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GA Personal Lines

Total questions: 189

Worksheet time: 2hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In general insurance, An insurer that obeys the laws of a country other than the U.S. is called:

a)

a national insurer

b)

an alien insurer

c)

a domestic insurer

d)

a foreign insurer

2.

In general insurance, Which of the following best defines an “insured”?

a)

A legally binding contract in which the insurance company agrees to pay for specified losses in exchange for premiums

b)

Transfer of the risk of financial loss from one party to another

c)

A company, group, or government agency offering financial protection

d)

An individual or organization that pays premiums in exchange for financial protection

3.

Which coverage is automatically included in a Homeowners Policy but not a Dwelling Policy?

a)

Other Structures

b)

Liability

c)

Personal Property

d)

Dwelling

4.

Which of the following does a Flood Policy not cover?

a)

Loss of use coverage due to a flood

b)

Damage to the dwelling caused by mudslide

c)

Damage to the contents caused by a rapid accumulation of flood waters

d)

Overflow of tidal water damage to single family dwelling

5.

Which would NOT be covered by a Mobile Home Homeowners policy?

a)

Awnings at replacement cost (RC) value

b)

Property coverage on an ACV or replacement cost basis

c)

Loss of use coverage

d)

Personal liability and medical payments

6.

How much coverage does a Flood Policy provide for trees?

a)

$250

b)

$150

c)

None

d)

$500, after the deductible

7.

In a personal Auto Policy, All of the following losses are included under “comprehensive” EXCEPT:

a)

Damage caused by a painter who, while painting the neighbor’s house, sprays paint on the insured’s car

b)

Damage to the car by flood water

c)

Damage to the car caused by students standing on the hood at a football game

d)

Damage caused to the vehicle when it runs into a mailbox

8.

All of the following is true about Inland Marine Policies EXCEPT:

a)

It is all risk coverage

b)

It is usually written without a deductible

c)

The coverage is replacement cost

d)

It is worldwide coverage except for fine art

9.

In general insurance, "We will provide the insurance described in this policy in return for the premium and compliance with all applicable provisions of this policy." In which section of the insurance policy would this statement be found?

a)

Definitions

b)

Insuring Agreement

c)

Endorsements

d)

Declarations

10.

In general insurance, Which of the following statements about insurance is FALSE?

a)

The insurer promises to pay for any covered losses that may occur.

b)

The insurer will only pay up to the amount already collected in premiums from each insured.

c)

The insurer takes on the insured’s risk of financial loss for a premium

d)

The insured pays for peace of mind provided by the insurer.

11.

I n general insurance, The transfer of risk from one party to another is called:

a)

adjustment

b)

restoration

c)

indemnification

d)

insurance

12.

In a homeowner's policy, After a loss, all of the following would be required EXCEPT:

a)

Notify the insurer

b)

Protect from further damage

c)

Prepay any 3rd party settlements

d)

Permit the insurer to inspect the damage property before repairs begin

13.

Melinda’s home sustained $6,500 in damage when Jared ran into it with his truck. Melinda received $6,500 from her insurance company, and Jared also paid her $5,000. Melinda has now profited from this loss and is in violation of:

a)

federal law

b)

the principle of subrogation

c)

state law

d)

the principle of indemnity

14.

In a homeowners policy, The standard mortgage clause of a Homeowners policy affords the mortgage company all the following EXCEPT:

a)

Alaska

b)

Hawaii

c)

Mexico

d)

Canada

15.

In a Personal Auto policy, If Leonard’s car was stolen, which of the following coverages would pay for the value of the car?

a)

Comprehensive

b)

Collision

c)

Liability

d)

Transportation

16.

In a homeowners policy, Which of the following is not covered by the Homeowners medical payments?

a)

The homeowners guest in the swimming pool

b)

Neighbor bay crossing through the backyard

c)

Nanny while watching children in the living room

d)

The homeowner washing their car in the driveway

e)

The homeowners guest in the swimming pool

17.

In a Business Owners policy, All of the following are true regarding the BOP policy EXCEPT:

a)

Business income is automatically included

b)

Auto lots, parking lots, and auto repair shops are eligible for a BOP

c)

Extra expense coverage is automatically included with an unlimited dollar amount

d)

Building and personal property are automatically covered on a replacement cost basis

18.

All of the following are true about Flood insurance EXCEPT: *

a)

The Federal Government is the sole provider of flood protection

b)

Flood insurance is available in all areas

c)

To be eligible, a community must agree to a Flood Control Program

d)

Flood insurance excludes sewer back-up

19.

Which of the following businesses would be eligible for a Business Owners Policy?

a)

First National Bank of Small-town USA

b)

Dewey, Scam'em. & How Attorney-at-Law

c)

Jim's Good Time Bar & Grill

d)

Highway 66 Amusement Park

20.

In a Dwelling policy, Which of the following is correct about the Dwelling Form?​

a)

Basic Form covers the contents for theft

b)

Basic form covers limited named peril

c)

Vandalism and Malicious Mischief are added by endorsement to Broad Form

d)

All Risk Form will cover defective plumbing

21.

Under the Personal Auto Policy, all the following are considered “Your Covered Auto”, EXCEPT:

a)

Non-owned vehicle driven for pleasure

b)

Driving your neighbor's car because your car will not start

c)

Rented a van because the engine on your car blew up

d)

The mechanic loaning you a car while repairs are made to your car

22.

In a personal Auto policy, All the following are physical damage exclusions EXCEPT:

a)

Loss to the car while delivering people or property

b)

Loss of CDs

c)

Permanently installed stereo

d)

Damage to the engine because the radiator freezes

23.

Business Income coverage its primary purpose is to indemnify the insured for:

a)

Loss of income resulting from business interruption

b)

Loss of income resulting from destroyed accounts receivable records

c)

Loss of Income resulting from employee theft

d)

Loss of Income resulting from employee's work related injury

24.

All of the following are true about a Personal Inland Marine Policy except?

a)

Coverage is usually restricted to the USA and its territories

b)

The standard valuation is ACV

c)

Vermin damage is excluded

d)

Flood is a covered peril

25.

Which of the following does a Flood Policy cover?​

a)

Money

b)

Cars in the garage

c)

Kitchen appliances

d)

Docks and piers

26.

In a homeowners policy, Which of the following policy forms automatically provides replacement cost valuation for Coverage C – Personal Property?

a)

HO-4

b)

HO-8

c)

HO-5

d)

HO-6

27.

In general insurance, Which of the following activities is considered a speculative risk? *

a)

Leaving your jewelry on a nightstand

b)

Buying a lottery ticket

c)

Driving a car

d)

Flying in an airplane

28.

Which of the following statements regarding homeowners' insurance is correct about medical payments?

a)

Only emergency treatment charges are covered by the policy

b)

The medical expenses are payable up to three years after the accident

c)

Medical expense are payable to family members

d)

Medical payments are payable only if the insured is legally liable

29.

In general insurance, An economic device used to protect against the risk of realizing unforeseen and extraordinary financial loss is called:

a)

insurance

b)

indemnitification

c)

subrogation

d)

risk avoidance

30.

In general insurance, What are the four requirements of a legally binding contract?

a)

Authority, consideration, signatures, legal purpose

b)

Agreement, consideration, character, signature

c)

Authority, character, competent parties, legal purpose

d)

Agreement, consideration, competent parties, legal purpose

31.

In general insurance, All of the following are time element coverages EXCEPT:

a)

Extra Expenses Coverage Form

b)

Business Income Coverage Form

c)

HO Coverage D- Loss of Use

d)

Additional Coverage

32.

In personal auto policy, If Jerry's pickup hits a puddle of rainwater and rolls, which of the following coverages could pay for damages to the pickup?

a)

Collision

b)

Liability

c)

Other than collusion

d)

Uninsured motorists

33.

In general insurance, The Principle of Indemnity is designed to prevent:

a)

subrogation

b)

insurers from making a profit

c)

having multiple payees on a policy

d)

an insured from making a profit

34.

In other policies, All of the following are advantages of the Commercial Package Policy EXCEPT:

a)

Reduces redundancy by using interline endorsements

b)

Simplifies underwriting

c)

Premium savings through package discounts

d)

Reduces coverage gaps

35.

In an insurance contract, the policyholder gives the insurer _____, and the insurer gives the policyholder ______.

a)

covered property; premium payments

b)

a surety; premium payment

c)

risk; peace of mind

d)

premium payments; peace of mind

36.

A deductible in a Dwelling Policy would apply to all of the following except:

a)

Coverage A (Dwelling)

b)

Coverage B (Other Structures)

c)

Coverage C (Personal Property)

d)

Coverage D (Loss of Rental Income)

37.

An adjuster can do all the following in the settlement of the claim EXCEPT:

a)

Pay replacement cost

b)

Repair the damaged item

c)

Pay for more than the value of the damaged item

d)

Pay for the depreciated value of the damaged property

38.

Stephan’s insurance company denied his recent claim, citing that his cause of loss was not covered. However, according to Stephan’s interpretation of the policy language, his loss could be covered, so he disputed the insurer’s decision. When his case went to trial, the jury also decided the policy language was open to interpretation, so they decided in favor of Stephan. This is because:

a)

insurance policies are personal contracts

b)

insurance policies are aleatory contracts

c)

insurance policies are contracts of utmost good faith

d)

insurance policies are contracts of adhesion

39.

In a personal auto policy, If George misses a deer and hits the side railing on the Interstate highway, his insurance company will pay for the damage to his car under what coverage?

a)

Collision

b)

Liability

c)

Comprehensive

d)

Transportation Expense

40.

A provision in insurance that states that an insured can only be made whole but not profit from insurance is known as the principle of

a)

Indemnity

b)

Subrogation

c)

Just reward

d)

Fair collection

41.

Written evidence that an insurance policy has been issued is known as

a)

Full Coverage Insurance

b)

Insurance Slip

c)

Proof of Insurance

d)

Certificate of Insurance

42.

In personal auto policy, The maximum amount that a policy will pay in a policy period is known as

a)

Aggregate Limit

b)

Minimum Limit

c)

Occurrence Limit

d)

Speculative Limit

43.

A person or business that manufactures and sells a product makes an implied warranty that the product is safe. Such an entity is said to have:

a)

Absolute Liability

b)

Implied Liability

c)

Strict Liability

d)

Vicarious Liability

44.

___________ is the Replacement cost minus depreciation

a)

Stated Value

b)

Market Value

c)

Repair Cost

d)

Actual Cash Value

45.

The self-insured retention (SIR) is also known as:

a)

Deductible

b)

Claim

c)

Co-Pay

d)

Co-insurance

46.

In general provision, The reduction, decrease or disappearance in value of the property insured in a policy is known as:

a)

Risk

b)

Hazard

c)

Gain

d)

Loss

47.

In general insurance, Conditions that increase the chance of a loss are known as:

a)

Risks

b)

Hazards

c)

Chances

d)

Exposures

48.

In property insurance, when must insurable interest exist?

a)

At the time o loss

b)

At the time the claim is approved

c)

At the time the claim is filed

d)

At the time the loss payment is made

49.

What are the two types of compensatory damages? (Choose 2)

a)

Bodily

b)

Special

c)

Physical

d)

General

50.

In property insurance, the purpose of the ________ is to encourage insureds to insure the property close to it's actual value. *

a)

Cease and Desist Order

b)

Coinsurance Clause

c)

Replacement Cost

d)

Actual Cash Value

51.

Which type of hazard arises from the insured's indifference to loss because of the existence of insurance?

a)

Morale Hazard

b)

Moral Hazard

c)

Physical Hazard

52.

______ are the specific causes of loss that are insured against in an insurance policy.

a)

Hazards

b)

Perils

c)

Exposures

d)

Risks

53.

The insurer's legal right to collect damages from a third party after it has reimbursed the insured for a loss is known as:

a)

Settlement

b)

Subrogation

c)

Estoppel

d)

Cash Back

54.

Consequential losses that result from the time it takes to repair damaged property are known as:

a)

Risks

b)

Exposures

c)

Indirect Losses

d)

Direct Losses

55.

Taking property from the care and custody of another using the threat of force or bodily harm is:

a)

Burglary

b)

Theft

c)

Robbery

56.

The formula for the coinsurance penalty is:

a)

Insurance the insured has, divided by value of the property multiplied by the amount of the loss

b)

The minimum value of the property, divided by the full value of the property, multiplied by the amount of loss

c)

Insurance the insured has, divided by the amount of insurance they should have, multiplied by the amount of loss

d)

Amount of loss, divided by amount of insurance available, multiplied by the amount of loss

57.

What is a sworn statement from an insured notifying the insurer about a loss?

a)

Loss Statement

b)

Proof of Loss

c)

Cause of Loss

d)

Verified Letter

58.

In general provision, What are the four elements of an insurance contract?

a)

Agreement, Consideration, Competent Parties, Legal Purpose

b)

Disagreement, Inconsideration, Incompetent Parties, and Legal purpose

c)

Handshake, High-Five, House Parties, and Illegal Actions

d)

Ability, Compensation, Communication, and Longevity

59.

In general provisions, What part of a policy shows the amount of insurance, premium, and policy terms?

a)

Exclusions

b)

Conditions

c)

Declarations

d)

Insuring Agreement

60.

In general provision, What part of an insurance policy contains the insurer's promise to pay a claim?

a)

Declarations

b)

Conditions

c)

Exclusions

d)

Insuring Agreement

61.

In an insurance contract, when is the offer usually made?

a)

When the insurance application is submitted

b)

When the insurance application is partially completed

c)

When the insurance application is denied

d)

When the insurance application has been filed for 30 days

62.

Which part of an insurance policy would detail the perils that you are not insured against?

a)

Declarations

b)

Conditions

c)

Exclusions

d)

Insuring Agreement

63.

In general insurance, What is something of value that each party gives to the other?

a)

Agreement

b)

Consideration

c)

Competency

d)

Legal Purpose

64.

Persons who are not named on the Declarations page of a policy but who are protected by the policy are known as what type of insureds?

a)

Excluded Insureds

b)

Secondary Insureds

c)

Additional Insureds

d)

Not Insured

65.

What is a temporary insurance contract that goes into effect prior to the policy issue?

a)

Binder

b)

Certificate

c)

License

d)

Waiver

66.

Information about changes to the policy or return of premium can be found in what section of a policy?

a)

Declarations

b)

Conditions

c)

Exclusions

d)

Insuring Agreement

67.

What is the termination of an insurance policy by either party prior to the policy's expiration date?

a)

Cancellation

b)

Nonrenewal

c)

Termination

d)

Denial

68.

What is the termination of an insurance policy at the policy's expiration date by not offering a continuation of the existing policy?

a)

Denial

b)

Termination

c)

Nonrenewal

d)

Cancellation

69.

When does pro rata liability apply?

a)

When the insurer denies the claim

b)

When the insurer does not want to pay for the loss

c)

When the insured has more than one policy covering a loss

d)

When the insured gets to choose their insurance rates

e)

When the insurer denies the claim

70.

In general insurance, What does an endorsement do to an insurance contract?

a)

Modifies the policy's original terms

b)

Changes the entire contract

c)

Cancels the contract

d)

Makes no change to the policy at all

71.

In general insurance, What is not a duty of the insured after a loss?

a)

Protect the damaged property from further damage

b)

Cooperate with the insurer in settling a loss

c)

Submit a proof of loss

d)

Call emergency services

72.

What part of an insurance policy sets forth the rules of conduct, duties, and obligations of the parties to the contract?

a)

Declarations

b)

Conditions

c)

Exclusions

d)

Insuring Agreement

73.

In insurance, What is an absolutely true statement upon which the validity of the policy depends?

a)

Representation

b)

Hypothesis

c)

Warranty

d)

Waiver

74.

What is the intentional withholding of information of a material fact that is crucial in making a decision and may void a policy?

a)

Concealment

b)

Consideration

c)

Obligation

d)

Appraisal

75.

In a homeowners policy, What HO form covers condominium unit owners?

a)

HO-2

b)

HO-4

c)

HO-6

d)

HO-8

76.

In homeowners policy, What HO form covers condominium unit owners?

a)

HO-2

b)

HO-4

c)

HO-6

d)

HO-8

77.

In general provision, What is the typical co-insurance required percentage?

a)

50%

b)

80%

c)

100%

d)

75%

78.

What type of coverage is included in Homeowners policies but not Dwelling policies?

a)

Building Under Construction Coverage

b)

Debris Removal

c)

Fire Department Service Charge

d)

Liability Coverage

79.

Which dwelling form is called the broad form?

a)

DP-1

b)

DP-2

c)

DP-3

80.

In dwelling policies, within how many years of a loss may an insured bring a lawsuit against the insurer?

a)

1 year

b)

2 years

c)

3 years

d)

4 years

81.

Which dwelling coverage form will NOT pay for the replacement cost of a dwelling?

a)

DP-1

b)

DP-2

c)

DP-3

82.

Which dwelling form provides open peril coverage on the building?

a)

DP-2

b)

DP-3

c)

DP-1

83.

Which dwelling policy coverage will insure a garage that's not attached to the primary insured dwelling?

a)

Coverage A

b)

Coverage B

c)

Coverage C

d)

Coverage D

84.

In homeowners policy, How many days will the property removal coverage apply?

a)

10 days

b)

20 days

c)

30 days

d)

60 days

85.

What HO Form insures a tenant living in an apartment?

a)

HO-2

b)

HO-4

c)

HO-6

d)

HO-8

86.

Losses caused by vandalism and malicious mischief are excluded from coverage if a dwelling is vacant for how many days?

a)

5 days

b)

10 days

c)

30 days

d)

60 days

87.

Which of the 3 DP forms provides the most limited coverage?

a)

DP-1 (Basic)

b)

DP-2 (Broad)

c)

DP-3 (Special)

88.

Where can National Flood Insurance be issued?

a)

Anywhere in the worlds

b)

Anywhere in the US

c)

Only in participating, flood-prone communities

d)

Only in new flood-plains

89.

In dwelling policies, any volcanic activity will be considered part of one occurrence if it all happens within how many hours?

a)

12 hours

b)

36 hours

c)

24 hours

d)

72 hours

90.

What Homeowners policy form is known as a special form?

a)

HO-2

b)

HO-3

c)

HO-4

d)

HO-5

91.

Which dwelling policy coverage will provide protection for contents damaged by fire in an insured dwelling?

a)

Coverage A

b)

Coverage B

c)

Coverage C

d)

Coverage D

92.

When a dwelling policy is cancelled for nonpayment of premium, the insurer must give notice within how many days of the cancellation?

a)

5 days

b)

10 days

c)

15 days

d)

30 days

93.

According to the liberalization condition, if an insurer makes a change to broaden coverage in newly issued dwelling policies, how will that change affect policies already in force?

a)

The change will apply within 5 days

b)

The change will apply within 30 days

c)

The change will apply automatically

d)

The change will apply within 10 days

94.

What Homeowners policy form is known as contents broad form?

a)

HO-2

b)

HO-4

c)

HO-6

d)

HO-8

95.

What HO form covers a historic home with replacement cost more than the market value?

a)

HO-2

b)

HO-6

c)

HO-4

d)

HO-8

96.

What Personal Auto Coverage would pay for the insured's travel expenses and loss of earnings while the insured is involved in the settlement process of a covered loss?

a)

Part A - Liability

b)

Part B - Medical Payments

c)

Part C - Uninsured Motorist

d)

Part D - Coverage for Damage to Your Auto

97.

What type of auto coverage will apply in a hit-and-run accident where the driver cannot be identified?

a)

Uninsured Motorist

b)

Underinsured Motorist

98.

If an insured is injured while driving his own car, what coverage in his personal auto policy will pay for the loss?

a)

Part A - Liability

b)

Part B - Medical Payments

c)

Part C - Uninsured Motorist

d)

Part D - Coverages for Damages to Your Auto

99.

If an auto policy has split limits of 30/50/25, how much will the policy pay for property damage in a single accident?

a)

$30,000

b)

$50,000

c)

$25,000

d)

$105,000

100.

In a personal auto policy, What coverage will apply when the motorist is at fault in an accident, but the limits of his/her auto insurance are not sufficient to cover the bodily injury to another motorist?

a)

Uninsured Motorist

b)

Underinsured Motorist

101.

What Personal Auto coverage would pay for damages to a covered auto caused by a collision with an moose?

a)

Collision

b)

Other than Collusion (Comprehensive)

c)

Uninsured Motorist (UM)

d)

Underinsured Motorist (UIM)

102.

In general insurance, What is a written law passed by a legislative body?

a)

Guaranty

b)

Provision

c)

Warranty

d)

Statute

103.

What is an automobile that is used for private needs rather than for business uses?

a)

Unowned auto

b)

Hired Auto

c)

Private Passenger Auto

d)

Owned Auto

104.

Term for the person granting a lease of a motor vehicle

a)

Lessee

b)

Insurer

c)

Grantee

d)

Lessor

105.

In general provisions, What is the term for being unable to meet financial obligations?

a)

Insolvent

b)

Broke

c)

Solvent

d)

Uninsured

106.

In a personal auto policy, Transportation Expenses will be paid as long as the coverage is indicated in the:

a)

Declarations

b)

Conditions

c)

Exclusions

d)

Insuring Agreement

107.

The personal umbrella policy defines an insured as all of the following EXCEPT

a)

The named insured

b)

Any person using the auto with permission

c)

A family member

d)

Any person using the auto without permission

108.

In a personal auto policy, All of these are categories of autos EXCEPT

a)

Owned

b)

Hired

c)

Nonowned

d)

Nonhired

109.

In a personal auto policy, Which part is Duties after a Loss?

a)

Part B

b)

Part F

c)

Part D

d)

Part E

110.

In a personal auto policy, Which part is for General Provisions?

a)

Part A

b)

Part C

c)

Part F

d)

Part D

111.

Part B: Medical Payments must be rendered within how many years?

a)

1 year

b)

2 years

c)

3 years

d)

4 years

112.

In general provisions, Which of the following terms refers to the acts of soliciting insurance, making an insurance contract effective, and dealing with matters arising from that contract?

a)

Conducting business

b)

Executing Insurance

c)

Transacting insurance

d)

Effectuating insurance

113.

In GA state regulation, What are producers required to do in order to renew their license? *

a)

Complete hours of Continuing Education every years and pay renewal fee

b)

Complete 12 hours of Continuing Education every 2 years and pay a renewal fee

c)

Complete 18 hours of Continuing Education every 2 years and pay a renewal fee

d)

Complete 6 hours of Continuing Education every 2 years and pay a renewal fee

114.

In general provision, Which of the following best describes an insurance company that has been formed under the laws of Georgia?

a)

Alien

b)

Sovereign

c)

Foreign

d)

Domestic

115.

In general provision, When doing business in Georgia, an insurance company that is formed under the laws of another state is known as what type of insurer?

a)

Domestic

b)

Foreign

c)

Alien

d)

Non-admitted

116.

In general insurance, What type of insurer is incorporated outside of the United States?

a)

Foreign

b)

Domestic

c)

Alien

d)

Non-Sovereign

117.

In general insurance, Which of the following must an insurer obtain in order to transact insurance?

a)

Business Entity License

b)

Certificate of Authority

c)

Producer's Certificate

d)

Insurer's License

118.

In insurance, Which of the following insurers are owned by stockholders?

a)

Stock

b)

Mutual

c)

Reciprocal

d)

Fraternal

119.

In insurance, Which of the following insurers are owned by their policyowners?

a)

Stock

b)

Mutual

c)

Reciprocal

d)

Fraternal

120.

A(n) ________ is a person authorized to sell, solicit, and negotiate insurance contracts

a)

Policyholder

b)

Non-authorized agent

c)

Non-admitted agent

d)

Insurance agent

121.

In insurance, If an insurer meets the state's financial requirements and is approved to transact business in the state, it is considered to be:

a)

Qualified

b)

Non-admitted

c)

Non-authorized

d)

Authorized

122.

In general insurance, Which of the following entities has the power to issue Certificates of Authority?

a)

NAIC

b)

Department of Insurance Transacting

c)

Commissioner of Insurance

d)

Federal Insurance Regulation Board

123.

In general insurance, Which of the following is another term for an authorized insurer?

a)

Admitted

b)

Verified

c)

Certified

d)

Legalized

124.

In GA State Regulations, How is the Commissioner of Insurance selected to be the chief officer of the Department of Insurance in Georgia?

a)

Elected to office by registered voters

b)

Hired by the Department

c)

Appointed by the Governor

d)

Nominated by Insurers

125.

In GA State Regulations, What is the title of the chief officer of the Department of Insurance?

a)

President

b)

Superintendent

c)

Commissioner

d)

Director

126.

In general insurance, Authorized insurance companies are examined by the Commissioner at least once every:

a)

1 year

b)

3 years

c)

5 years

d)

7 years

127.

In GA State Regulations, How long is the Commissioner's term of office?

a)

2 years

b)

4 years

c)

5 years

d)

7 years

128.

In GA State Regulations, Transacting insurance without a license in Georgia is considered a:

a)

Coercion

b)

Felony

c)

Misdemeanor

d)

Insurance Fraud

129.

In Georgia state regulations, what is the maximum fine for transacting insurance without a license?

a)

$500

b)

$1,000

c)

$5,000

d)

$10,000

130.

In insurance, When an insurance company engages in an Unfair Trade Practice, the Commissioner can: (Choose 2)

a)

Close their business locations

b)

Suspend their license

c)

Sentence them to jail time

d)

Issue a Cease and Desist Order

131.

In GA State regulations, The violation of a Cease and Desist order may result in a fine of:

a)

$3,000

b)

$7,500

c)

$5,000

d)

$10,000

132.

In a personal auto policy, If a driver completes defensive driving courses, how long will the discount apply to their premiums?

a)

1 year

b)

2 years

c)

3 years

d)

4 years

133.

In a personal auto policy, If a driver completes defensive driving courses, how much of a premium discount will they receive?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

20%

d)

15%

134.

In Georgia, what are the minimum requirements for bodily injury and property damage in auto insurance?

a)

25/50/25

b)

35/50/35

c)

15/25/15

d)

40/60/40

135.

An auto owner in Georgia has motor vehicle coverage with the limits of 25/50/25. All of the following are true EXCEPT:

a)

The driver's coverage for property damage is $25,000

b)

The policy meets the minimum coverage requirements

c)

The driver has proof of financial responsibility in this state

d)

The driver must have coverage of 40/60/40 to meet the minimum coverage requirements

136.

If a policy is cancelled due to nonpayment of premium, how many days' advance notice must the insurer give the policyholder?

a)

7 days

b)

10 days

c)

30 days

d)

31 days

137.

If a policy is going to be nonrenewed, how many days' advance notice must the insurer give the policyholder?

a)

7 days

b)

10 days

c)

30 days

d)

31 days

138.

In personal auto policy, A binder is effective for a period of?

a)

10 days

b)

30 days

c)

90 days

d)

60 days

139.

Which of the following would be considered an unfair trade practice? (Pick all that apply)

a)

Rebating

b)

Fiduciary Agreement

c)

Twisting

d)

Misrepresentation

e)

Demanding

140.

An agent offers a client free tickets to a sporting event in exchange for the purchase of an insurance policy, what is the agent guilty of?

a)

Misrepresentation

b)

Twisting

c)

Defamation

d)

Rebating

141.

In property insurance, what is the purpose of a coinsurance clause?

a)

To encourage insureds to have multiple policies to spread the risk

b)

The encourage insureds to pre-pay premiums

c)

To encourage insureds to insure property close to its value

d)

To encourage insureds to practice risk avoidance

142.

In insurance, How is actual cash value calculated?

a)

Market Value minus Replacement Cost

b)

Replacement Cost minus Market Value

c)

Depreciation minus Replacement Cost

d)

Replacement Cost minus Depreciation

143.

In insurance, What are the three types of hazards? (Choose 3)

a)

Morale

b)

Estoppel

c)

Negligence

d)

Physical

e)

Moral

144.

In insurance, What is defined as "forced entry into another's premises with felonious intent?"

a)

Burglary

b)

Robbery

c)

Theft

d)

Larceny

145.

In insurance, Conditions that increase the chance of a loss are:

a)

Risks

b)

Hazards

c)

Exposures

d)

Perils

146.

If an insured peril was the proximate cause of loss, what type of loss is it?

a)

Consequential

b)

Direct

c)

Indirect

d)

Catastrophic

147.

In insurance, A tornado that destroys a home is an example of a(n):

a)

Peril

b)

Risk

c)

Exposure

d)

Hazard

148.

In insurance, Which type of risk is insurable?

a)

Speculative

b)

Pure

c)

Special

d)

General

149.

TRUE OR FALSE: The injured party needs to prove negligence in cases of absolute liability

a)

True

b)

False

150.

In general insurance, What is a risk?

a)

The uncertainty of a loss

b)

A loss caused by continuous exposure to a condition

c)

Cause of loss insureds against in an insurance policy

d)

An insured peril

151.

The insurer's legal right to recover damages from a 3rd party after reimbursing insureds for a loss is:

a)

Assignment

b)

Subrogation

c)

Indemnity

d)

Estoppel

152.

In insurance, If a manufactured product is unsafe, what type of liability applies to the manufacturer?

a)

Strict Liability

b)

Sublimit Liability

c)

Pure Liability

d)

Absolute Liability

153.

In property insurance, when must insurable interest exist?

a)

At the time of renewal

b)

At the time of policy purchase

c)

At the time of loss

d)

At the time of premium payment

154.

A policy that covers all causes of loss except for those specifically excluded is known as a(n):

a)

Open peril policy

b)

Select peril policy

c)

Names peril policy

d)

Blanket peril policy

155.

What type of limits of liability has the limits separately stated for different coverages?

a)

Aggregate Limits

b)

Liability Limits

c)

Split Limits

d)

Select Limits

156.

In insurance, What is NOT an example of a pure risk?

a)

The probability of getting teeth knocked out playing youth hockey

b)

The probability of making money in the stock market

c)

The probability of getting into an accident while driving a motorcycle

d)

The probability of a wind storm hitting a home in Tornado Alley

157.

In general insurance, What is the specified dollar amount an insured must pay before the insurer will pay the policy benefits?

a)

Copay

b)

Deductible

c)

Premium

d)

Coinsurance

158.

In general insurance, What are the two types of compensatory damages: (Choose 2)

a)

Open

b)

Special

c)

General

d)

Moral

e)

Morale

159.

What is an absolutely true statement that, if found to be false, can void the policy?

a)

Representations

b)

Conditions

c)

Warranty

d)

Waiver

160.

In insurance, what does the term "unilateral contract" mean?

a)

A contract based on good faith from one party

b)

A conditional contract

c)

A contract based on a unknown future event

d)

A one-sided contract

161.

In a insurance contracts, when is the offer usually made?

a)

When the first premium is paid

b)

When the certificate of insurance is received by the insured

c)

When the insurance application is submitted

d)

When the underwriting is completed

162.

What is the insurers consideration in an insurance contract?

a)

Promise to act promptly

b)

Promise to pay out valid claims

c)

Promise to renew policy

d)

Promise to not cancel policy

163.

in general provision, Where is the policy period stated in an insurance policy?

a)

Definitions

b)

Declarations

c)

Conditions

d)

Insuring Agreement

164.

In insurance, What is a temporary contract that goes into effect prior to the policy issue?

a)

Certificate

b)

Binder

c)

Pending Policy

d)

Policy Promise

165.

In an insurance policy, What part of a policy contains the insurer's promise to pay a claim?

a)

Exclusions

b)

Declarations

c)

Conditions

d)

Insuring Agreement

166.

In insurance provision, What are the insured's duties after loss? (Choose 2)

a)

Provider insurer with personal estimate of damage

b)

Notify police in cases of theft

c)

Wait 72 hours before reporting theft

d)

Prepay damages to a 3rd party

e)

Protect the property from further damage

167.

In insurance, Information about changes to the policy or return of premium can be found in what section?

a)

Conditions

b)

Declarations

c)

Definitions

d)

Insuring Agreement

168.

In insurance contracts, when does acceptance usually occur?

a)

Upon completion of the underwriting process

b)

When the insurer approves the prepaid application

c)

When the insurer sends the Reservation of Rights

d)

When the policy is delivered to the agent

169.

Where can National Flood Insurance be issued?

a)

Only in participating communities

b)

Anywhere in the continental United States

c)

Only in coastal areas

d)

In any flood-prone area

170.

Which Homeowner's policy form is known as "Special Form"

a)

HO-8

b)

HO-5

c)

HO-3

d)

HO-2

171.

Which of the following is NOT a type of coverage available in Dwelling Policies?

a)

Modified

b)

Broad

c)

Special

d)

Basic

172.

What Homeowner's policy form is known as "contents broad form" because it only covers the contents, not the structure?

a)

HO-4

b)

HO-6

c)

HO-8

d)

HO-2

173.

What are some exclusions found in all 3 dwelling forms? (Choose 3)

a)

Fire

b)

Explosion

c)

Water damage

d)

Earth movement

e)

Freezing of Plumbing

174.

If 4 volcanic eruptions happen within 62 hours, and each contributes to property damage, how many deductibles will apply in the dwelling policy?

a)

4

b)

0

c)

2

d)

1

175.

A basic dwelling policy automatically provides coverage against what?

a)

Fire, Lightning, External Explosion

b)

Lightning, Explosion, Smore

c)

Fire, Lightning, Internal Explosion

d)

Smoke, Water Damage, Earth Movement

e)

Fire, Lightning, Explosion

176.

Which dwelling form is called the Broad form?

a)

DP-1

b)

DP-2

c)

DP-3

177.

What type of coverage is automatically included in Homeowner's policies, but is not in Dwelling policies (except by endorsement)?

a)

Liability

b)

Loss of Use

c)

Medical Payments

d)

Fair Rental Value

178.

What is defined as "misplacement or loss of property without knowledge as to the location, time and cause of loss"?

a)

Theft

b)

Displacement

c)

Absence

d)

Mysterious Disappearance

179.

Which dwelling coverage form will pay for the replacement cost of a dwelling?

a)

DP-1 & DP-2

b)

DP-1

c)

DP-2 & DP-3

d)

DP-2

e)

DP-3

180.

In general, what do Homeowner's policies cover?

a)

Dwelling used primarily as rental property

b)

Dwellings used primarily as private residences

c)

Dwellings used for both private and public use

d)

Dwellings used for residence and business purposes

181.

For certain HO forms to provide coverage, a dwelling must be insured for at least what percentage of the replacement cost?

a)

85%

b)

80%

c)

75%

d)

70%

182.

Why does HO-4 not provide dwelling coverage?

a)

HO-4 does provide dwelling coverage

b)

It is written for a tenant residing in a rented dwelling

c)

It it written for condo owners that do not own the building they reside in

d)

Its written for landlords to cover rented furniture

183.

Who is NOT considered insured under Part A: Liability of a personal auto policy?

a)

The vehicle owner while driving out of state

b)

The vehicle owner's minor daughter who drives it to school every day

c)

The spouse of the vehicle owner while they are out of state

d)

The boyfriend of the vehicle owner's daughter driving the vehicle without permission

184.

In a Personal Auto Policy, to what geographical region does the out-of-coverage apply?

a)

The U.S., excluding Alaska and Hawaii

b)

The U.S., its territories and Canada

c)

The U.S., its territories, Mexico and Canada

d)

Only the United States (All 50 States)

185.

If an auto policy has liability limits of 25/50/25, what would the equivalent combined single limit?

a)

$25,000

b)

$50,000

c)

$75,000

d)

$100,000

186.

If an auto policy has split limits of 20/40/10, what is the maximum amount the policy will pay for injuries to a single person in a single accident?

a)

$10,000

b)

$40,000

c)

$20,000

d)

$30,000

187.

What type of auto coverage will apply in a hit-and-run accident where the driver cannot be identified?

a)

Underinsured motorist

b)

Uninsured motorist

c)

Irresponsible motorist

d)

Hit-and-run motorist

188.

What personal auto coverage would pay for damages to a covered auto cause by collision with a fox?

a)

Collision

b)

Overturn

c)

Liability

d)

Comprehensive (Other-than-collusion)

189.

Rental reimbursement endorsement is available only if an auto policy has what type of coverage?

a)

Full

b)

Comprehensive

c)

Collision

d)

Liability