy which of the following types of membrane transport are specific.

i exocutosis

ii pinocytosis

iii facilited diffusion via ion chemicals

iv simple diffusion

v receptor mediated endocytosis

a)

ii, iii, v

b)

iv, v

c)

i, iii

d)

iii, v

45.

identify the type of lipids that are primary component of cell membrane.

a)

triglcerides

b)

phospholids

c)

saturated fats

d)

chl0esterol

46.

two solution that are seperated by a membrane are at dynamic equlibrium. water molecules can cross the memmbrane but solute molecules cannot, which statement correctly decribes the scenario.

a)

one solution is hypotonic and the other is hypertonic

b)

both solution are hypertonic

c)

there is no movement occuring across the membrane

d)

water molecule move in both directions across the membrane

47.

the bulk transport of large molecules by cells?

a)

alwayss depend on the imput of energy by the cell

b)

is a type of facilitated diffusion

c)

always results in the movement of material into the cell

d)

occurs in the prokaryotes, but not in eukaryotes

48.

identify which of the following functional groups is removed from ATP to drive endergonic reaction?

a)

OH

b)

COOH

c)

CH3

d)

OPO 3

49.

compare and contrast anabolism an catabolism, which of the following statement is true.

i catabolic reactions build complex molecules

ii anabolic reaction build complex molecules

iii anabolic require energy

iv catabolic reactions release energy

a)

ii, iii

b)

ii, iv

c)

i, iii, iv

d)

ii, iii, iv

50.

identify which statement correctly decribes ATP.

a)

its hydrolysis is coupled to exergonic reactions

b)

its main components are lipids and 3 phosphate groups

c)

its hydrolysis is an endergonic reaction

d)

its stores potential energy in bonds between phosphate groups.

51.

which of the following are true about this reaction/

C6 H12 06- 6CO2 + 6H20+ E

I anabolic

ii catabolic

iii exergonic

iv endergonic

v delta G

a)

i, iii

b)

ii, iii

c)

i, iv

d)

i, iv, v

52.

in redox reaction

i the molecule that is oxidized gains an electron

ii at least one free electron is released into the solution

iii the molecule that is reduced gains an electron

a)

i

b)

ii

c)

iii

d)

i, iii

53.

an enzyme that catalyzes an exergonic reaction has been treated with an irreversiblee inhibitor. hypothesize how the reaction will cahnge compared to before the inhibitor was introduced.

a)

the activator energy will be lower

b)

delta G willl change from positive to negtaive

c)

the activation energy will be higher

d)

delta G will change from negative to positive

54.

a gene for a human enzyme body temperature is inserted into a bacterium that lives in a hot spring hypothesize how this enzyme activity will change.

a)

operate faster at higher temperature

b)

denature and stop working

c)

it will be unaffected

d)

operate slower due to higher temperature

55.

which of the following best decribe free energy.

a)

disorder in a system

b)

energy lost has heat

c)

energy in motion

d)

energy available to do work

56.

correctly sequence the events that occur during photosynthesis.

I energy used to synthesize ATP

ii electron moves to a higher orbital

iii energy absorbed from a photon

iv electron leaves an stom and its captured by an acceptor

a)

iii, iv, ii, i

b)

ii, iii, i, iv

c)

iii, ii, iv, i

d)

i, iii, ii, iv

57.

identify which of the following is true for photosynthesis.

a)

oxygen is a recatant

b)

overall, it is an exergonic reaction

c)

carbon dioxide is a reactant

d)

the overall free energy change is negative

58.

identify the main source of energy that excites the electron during photosunthesis.

a)

NADPH

b)

light

c)

ATP

d)

C6 H12 06

59.

sequence photosynthesis during the calvin cycle electron move.

a)

from C02 to a sugar

b)

from NADPH to G3P

c)

from stroma to the thylakoid space

d)

from ATP to NADPH

60.

where does the carbon used in photosynthesis come from.

a)

glucose stored in roots

b)

C02 in the air

c)

carbon compounds in the soil

d)

CO in the air

61.

identify which of the following is the source of electrons during photosynthesis

a)

C6 H12 06

b)

02

c)

C02

d)

H20

62.

compare and contrast photosynthesis and areobic cellular respiration, which of the following statement are true in both.

i water is reduced and organuc carbon is oxidized

ii they are anabolic reactions

iii on net, ATP is produced

iv chemiosmosis occurs

a)

i,ii

b)

i,ii,iii

c)

ii, iii

d)

iv

63.

how is 02 used by a plant cell.

a)

plants cells do not produce O2

b)

as the terminal electron acceptor during photosynthesis

c)

as an electron carrier during the light dependent reaction

d)

during respiration as the terminal electron acceptor

64.

How many ATP are required to move one glucose molecule into eukaryotic cell.

a)

0

b)

2

c)

4

d)

28

65.

sequence the cellular respiration NAD+ is reduced during

i glycolysis

ii pyruvate oxidation

iii the citric acid cycle

iv oxidative phosphorylation

a)

i, ii, ii, iv

b)

ii, iv

c)

i, ii,iii

d)

iv

66.

sequence cellular repiration, during cellular respiration which of the following molecule is reduced.

I glucose

ii FAD

iii carbon dioxide

v O2

a)

i

b)

ii, v

c)

i,iii, iv

d)

ii, iv, v

67.

identify which molecule is oxiized during glycolysis.

a)

glucose

b)

oxygen

c)

water

d)

NAD+

68.

identify where the electron transport chain located in animla cells.

a)

outer mitochodria membrane

b)

plasma membrane

c)

endoplastic reticulum

d)

inner mitochondrial membrane

69.

which of the following is the ultimate destination for electrons in areobic respiration.

a)

ATP

b)

glucose

c)

CO2

d)

H20 WATER

70.

compare and contrast areobic respiration and photosynthesis. which of the following occur during both.

i protons are pumped across the membrane

ii ATP are produced

iii electron move down an electron transport chain

iv energy is converted frrom one form to another

V protons (h+) diffuse through ATP synthase

a)

i, ii, iv

b)

i, ii, iii

c)

ii, iv, v

d)

i,ii, iii, iv, v

71.

what is the definition of lonng term potentiation? ( lecture 1)

a)

encoded memory

b)

stores LTM AND STM

c)

it is the reinforcement of the synapses, basically the strengthening of synapses through repeated use.

d)

its a type of learning

72.

what is the definition of neuronal plasity?

a)

is the changes between the physical connection between neurons and your brain.

b)

helps devlops the brain

c)

helps to restore information

d)

provide data for LTM AND STM

73.

sequence the scientific method

i make an observation

ii make a background research

iii generate an hypothesis (an educated guess)

iv prediction

a)

i, iii, ii, iv

b)

ii, iii, i, iv

c)

i, ii, iii, iv

d)

iv, ii, iii, i

74.

what happens when an electron become energised.it goes to a higher orbital what happens then.

a)

it has more potential energy (it is a energy that material posesses due to its location or structure)

b)

it has more mechanical energy

c)

it has more electric energy

d)

it has more molecular energy

75.

electrons are involved in bonds, compare and contrast types of chemical bonds. (lecture 2)

i he strongest type of bond, covalent bond ( shares electron between atom.

ii ionic bond steals an electron to the other atoms

iii they both have similiar bond

IV they are types of chemical bonds

a)

i, iv

b)

ii, i,iv, iii

c)

i, ii, iv

d)

i, ii, iii, iv

76.

what are the two types of covelent bond. when the definition of electronegativity measures of atoms affiniy for electrons in chemical bond.

a)

polar the unequal sharing of electrons, uenequal electronegativity, hydrophillic has a peratial charge.

b)

non polar, electrons are shared equally, hydrophic has no charge.

c)

Hydrogen bonds, partial charge that results to bind electronegativity

d)

ionic bond stealing of electrons

77.

what is te strongest force of Van der Waals interaction? what occuring between hydrophillic things.

I hydron bonds, interaction between polar molecule, that has a partial charge positive or negative

II peptide bond

III binds to electronegativity atoms

Iv Covalent bond

a)

I and iii

b)

II and iii

c)

I and iv

d)

ii and i

78.

what are the bonds within an atom.

I polar covelent bond are intramolecular

II hydrogen bonds are intermolecular (between diffrent molecule)

III polar covalent within the molecule

Iv hydrogen bond the same as intermoculecular

a)

i and iv

b)

ii, i, iii, i

c)

ii, ii, iv

d)

i and ii

79.

compare and contrast emergent properties of water which of the following statement are true ?

I cohesion attraction between water molecule and also includes surface tension.

II adhesion stick to other things also includes capillary action.

III The property of water that is due to cohesion, because theu absorb a lot of heat and stick together.

iv water moves by osmosis.

a)

iv, ii, iii

b)

i, iv, ii

c)

i, ii, iii,

d)

ii, iii, ii

80.

why do they expand when they freeze?

a)

the form a crystal structure when the molecule more arther apart from each other.

b)

Ice love to float cause they love chemical

c)

water is a polar molecule

d)

each water molecule can form 4 H bonds

81.

Compare and contrast hydrophillic and Hydrphobic?

a)

when things will disolve in water.

b)

Hydrosurface which makes water a solvent solution.

c)

when something does not dissolve in water

d)

when water are non polar, which means they don't dissolve in water.

82.

Compare and Contrast functional groups? (lecture 3)

I they are seven in number

ii hydroxyl ( polar OH) , carbonol (double bond , carboxyl, amino, sulfhydry, phosphate, methyl

a)

Hydroxyl (polar OH, hydrophobic), Carbonol ( double bond O hydrophillic) phophate (PO4H2 responsible for the hydrophillic nature of primary molecules of plasma membrane)

b)

amino oxide

c)

caroboxyl (COOH part of amino acid, hydroplillic) , amino ( NH2 will accept H protons, hydrophilic) , sulfhydry ( SH, hydrophillic) , methyl ( CH3, nonpolar hydrophobic)

d)

they are seven in number

83.

sequnece and compare dehydration and hydrolysis?

which of the statements decrobes them.

a)

removing water in a monomer

b)

forming diffrent polymers

c)

creating a polymer by removing H20 (water)and it is endergonic.

d)

means splitting water, so basically splitting monomers apart by breaking the water molecule, ( exergonic)

84.

compare and contrast biological macrolecules, carbohydrtae, lipids, protein. which of the follwoing statement are true.

a)

does not form a polymer

b)

glycocidic linkage are type of bond that we see between the mononomers.

c)

the mononer are amino acid

d)

the monomers are monosaccharides, and the polymer are polysaccharides.

85.

what type of bond do we form during amino acid?

a)

Hydrogen bond

b)

peptide bond

c)

Hydroxyl bond

d)

amino bond

86.

compare and contrast and sequence protein structure which of the following statements are true?

side notes proteins are everything except heredity.

a)

Primary ( is the linear sequence of amino acid) secondary ( short distance interaction that leads to local folds and is connected by hydrogen bonds )

b)

Primary ( arrange the bond acid) Secondary ( connected by peptide).

c)

tertiary ( long-distance and all types of bond when you have the bog fold). quaternary ( two or more polypeptides forming your final protein)

d)

tertiary (protein folded in 2d structures) quaternary ( interaction between the 2 peptide bonds)

87.

what do carbohydrates and lipids do? which of the following applies to the above definitions.

I structures, cell walls are made including energy storage.

ii hydrocarbons with phosphate groups

iii fatty acid (are energy storage, connected by glycerol and fatty acid, they are acidic by carbon with hydroxyl group), steroids ( cholesterol for membrane structures), phospholipids ( all about membrane structure)

iv storage that form in the polymers

a)

ii and iv

b)

i, ii, iii, iv

c)

i, iii

d)

iii, ii, i, iv

88.

what are the two types of covelent bond. when the definition of electronegativity measures of atoms affiniy for electrons in chemical bond.

a)

polar the unequal sharing of electrons, uenequal electronegativity, hydrophillic has a peratial charge.

b)

non polar, electrons are shared equally, hydrophic has no charge.

c)

Hydrogen bonds, partial charge that results to bind electronegativity

d)

ionic bond stealing of electrons

89.

sequence the four stages of abiogenesis? (lecture 4)

what are they? putting in mind that the four steps of abiotic synthesis are low free oxygen, sources of energy, chemical components, building blocks, time.

a)

abiotic synthesis of monomers

b)

the appearance of self-replication

c)

formation of an organic molecule

d)

abiotic of polymers

e)

formation of protocells

90.

compare and contrast abiotic system hypothesis?

i Oparin Haldane Hypothesis- surface shallow water found in amino acid.

ii Haldane Hypothesis

iii Iron Hypothesis- organic molecule form at hypothermal vents.

Iv Iron-Sulfur Hypothesis

a)

ii, iii

b)

ii, iii, iv, i

c)

i and iii

d)

i, ii, iv

91.

what are the definitions of a protocell?

Ribosomes are Rna molecules that end with the enzymatic property.

a)

assembly to form the protein structure

b)

attached to the ribosomes

c)

it involves metabolism and heredity

d)

non-living assembly of living things and it is missing both heredity and metabolism.

92.

sequence the evolution of life? describe the earliest cell.

I anaerobic (no oxygen)

II heterotroph (can't make their own food)

iii predators ( eat other animals)

Iv prokaryotes (simple cells, without a nucleus)

a)

i, ii, iv

b)

ii, iii, inv

c)

i, iv, ii

d)

i, ii, iii, iv

93.

what is the big benefit of aerobic respiration?

a)

stores energy

b)

you get more ATP, and you can be more complex by being a eukaryote (endosymbioses).

c)

makes photosynthesis

d)

gives energy respiration

94.

what is the process that eukaryotes use to get some of their structures?

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria and chloroplast

c)

cell membrane

d)

chloroplast and protocell

95.

compare and contrast prokaryotes and eukaryotes? ( lecture 5)

I have no nucleus, but they have a nucleoid where the DNA hangs around. (p)

ii the domains of life that are prokaryotes include bacteria, archaea)

iii have organelles and also have a nucleus. that include the eukarya (eukaryotes)

Iv nucleus

a)

i, ii, iii, iv

b)

ii, ii, iv

c)

ii, iii, iv

d)

i, ii, iii

96.

what is the big benefit of aerobic respiration?

a)

stores energy

b)

you get more ATP, and you can be more complex by being a eukaryote (endosymbioses).

c)

makes photosynthesis

d)

gives energy respiration

97.

compare and contrast organelles of structure?

I the nucleus stores the DNA in the eukaryote

ii nucleotides where the DNA is in the prokaryote

iii nucleolus genes expression and making ribosomes in the nucleus.

Iv the endoplasmic reticulum- membranes that are connected to the nuclear envelope.

a)

i, iii, iv, ii

b)

ii, iii, i, iv

c)

i, iii, iv

d)

i, ii, iii, iv

98.

compare and contrast smooth endoplasmic reticulum and rough endoplasmic reticulum.

a)

it is lipid synthesis (s)

b)

it has no ribosomes

c)

is involved in protein synthesis, and it is rough because the ribosomes are attached to it.

d)

you have no proteins structure

99.

what is the definition of the mitochondria and the chloroplast?

a)

has to do with aerobic respiration (m)

b)

Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis.

c)

is in charge of making glucose (c)

d)

lysosomes have to do with digestion, and the vacuoles is good for storage.

100.

sequence and HD the protein processing pathways?

that has to do with the endomembrane system.

I Rough ER

II Golgi

II Primary lysosomes

Iv secondary lysosome

a)

Golgi, rough, secondary, primary

b)

primary, secondary, Golgi, rough er

c)

rough er, Golgi, primary, secondary lysosomes

d)

secondary, rough er, Golgi, primary lysosomes

101.

Compare and contrast membrane components? (lecture 6)

I amphipathic used to describe phospholipids

ii Protein speeds enzymes

iiicarbohydrate does cell identification and the two structures are glycolipids and glycoprotein.

iv Protein- when it is on the surface it's called peripheral, integral when protein is hydrophobic, and transmembrane is a subset of integral).

a)

i, ii,iii, iv

b)

ii, iii, iv

c)

i, iii, iv

d)

iii, i, ii,iv

102.

what are the fluid mosaic model?

a)

when membrane components can move

b)

is when the components move laterally, kind of related to emergent properties.

c)

Two layer of the membrane structures

d)

attached to the membrane components

103.

Compare and contrats types of membrane transport?

i simple diffusion is something that goes from a region of high concentration to low concentration. (s)

iiosmosis; diffusion of water through the membrane.

iiiActive diffusion; productive energy storage In the membrane.

iv facilitated diffusion when something is like glucose, and has hydrophilic.

water can move from both hypotonic to hypertonic.

a)

i, iv

b)

ii, iii, i, iv

c)

iii, ii, iv

d)

i, ii, iii, iv

104.

active transport is what we need to move something from the concentration gradient? low to high

I requires ATP

II making a gradient and you need energy

iii proteins are added to plasma membrane

Iv Proteins are formed.

a)

i, ii

b)

iii, iv, ii

c)

i, ii, iii, iv

d)

ii, i, iii

105.

Compare and Contrast bulk transport?

I exocytosis, to get things out of the cells, and endocytosis is when you bring stuff in.

ii exocytosis- enzyme eating

iii phagocytosis- cellular eating

iv Pinocytosis- bring in liquid and disolve ions(celll drinking), recepted mediated- use receptors to get specific molecules.

a)

ii, i, iii

b)

ii, iiii, iv

c)

i, ii, iii, iv

d)

i, iii, iv

106.

Compare and Contrats anabolic and catabolic? (lecture 7)

I Anabolic is when we build things, when we build bigger things it's endergonic (storing energy) and the delta G is positive.

II catabolic is breaking and it's releases energy by being released that is related to exergonic) the delta G is negative.

iii catabolic build complex molecules

iv anabolic destroy molecules

a)

i, ii

b)

iii, iii,

c)

i, ii, iii, iv

d)

i, iii, iv

107.

sequence ATP functions?

I have 3 phoshate group, they are acidic and they have a negative charge and repel each other.

ii they have a positive charge.

iii you can use ATP by doing endergonic and exergonic reaction.

iv it has a high potential energy

a)

iii, i, ii

b)

i, iv, iii, ii

c)

iii, i, ii

d)

i, iii, iv

108.

Seqquence and HD enzymes functions that include inhibitors? knowing that the inhibitor prevents the enzyme from working.

a)

an enzyme speeds up the reaction, and lowers the activation energy.

b)

the activation energy will be lower.

c)

The activation energy will be much higher

d)

the inhibitors contribute to the enzyme working.

109.

Compare and Contrast and sequence redox reaction?

a)

redox when you reduces it, it gains electrons.

b)

oxidation is losing electrons, while redox is gaining electrons

c)

Redox loses electrons.

d)

the movement of electrons between different molecules.

110.

what are the two laws of thermodynamic?

a)

Law of observation: observing specific reaction

b)

Law of conservation energy states that energy cannot be created or destroyed.

c)

Law of the energy, the ability to lose heat.

d)

The Law of thermodynamics entropy always increases in a closed system.

111.

what role does NAD+ play during various metabolic processes?

I it is an electron receptor

ii when it react it reduce and becomes NADH, an then it will be oxidized.

iii It gains electron and become redox

Iv it becomes NAHD

a)

i, ii, iii, iv

b)

ii, iv

c)

i, ii

d)

iii, iv

112.

Compare and contrast and sequence the steps of photosynthesis? what does energy flow through ecosystem starts with. Lecture 8 and 9

a)

heat, autotroph, light, heterotroph

b)

light, autotroph, heterotroph, heat

c)

heterotroph, light, heat, autotroph

d)

autotroph, heat, heterotroph, light

113.

sequence the formation of photosynthesis and cell respiration? by following through four processes.

electron, carbon, energy, oxygen

a)

The light dependent reaction is the first part of photosynthesis. we accomplish ATP and the NADPH because the energy comes from sunlight.

b)

Lipids stored in energy.

c)

we get the electron back from photosynthesis by H20, and the P680 oxidize the water molecule

d)

The electron ultimately comes from water.

114.

what happens when you pump protons across the thylakoid membrane during photosynthesis?

a)

ATP

b)

Chemiosis occur

c)

NADPH

d)

Oxygen

115.

what is the source of carbon?

a)

H20

b)

C02 and calvin cycle

c)

ATP

d)

NADPH

116.

where are all carbon, energy and elctron at the end of the calvin cycle?

a)

ATP

b)

GP3

c)

CO2

d)

H02

117.

how does oxygen gets in?

a)

Gets in by NADPH and end at G3P

b)

gets in by H2o and leves O2

c)

the electron starts at H2O and end up by at G3P

d)

enters by CO2

118.

where does C02 goes in?

a)

carbon substance in the air

b)

carbons goes in through the calvin cycle.

c)

carbons goes through glucose

d)

and in the form of CO2 Calvin enters and it leaves as G3P or glucose.

119.

Compare contrast and sequence the steps of respiration including the structures and location? energy, oxygen, electron, carbon.

a)

The energy, electron, carbon, are all coming from glucose.

b)

Glucolysis occurs in the cytoplasm. glucose goes in and two pyruvate comes out. and you get NADH and ATP.

c)

sugar is produced

d)

Pyruvate oxidation is imported into the mitochondria. and it becomes oxidized.

120.

at the end of the citric acid cycle what happens?

a)

the energy that we started with will be with the NADH and the FADH.

b)

located in the ATP.

c)

it is all C02

d)

The electrons will be located in the NADH and FADH

121.

what are the two part of oxidative pholoration?

a)

The electron transport chain, it creates protein gradient using the electron from NADH and FADH

b)

It happen in the inner mitochondrial membrane.

c)

The gradient is potential energy

d)

It happens in the plasma membrane

122.

what do we do with the electrons at the end?

a)

we react to them with oxygen to make H20

b)

we decombose them

c)

we store them

d)

they are enerygised

123.

A cell that is in the M phase of the cycle is exposed to a toxin that prevents the separation of identical DNA molecules, hypothesize which of the following will be the most immediate outcme.

a)

the nuclear envelop will not break down.

b)

the chromosome will not line up

c)

the microtubles will not depolymerize

d)

the sister chromatids will not move to opposite poles.

124.

a cell with G1 and has 34 chromosome what is the ploidy of the daughter cells after this cells goes through mitosis?

a)

2n- 17

b)

n-34

c)

2n- 68

d)

2n-34

125.

correctly sequence the following events in the cell cycle starting with the S phase?

I DNA is replicated

II nuclear envelop reforms

iii chromosomes condense

iv mitotic spindle attach to thee kinetichores

v sister chromatids moves to opposite sides of cell

a)

i, iii, iv, v, ii

b)

i, iv, iii, ii, v

c)

iii, iv, i, ii, v

d)

iii, i, v, iv, ii

126.

white tailed deer has 70 chromosomes in each oof their kidney cell, during the cell cycle of a deer kidney cell, there are ----- chromosome in the cell during interphase and ----- chromosomes in the cell during mitoti.

a)

35, 35

b)

35, 70

c)

70, 35

d)

70, 70

127.

a scientist is studing the cell cycle, she lyses several cells and run an assay for cell components. her sample shows high levels oh helicase and SSBP (single stranded binding proteins) in which stage of the cell cycle are her sample cells currently.

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

interphase

128.

in the following image Y is a ----- and Z is ------

a)

sister chromatids, centromere

b)

chromosome, sister chromatids

c)

kinetochore handles, chromosome

d)

chromosome, centromere

129.

identify chromosomes number, in the following image cell, A has a combined chromosomes that when joined together are 6 in numbers, and cell b has -------

a)

6,3

b)

3,6

c)

12,6

d)

6,6

130.

sequence mitosis and meiosis. during which stage of mitosis and meiosis do sister chromatids seperate?

i Anaphase 1

ii Anapahse

iii Anaphase ii

a)

i and iii

b)

i and ii

c)

ii

d)

i, ii, iii

131.

Aedes have 6 shromosomes in their somatic cells. in males specialized cells undergo meiosis to produce sperm. those cells that are undergoing meiosis contain ---- chromosomes during prophase i and ----- chromosomes during prophase ii

a)

3, 12

b)

3, 6

c)

6, 6

d)

6, 3

132.

identify which of the followiing is a benefit of asexual reprooduction:

a)

generetic variation

b)

need to find a mate

c)

only a single parent

d)

mutations take a tool

133.

identify the stage of meiosis where the cell is are haploid?

a)

s phase of interphase

b)

interkinesis

c)

metaphase I

d)

prophase I

134.

sequence the process of meiosis, you have found a plant cell that has a ploidy of 20n and 2000, chromosomes. A cell from this plants in metaphase ii has a ploidy of ----- and the number of chromosomes is ----.

a)

10n, 1000

b)

20n, 2000

c)

10n, 500

d)

20n, 1000

135.

Compare and contrast life cycles, which of the following occur in the lifecyle of both a fungus and an animal?

i fertitlization

ii mitosis

iii meiosis

iv 2n cells

v haploid cells

a)

i, iii, iv

b)

i, ii, v

c)

iii, iv, iv

d)

i, ii, iii, iv, v

136.

sequence meisosis during which phase of meiosis is ploidy reduced?

a)

s pahse of interphase

b)

second meiotic division

c)

interkinesis

d)

first meiotic division

137.

identify which of the following terms decribe an individual who has diifferent alleles for gene.

a)

homosygous recessive

b)

homozygous dominant

c)

heterozygous

d)

hemizygous

138.

which of the following observation made by medel invalidared the hypothesis of belnding inheritance?

i F1 and F2 individuals were identical to parental generation.

ii F1 was comprised entirely of single parental phenotype

iii F2 contained parental phenotypes that were absent in F1

Iv one parental phenotypes was permanently lose

a)

ii, iv

b)

i, iv

c)

i, ii

d)

ii, iii

139.

golden retriever dogs can carry a recessive trait for deafness (h). a dog breeder wants to test if their dogs are carrying deafness, which of the follwing genotypes represents a test cross with a dog that is a carrier for deafness.

a)

Hh, hh

b)

hh, hh

c)

HH, hh

d)

Hh, Hh

140.

based on the punnet square which of the following statements is true? Gg and Gg crosses each other.

i this is a monohybrid cross

ii this is a test cross

iii both parents are heterosygous

iv the parents are homozygous individual

v all of the offspring express the dominanat trait

a)

i and iii

b)

ii, iv

c)

i, ii, iii

d)

ii, iv, v

141.

identify which of the following is true of dominant and recesssive allele?

a)

dominant and recessive alleles are never found in the same individual

b)

dominant alleles will mask the presence of recessive alleles

c)

only dominant alleles can determine phenotype

d)

when both are present the resulting phenotype is a combination of the two.

142.

which of the following statements is true regardiing alleles?

i sequence of DNA

ii segregated into different gametes

iii only found in diploid organisms

iv versions of the genes

a)

i and iv

b)

i, ii, iii

c)

iii, iv

d)

i, ii, iv

143.

apply probability rules, identify in which of the following situations is it appropraite to use the addition rule?

i determing the combined probalility of mutually exculsive events

ii determining the combined probability of independent events

iii determining the combined probability of events that cannot occur simultaneously

a)

i only

b)

ii only

c)

iii only

d)

i and iii

144.

the combined probability of two independents events is?

a)

also decribed as the probability of independent events

b)

determined by multiplying their separate probabilities

c)

the probability of two events that are mutually exclusive

d)

described as the probability of one events or the probability of the other events.

145.

identify which of the following is not a reason that fruit flies made a good test organism?

a)

many distinct chracteristics

b)

short generation time

c)

many chromosomes

d)

easy to control breeding

146.

a female carrying a recessive X linked trait mates with a males who does not have the trait, calculate the probability that the first offspring is a males who does not have the trait.

a)

1

b)

0.75

c)

0.5

d)

0.25

147.

Barr bodies

a)

occur in autosomal chromosomes in females

b)

occur when one X is randomly deactivated

c)

involve the Y chromosomes

d)

can only occur in females

148.

an animal with the sex chromosomes XY is hemizygous for certain character. what does this mean?

a)

every allele in the nucleus is expressed

b)

on the x chromosomes recessive alleles mask dominant alleles

c)

every allele on the X chromosomes is expressed

d)

all of the recessive alleles on the somatic chromosomes are expressed

149.

you are studing gene expression in humans. the trait that you are interested in has the following pattern. neither parent expresses the trait. one quarter of the daughters and the one quarter of the sons expresses the traits? Hypothesize the type of inheritance.


i mendelian

ii sex linked on the X chromosomes

iii sex linked on Y chromosomes

a)

i only

b)

ii

c)

iii

d)

i or ii

150.

Diagnose sex linkage a man inherits X linked disorder =, hypothesize which of the following ancestors could be the source of his disorder?

i paternal grandmother ( his father mother)

ii maternal grandmother (his mothers mother)

iii paternal grandfather (his father father)

iv maternal grandfather (his mothers father)

a)

iii, iv

b)

i, iii

c)

ii, iv

d)

i, ii

151.

male cockatiels have the sex chromosome ZZ while female cockatiels have the sex chromosome pair ZW, identify which of the following statement is true

I Z linked disease are commonly expressed in females cokatiels

ii one z chromosomes in male cokatiles is condense into barr body,

iii male cockatiels can be heterozygous for sex linked traits

iv female cockatiels are heterogametic

a)

i, ii

b)

i, ii, iii

c)

i, iii

d)

i, ii, iii, iv

152.

identify which of the following is the central finding of Thomas Morgan that was different from what Mendel Concluded?

a)

alleles segregate during gamete fomation

b)

homozygous recessive individuals exhibits recessive phenotype

c)

dominant alleles mask recessive alleles

d)

genes move on chromosomes not as an individual units

153.

A sequence of one DNA strand is? 3 A A A T G G C T A C 5

a)

5 T T A C C C G A T G 3

b)

5 A A T G G C T A C 3

c)

5 U U A C C G A U G 3

d)

3 C A T C G G T A A 5

154.

identify which of the following are components of a cytosine nucleotide?

i a purine

ii a pyrimidine

iii a five carbin sugar

iv a phosphate group

a)

i, iii

b)

ii, iii

c)

i, iii, iv

d)

ii, iii, iv

155.

correctly sequence the folowing proteins in the order in which they participate in DNA replication, starting with the breaking of hydrogen bonds.

i DNA polymerase

ii primase

iii helicase

iv single strand biinding proteins

a)

i, iii, ii, iv

b)

ii, i, iv, iii

c)

iii, i, ii, iv

d)

iii, iv, ii, i

156.

referring to the following image which of the followinng statements are true?

i 5 end of the molecule

ii 5 end of the molecule

iii elongation occurs here

a)

i, iii

b)

ii only

c)

i only

d)

iii

157.

this structure represents a nucleotide. based on this information which statements is true?

i this will pair with pyrimidine

ii it is either adenine or guanine

iii the hydroxyl group is attached to the 5" carbon

iv it is found in chromosomes, but not in chromatids

a)

i, ii, iv

b)

iii, iv, v

c)

i, iii, iv

d)

ii, iv, v

158.

Hypothesize where a reaction which breaks down hydrogen bonds would affect a DNA molecule, between a pyrimidine and?

a)

the 3' hydroxyl group

b)

a phosphate group

c)

the 5' carbon of deoxyribose

d)

a purine

159.

hypothesize the results of a mutation that prevented RNA primase from functioning, how would DNA replication be affected?

a)

replication would not be bidirectional from the origin of replication

b)

Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand would not be joined

c)

DNA replications would be unaffected

d)

DNA polymerase would be unable to place first DNA nucleotide

160.

identify which of the following corrcetly decribes the operation of DNA polymerase.

i adds new nucletides to the 5' side of the new DNA strand

ii catalyzes the formation of phosphodieter bonds

iii synthesizes a complementary daughter to the parent strand

a)

i only

b)

ii only

c)

iii only

d)

ii, iii

161.

identify which of the following statements bes5 decribe transcription

a)

mRNA used to generate specific polypeptide

b)

DNA used as template to generate specific mRNA

c)

mRNA converted into polypeptide

d)

polypeptide used to generate specific mRNA

162.

identify which of the following occurs only in the eukaryotes?

a)

translation

b)

formation of peptide bond

c)

placement of the 5' cap on pre- mRNA

d)

mRNA binding to ribosome

163.

correctly sequence the following events in eukaryotic gene expression?

i RNA polymerase attaches to promoter

ii mRNA molecule receives poly A tail

iii mRNA leaves the nucleus

IV start codon triggers translation initiation

v trannscrip is elongated

a)

i, ii, iii, iv, v

b)

i, v, ii, iii, iv

c)

ii, iii, iv, i, v

164.

identify the fucntion of aminocyl tRNA synthetase?

a)

catalyze peptide bond formation between amino acid

b)

terminate translation

c)

covalently link an amino acid to tRNA

d)

translocate the ribosomes by binding to a tRNA

165.

compare and contrast DNA and RNA, which statement decrie both DNA and RNA?

i it is a polymer of nucleotides

ii it has sugar linked to a phospahte group

iii it can be found in the nucleus

iv it is normally double stranded in cells

a)

I

b)

ii, iii

c)

i, ii, iii

d)

i, ii, iii, iv

166.

compare and contrast DNA replication, transription, and translation, which of the following processes are dependent on complemenDtary base pairing?

i transcription

ii translation

iii DNA replication

a)

i, iii

b)

iii

c)

i, ii, iii

d)

i, ii

167.

correctly sequence translation?

i large ribosomal subunit joins the initiation complec

ii small ribosomal subunits binds with mRNA

iii peptide bomd formatiion

IV release factors bind codon in A site

v initiator tRNA base pairs with start codon

a)

ii, v, i, iii, iv

b)

v, i, ii, iii, iv

c)

ii, i, iii, v, iv

d)

v, ii, i, iv , iii

168.

cycloheximide is a chemical that i interfers with translocation and thereby inhibits protein synthesis in eukaryotes, hypothesize the effects when a cell is treated with cycloheximide?

i translation elongates will not occur normally

ii the translation initiator will nor form

iii no mRNA will be produced

iv RNA polymerase will not function properly

v peptide bond formation will be inhibited

a)

i and ii

b)

i and v

c)

ii, iii, iv

d)

ii, iv, v

169.

on the prokaryotic operon where does the pressor protein binds?

a)

inducer

b)

start codon

c)

promoter

d)

operator

170.

Hypothesize the effects of operons expression if a mutation prevents the inducer from binding to the represor?

a)

operon will never be expressed

b)

only low levels of expression possible

c)

operon always expressed as low levels

d)

operon always expressed as high levels

171.

A rise in active catabolic activator proteins (CAP) in the E coli cell indicates that

a)

very little glucose is available and CAP levels are rising

b)

the cell has equal amount of glucose and lactose available

c)

the lac operon promoter affinity for RNA polymerase will decrease

d)

allolactose will bind efficiently to the operator.

172.

Hypothesize which of the following would be true for an E coli cell living in a medium of high glocose and high lactose?

i high levels of activated CAP (catabolite Activator Protein)

ii Low cAMP levels

iii High levels of LAZ transcription

Iv operator on LAC operob is blocked by a repressor

v low levels of LAC transcription

a)

i and iii

b)

iv

c)

ii and iii

d)

ii and V

173.

which of the following is an exchange of positive regulation of an operon?

a)

levels of translation are adjusted based on cellular changes

b)

several genes are transcribed simultaneously

c)

CAP helps RNA polymerase attach to the promoter

d)

the operator of an operon is blocked by a repressor

174.

compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA and gene regulation. which of the following processes occur in both?

i translation

ii replication

iii regulation by operons

iv histone modification

v transcription

a)

i and iii

b)

iii and iv

c)

i, ii, iv

d)

i, ii, iv

175.

Sequence gene regulation in eukaryotes?

i adding a 5' xap to pre- mRNA

ii DNA packaging

iii regulation of translation

iv protein processing and folding

a)

ii, i, iii, iv

b)

i, ii, iii, iv

c)

i, iii, iv, ii

d)

ii, iii, i, iv

176.

a mutation occurs in your pet rabbit that prevents DNA methylation in a specific genes. hypothesize the effects of this mutation on that gene?

a)

more frequent transcription

b)

translation cannot occur

c)

this mutation does not have any effects

d)

transcription is inhibited

177.

which of the folloeing are required for DNA replication, transcription, PCR and dideocy chain termination sequencing?

i complementary base pairing

ii DNA primers

iii DNA polymerase

iv RNA nuucleotides

a)

iii only

b)

i only

c)

i and iv

d)

ii and iii

178.

dr. patel is running a thermocycler in her lab to PCR a small sample of DNA. she places the sample in the machine and leaves for the night, later that night, the macgine breaks, and the temperature remains at a high 75 degrees C for the entire process . what is the results of this malfunction?

a)

excess DNA is sequenced

b)

DNA strands do not separate

c)

tag polymerase cannot extend from primer

d)

RNA polymerase does not bind to the promoter

179.

during the annealing step in PCR the

a)

primer binds to the target

b)

backbone of the DNA denatures

c)

hydrogen bonds between bases break

d)

DNA molecules are synthesized

180.

correctly sequence the four steps of DNA dideoxy sequencing?

i DNA fragment is denatured into single stand

ii load single strand onto gel

iii detector senses flurescent tage

iv begin incubation with primeer, polymerase, dNTP and ddNTP

v strand elongation

a)

i, iv, v, ii, iii

b)

i, v, ii, iv, iii

c)

i, ii, iv, iii, v

d)

i, iv, ii, v, iii

181.

identify which of the following is true regarding gel electrophoresis?

a)

large DNA molecules migrate faster than small DNA

b)

it involves several cycles of DNA synthesis

c)

heat is used to move DNA synthesis

d)

DNA migration is due to it's negative charge

182.

compare and contrats DNA replication and PCR . which of the following occurs in DNA replication in a eukaryotic cell, but not during PCR?

a)

synthesis of DNA in the 3' to 5' direction

b)

unwinding of the DNA helix by helicase

c)

binding of a DNA primer to the template

d)

Hydrogen bonding between complementary nucleotides

183.

Compare and contarst DNA replication, transcription, and PCR which of the following are true?

i all involve a leading and lagging strand

ii all involved DNA polymerase

iii all require a template strand

iv only DNA replication requires RNA primers

a)

i and iv

b)

i and ii

c)

iii and iv

d)

ii and iii

184.

for an individual to expreess an autosomal recessive trait what must be true?

a)

they muct receive a recessive allele from just one parent

b)

they must have two recessive alleles

c)

they must have a parent who expresses the recessive trait

d)

both parents must must express the recessive traits

185.

for an individual to express and X linked reecessive trait what must be true?

a)

they must must have two X chromosome

b)

they must have at least one dominant allele

c)

XY individuals can express the trait with just one recessive allele.

d)

at least one parent must express the recessive traits

186.

identif the types of human genetic diorders that can be caused by nondisjuction?

i monosomy

ii aneuploidy

iii antosomal recessive

iv X linked recessive

a)

ii and iii

b)

i, iii, iv

c)

ii, iv

d)

i, ii

187.

cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive genetic disease where a person must inherit two recessive alleles to express the diasease. which of the follwoing represent possible parents of a child with cystic fibrosis?

a)

XFXF X XF y

b)

Ff X FF

c)

XF XF X XFy

d)

Ff x Ff

188.

identify which of the following indicates a trisomy in humans.

a)

a gamete with 22 autosomes + Y

b)

a somatic cell with 44 autosomes + XX

c)

a somatic cell with 46 chromosomes + y

d)

a 3n somatic cell

189.

which of the folloeeing is a mechanism that could preserve harmful recessive traits in a population?

a)

natural selection

b)

heterosygote advantage

c)

dominant lethality

d)

Aneuploidy

190.

sequence lac operon an e coli is grown in a medium with no glucose and high levels of lactose. which of the following will occur in the cell.

a)

CAP is never activated

b)

lac operon is represssed

c)

low levels of transcription

d)

high levels of cAMP build up

191.

identify the true statement regarding gel electrophoresis?

i an agarose gel is used

ii Taq polymerase is used

iii small fragments move further down the gel than large framents

iv large fragment move further down the gel than small fragments

a)

ii and iv

b)

iii and iv

c)

i and ii

d)

i and iii

192.

sequence and HD DNA sequencing, hypothesize the effects of the absence of the ddNTP for cytosine during dideoxy DNA sequencing

i the resulting spectogram will not show any sequence ending in cytosine

ii the resulting spectogram will show only short DNA fragments

iii DNA elongation will not occur

iv the resulting spectogram will be unaffected

a)

i only

b)

iv only

c)

ii and iv

d)

ii and iii

193.

which of the following is true about tRNA?

a)

Its codon binds to the mRNA anticodon

b)

usually single-stranded in cells

c)

has a poly-A tail and a cap

d)

binds an amino acid at the 5' end

194.

identify in which of the interphase does the DNA replicate?

a)

M phase

b)

G2 phase

c)

S phase

d)

G1 phase

195.

identify which of the following is a component of Darwin's theory of natural selection?

i individual evolve to drive the selection process

ii environment drives the selection process

iii evolutionary fitness

iv descent with modification

a)

ii and iv

b)

ii, only

c)

ii, iii, iv

d)

i and ii

196.

sequence evolution by natural selection?

i population rather than individuals evolve

ii evolution requires uniform phenotypes

iii evolution involve differential reproductive success

iv evolution results to individuals evolving via acquired traits

a)

ii, iii, iv

b)

i and iv

c)

i and iii

d)

i, ii, iii

197.

compare and contrast evidence of natural, identify which of the following pieces of evidence refers to traits that are similar due to common ancestor?

a)

artificial selection

b)

direct observation

c)

fossil record

d)

homology

198.

cc ideas of Lamark and darwin, identify which of the following ideas shared by both?

i natural processes explained the diversity of life on earth

ii evolution happens to individuals

iii changes that occurred in individuals were passed to offspring

iv phenotypic variation was required for evolution to occur

a)

iii and iv

b)

i only

c)

i, iii, iv

d)

ii and iii

199.

CC DNA structure a reaction that hydrolyzes a phosphodiester bond would cleave a DNA molecule between a phosphate group

a)

the 3' carbon of deoxyribose

b)

the 3' carbo of a pyrine or pyrimidine

c)

the 5' carbon of a purine or pyrimidine

d)

another phosphate group

200.

apply pedigree analysis. polydactyly is an autosomal dominant traits what is the probability that the child of a heterozygous individual and a homozygous recessive individual has polydactyly

a)

0

b)

0.75

c)

0.25

d)

0.50

201.

CC DNA structures a DNA molecules that is 20% adenine what is the percentage of thymine in your sample?

a)

30%

b)

60%

c)

20%

d)

40%

202.

sequence translation identify which of the following statements are true?

i RNA polymerase elongates and mRNA during translation

ii mRNA and tRNA associate with ribosomes

iii occurs only in the nucleus

iv a polypeptide is synthesized

mRNA

a)

ii and iv

b)

ii and iii

c)

i and iv

d)

i and ii

203.

CC types of phylogenetics group, A group that includes distantly related species and their most recent common ancestor?

a)

paraphyletic

b)

polyphyletic

c)

monophyletic

d)

homophyletic

204.

HD types of learning, diggers wasps demonstrate that wasps are capable of spatial learning. what is most likely ultimate outcome for a wasps which is unable to engage in this type of learning.

a)

it will build nest in pineones

b)

its fitness will be reduced

c)

it will produce more offspring than the environment can support

d)

its ability to communicate information will be impaired

205.

CC proximate and ultimate causation, which of the following are true?

i both occur over two or more generation

ii ultimate causation is the evolutionary basis for behaviors

iii a stimulus triggering behavior is an example of proximate causation

iv proximate causation refers to the long term explanation

a)

iii and iv

b)

ii and iv

c)

i and ii

d)

ii and iii

206.

sequence respiration, identify which of the following molecules is reduced during cellular respiration. m

a)

citric acid

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

glucose

d)

oxygen

207.

CC phitosynthesis and respiration, which of the following statements are correct?

i water is reduced during cellular respiration

ii glucose is reduced during cellular respiration

iii carbon dioxide is reduced during photosynthesis

iv water is oxidized during photosynthesis

a)

i and iv

b)

iii and iv

c)

ii and iii

d)

i and ii

208.

CC r and K selected specied, compared to K selected species, r selected species generally

i exhibits more parental care

ii have a shorter life span

iii have a slower population growth

iv take more time to reach maturity

a)

ii and iii

b)

i and iv

c)

ii only

d)

iv only

209.

CC types of interactions, which of the following are example of competition?

i two different species of birds eat the same food source from the same tree of species

ii a butterfly camuflages into the tree bark

iii two kangarous attempt to mate with the same female

iv a honey nectar while simultaneously pollunating the flower

a)

ii and iv

b)

i and ii

c)

i and iii

d)

ii and iii

210.

sequence energy flow through ecosystem identify which of the following is an example of secondary consumer?

a)

falcons consume mice

b)

zooplankton consumes phtosynthethic diatoms

c)

phytoplankton utilizes the sun to make energy

d)

mice consume grass

211.

CC types of membrane transport which of the following are example of active transport?

i facilitated diffusion

ii phagocytosis

iii endocytosis

iv simple diffusion

a)

ii and iii

b)

i and iv

c)

i and ii

d)

i and iii

212.

CC types of endocytosis. whih are true about phagocytosis and pinocytosis?

I only pinocytosis specific

ii pinocytosis take in very small molecule, phagocytosis takes in large particles

iii both results in the formation of vesicle

iv only phagocytosis is a form of active transport

a)

ii and iii

b)

ii and iv

c)

i and iii

d)

i and ii

213.

CC r and K selected specied, compared to K selected species, r selected species generally

i exhibits more parental care

ii have a shorter life span

iii have a slower population growth

iv take more time to reach maturity

a)

ii and iii

b)

i and iv

c)

ii only

d)

iv only

214.

cc ideas of Lamark and darwin, identify which of the following ideas shared by both?

i natural processes explained the diversity of life on earth

ii evolution happens to individuals

iii changes that occurred in individuals were passed to offspring

iv phenotypic variation was required for evolution to occur

a)

iii and iv

b)

i only

c)

i, iii, iv

d)

ii and iii

215.

compare and contrast pre darwin ideas? (lecture 19)

what were john baptist Lamark's ideas and Thomas Malthus?

a)

John baptist Lamark, use and disuse and inheritance of acquired traits.

b)

John baptist his big idea was competitions that led to the idea of natural selection

c)

Thomas Malthus, use and disuse and inheritance of acquired traits.

d)

Thomas Malthus his big idea was competitions that led to the idea of natural selection

216.

what is the definition of Uniformitarianism?

a)

it means when natural selection is constant over time.

b)

it means geological processes are relatively constant over time.

217.

sequence darwin logic which of the following are the four observations?

I Overproduction; more offspring than can survive

ii Heritable variations; offspring tend to resemble parents

iii Unequal survival and reproduction; some survive longer and have offspring

iv Nonrandom survival and reproduction; survival and reproduction is based on phenotype

v natural selection that acts on phenotype

a)

i, ii, iv

b)

i, ii, iii, iv

c)

ii, iii, iv, v

d)

i, ii, iii, iv, v

218.

knowing that the four darwin observations were based on natural selection, define natural selection?

a)

Natural selection acts on the phenotype, the beneficial traits increase in frequency.

b)

Natural selection acts on genotype, the nonbeneficial traits increase In frequency.

c)

Natural selection is one part of the mechanism that darwin created.

219.

What phrase did darwin use to describe how much population changed?

a)

eveolution

b)

natural selection

c)

decent with modification

220.

define evolution?

a)

change in allele frequency within a population over time

b)

when allele frequency changes within a population

c)

when the frequency of an allele change over a short period of time.

221.

Compare and contrast natural selection and artificial selection?

i artificial selection is a human-driven goal.

ii artificial selection has no goal

iii natural selection has a goal-driven by the environment

iv natural selection is driven by the environment and has no goal.

a)

ii, iii, iv

b)

i, ii, iii, iv

c)

i and iv

d)

ii, iii

222.

Compare and contrast evidence for evolution? which of the following statement is true?

i fossil ( see how to change over time )

ii observe evolutionary change

iii homologies; similar structures due to common ancestry

iv analogy; similar phenotype but not in the common ancestry, similarity due to convergent evolutions.

a)

i, ii, iii, iv

b)

i, ii, iii

c)

iii, iv

d)

ii, iii, iv

223.

what are the five mechanisms of evolution? lecture 20

i natural selection; nonrandom changes in allele frequency

ii migration; cause allele frequency to change

iii mutations; changes to DNA

iv non-random mating; inbreeding

v genetic drift; random change in allele frequency

a)

i, iii, iv

b)

ii, iii, iv, v

c)

iii, iv, v

d)

i, ii, iii, iv, v

224.

what is the condition for Hardy Weinberg Equilibrium?

a)

it is the complete opposite of the five mechanisms of evolution,

b)

it is the same exact mechanism as evolution.

c)

it has no natural selection, no genetic drift, no mutation, completely random mating, no migration

225.

Hardy Weinberg equilibrium? for example we are given three different frogs that don,t look alike?

the GG- homozygous dominant

the Gg - heterozygous

the gg- homozygous recessive

equation P + q = 1 what do they represent

a)

p represent dominant allele

b)

q represents the recessive allele

c)

p resent the recessive allele

d)

q represent the dominant allele

226.

compare and contrast founder effect and bottleneck effect?

a)

Bottleneck effect is when you have a big population and most of it dies

b)

Bottleneck effect means when the subset of a population gets separated

c)

founder effect; is when you have a big population and most of it dies

d)

Founder effect means when the subset of a population gets separated

227.

compare and contrast species concept? lecture 21

which of the following represent species concept,

i evolution species; all about the population

ii microbiology species; interbredding between different population,

iii Biological species concept; interbreeding in nature and producing viable offspring, the gene pool is shared.

iv Morphological species concept; based on phenotype, shape, and structure.

v he ecological species concept; is based on your niche what you do.

a)

ii, iii, iv, v

b)

i, ii, iii, iv, v

c)

i, iii, iv

d)

iii, iv, v

228.

compare and contrast isolating mechanism? which of the following is the right definition for speciation and allopatric?

a)

Sympatric speciation, they are overlapping with no physical barrier and reproductive isolation.

b)

sympatric speciation; is a physical barrier between the two species that are reproductively isolated

c)

Allopatric; is a physical barrier between the two species that are reproductively isolated.

d)

allopatric; y are overlapping with no physical barrier and reproductive isolation.

229.

which of following represent primary prezygotic?

i Habitat isolation; in the same ecosystem but different habitats don’t interact with each other.

ii Temporal isolation; breed at different times of year or season, they are not reproductively active at the same time so they are not breeding.

iii Behavioral isolation; when species do things in order to recognize each other and prevent mating =.

iv Mechanical isolation, the sexual structures are not compatible, mating cannot be successful.

v Gametic isolation; the egg and sperm are biochemically incompatible

a)

i, iii, iv

b)

ii, iii, iv, v

c)

i, ii,iii, iv, v

d)

i, ii, iv, v

230.

which of the following represent a primary post zygotic?

a)

Reduced Hybrid fertility; mule is sterile

b)

Hybrid breakdown: the first generation is fine but they start to lose viability over time

c)

Reduced hybrid viability; where don’t develop, and have short lifespan

d)

reduced offspring; can't produce as many

231.

how to interpret phylogeny which of the following statement is true? keeping in mind that to find the sister taxon for a group they must share the most recent common ancestor.

i the ancestrial lineage is the same as the root the first thing that branches off.

ii Taxon A is the leaf, and taxon A, B, C are sister taxon that represent monophyletic.

iii Taxon D, E, F, G represent paraphyletic.

iv they all have similar common ancestors.

a)

i, ii, iii

b)

ii, iii

c)

i, ii, iii, iv

d)

i, iii, iv

232.

what are the types of group on a phylogenetic tree?

a)

Paraphyletic- common ancestors (fish)

b)

Manophyletic; similar common acestors

c)

Polyphyletic- no common ancestors

d)

Monophyletic; include the most recent common ancestors

233.

compare and contrast ultimate and proximate causation;

a)

proximate causation operates with a single generation. while ultimate is the evolutionary explanation.

b)

proximate causation is the evolutionary explanation, while ultimate operates with a single gene.

234.

what is the definition of memory and learning?

I memory is encoding information so you can receive it later.

ii they both involve the idea of receiving information

iii learning is a change in behavior based on your memory to get a better outcome

a)

i, iii

b)

i, ii, iii

235.

which of the following are true about types of learning?

i Imprinting; based on the animal by following their mother, so basically, they are imprinting on the mom.

ii Social learning; learning to solve problems.

iii Spacial learning; using your surrounding (wasps nest)

iv under associative we have classical conditioning, and operant condition

v cognition; problem solving

a)

i, ii,iii, iv

b)

ii, iii, iv

c)

i, ii, iv

236.

what are the types of communication?

a)

visual communication

b)

auditory communication

c)

tactile communication

d)

homology communication

237.

sequence altruism? which of the following is true?

i kin selection is how altruism evolve

ii it includes indirect and direct fitness

iii foraging is a part of it

iv involves natural selection

a)

i, ii, iv

b)

i, ii, iii

c)

iii, iv

238.

what is the definition of the population?

a)

it is a group of individual that don't share a gene pool.

b)

it is a group of individuals at a specific time that share a gene pool.

239.

Compare and contrast life-history traits?

I age of reproduction

ii frequency of reproduction

iii number of offspring

iv semelparous

v iteroparous

a)

i, ii, iii, iv, v

b)

ii, iii, iv, v

240.

which of the following is included in r selection?

i they are extreme

ii small body size

iii large body size

iv long life

v early maturation

a)

i, ii, iii, iv, v

b)

i, ii,v

c)

ii, iii, iv

241.

which of the following is true about K the carrying capacity?

i shot life span

ii large broods

iii large body size

iv slow mturation

v lot of parental care

a)

i, ii, iii

b)

ii, iii, iv, v

c)

iii, iv, v

242.

what is the definition of a community?

a)

group of population different species that are interacting.

b)

when species bond together

243.

what is the term that describes what you do in the ecosystem?

a)

community

b)

ecological niche

c)

predation

244.

sequence competitive exclusion?

i in the overlapping part one is going to lose and one is going to win

ii in the overlapping part both are going to lose

iii in the overlapping part one is going to win and one is going to lose.

a)

i

b)

ii

c)

iii

245.

what are the three types of interaction?

a)

symbioses ( parasitism, mutualism, commensalism )

b)

competition

c)

social

d)

predation

246.

what are the two types of mimicry?

i bategian; when a species that is harmful has a replica that looks the same but it's less harmful.

ii Mullerian; when the species are actually harmful

iii bacteria; when they are harmful species that can kill

iv fungus; dangerous species

a)

i, ii

b)

ii, iv

c)

i, ii, iii, iv

247.

which of the following is true in regard to primary succession, secondary, and species richness?

i they is a chance in species over time

ii species do not exist

iii they is already existing thing

iv focus on how many species they are

a)

i, ii, iii, iv

b)

ii, iii, iv

c)

i, iii, iv

248.

compare and contrast basic terms? which of the following happens between growth primary product and net primary product.

i no energy is available

ii they is some sort of energy taken in

iii some energy are available to the next level

a)

i only

b)

ii, iii

c)

i, ii, iii

249.

what limit the size of a trophic structure and assimilation?

i the amount of energy

ii when energy is available to do work

iii energy do not exist at all in both

a)

i, iii

b)

i only

c)

iii only

250.

sequence energy flow?

a)

sun to photosynthesis

b)

photosynthesis to light

251.

the definition of climate is weather condition, wind, temperature, hat are some factors that affect the climate?

a)

mountains

b)

season

c)

solar energy

d)

latitude

e)

percipitation

252.

which of the following are water biomes?

a)

oceans

b)

pollunation

c)

lakes (eutrophic, dirty water, oligotrophic, clean water)

d)

river

253.

what are types of zonation to know?

a)

photic zone

b)

aquatic zone

c)

aphotic zone

d)

benthic zone

254.

the ecosystem services is meant to benefit the ecosystem so knowing that what are some example of an ecosystem.

a)

air water purification

b)

water decomposition

c)

crop pollination

d)

nutrient cycling

e)

moderate extreme

255.

which of the following is true about minimum value population?

i large population

ii succeed in short term

iii smallest population

iv succeed in long term

v recessive allele

a)

iii, iv, v

b)

i, ii, iii, iv, v

c)

iii, iv

256.

what are some ways that we can reverse human interference?

a)

bringing individuals together

b)

isolating

c)

connection

d)

because of movement corridors disease are likely to spread around.

257.

what are two extinction that are popular?

a)

local extinction

b)

population extinction

c)

global extinction

d)

climate extinction

258.

what are some effects of climate change?

a)

extreme weather

b)

putting gases in environment

c)

volcano

d)

rain

259.

hardy Weinberg equlibrium?

 p2+2pq + q2=1p^2+2pq\ +\ q_{ }^2=1  

a)

p square represent the homozygous dominant 

b)

2pq represent the heterozygous 

c)

q square represent the homozygous recessive 

260.

example of the hardy Weinberg equilibrium?

you have 500 frogs, and you have 375 dark green and the light green is not given find the genotype and allele frequency?

to find the genotype the equation to use is the P square + 2pq + q square = 1

a)

375+ 125 = 500

b)

375/125= 500

c)

125/500= 0.25

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