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biochem of nucleic acids

Total questions: 208

Worksheet time: 7hrs 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Griffith

a)

repeated Griffith’s experiment but in test tubes

subjected it to digestion with various enzymes

found the transforming substance was DNA

b)

injected smooth (S strain) and rough (R strain) in mice

found the heat-killed bacteria was probably the gene virulence itself

missing piece was the chemical nature of the transforming substance

c)

wanted to know if genes reside in protein or DNA

DNA is rich in phosphorus

Protein has no phosphorus

labeled

DNA of the phage (P32)

Proteins of the phage (S35)

the genes of the phage are made of DNA

d)

DNA is composed of 2 antiparallel strands

DNA strand contains info for the synthesis of the other strand

DNA replication is semiconservative

used 15N (heavy N) and 14N (lighter N)

DNA replication results in new DNA duplex molecules in which 1 strand is from the parent duplex and the other is completely new

2.

Avery, Macleod, McCarty

a)

repeated Griffith’s experiment but in test tubes

subjected it to digestion with various enzymes

found the transforming substance was DNA

b)

total amount of purines (A+G) is = to total amount of pyrimidines (T+C)

purines has a double ring

pyrimidines are single rings

c)

Determined the molecular weight of DNA

used Autoradiography

used a radioactive label and incorporated it into a substance

made E.coli radioactive

d)

wanted to know if genes reside in protein or DNA

DNA is rich in phosphorus

Protein has no phosphorus

labeled

DNA of the phage (P32)

Proteins of the phage (S35)

the genes of the phage are made of DNA

3.

Hershey-Chase

a)

DNA is composed of 2 antiparallel strands

DNA strand contains info for the synthesis of the other strand

DNA replication is semiconservative

used 15N (heavy N) and 14N (lighter N)

DNA replication results in new DNA duplex molecules in which 1 strand is from the parent duplex and the other is completely new

b)

identified SV40

origin of replication

DNA replication proceeded bidirectional

used EcoRI (Restriction enzyme) to cleave replicating SV40 DNA molecules at a unique

c)

repeated Griffith’s experiment but in test tubes

subjected it to digestion with various enzymes

found the transforming substance was DNA

d)

wanted to know if genes reside in protein or DNA

DNA is rich in phosphorus

Protein has no phosphorus

labeled

DNA of the phage (P32)

Proteins of the phage (S35)

the genes of the phage are made of DNA

4.

Chargaff

a)

repeated Griffith’s experiment but in test tubes

subjected it to digestion with various enzymes

found the transforming substance was DNA

b)

found all necessary ingredients required for the synthesis of E.coli DNA in vitro

c)

A=T

G=C

total amount of purines (A+G) is = to total amount of pyrimidines (T+C)

purines has a double ring

pyrimidines are single rings

d)

injected smooth (S strain) and rough (R strain) in mice

found the heat-killed bacteria was probably the gene virulence itself

missing piece was the chemical nature of the transforming substance

5.

DNA

a)

phosphate

attached to the 5’ carbon of the sugar by a phosphodiester linkage

no hydroxyl group at the 2’ position

2-deoxyribose in DNA

a purine or pyrimidine base attached to the 1’ carbon atom of the sugar by an N- glycosidic bond

b)

humidity is high

DNA is in B form

humidity is low

DNA is in A form

B and A are right handed helices

Z DNA is a left handed helix

c)

helix destabilizing proteins

bind only to separated single stranded DNA

prevent from base pairing back together

d)

a “sealing” enzyme

6.

nucleotide

a)

nucleoside+phosphate

b)

sugar linked to a base

c)

no phosphate

7.

nucleoside

a)

sugar linked to a base, no phosphate

b)

sugar lined to a base

c)

no phosphate

8.

what pair is more stable

a)

G-C

b)

A-T

c)

A-U

9.

DNA Watson and Crick


DNA molecule consist of 2 polynucleotide chains wound around each other in a right handed double helix

a)

true

b)

false

10.

DNA Watson and Crick


the 2 chains are parallel, both go in the 5' to 3' direction

a)

true

b)

false

11.

DNA watson and crick


sugar phosphate backbones are on the outside of the double helix

bases are oriented towards the central axis

a)

true

b)

false

12.

watson and crick


the bases of both chains are round structures oriented perpendicular to the long axis of the DNA

a)

true

b)

false

13.

WATSON AND CRICK


the bases opposite strand are bonded together by relatively weak hydrogen bonds

weak hydrogen bonds make it easier to separate the 2 strands

a)

true

b)

false

14.

watson and crick

the 2 sugar phosphate backbones of the double helix are not equally spaced along the helical axis

results in groves of unequal sizes between the backbones

called major and minor grooves

a)

true

b)

false

15.

DNA A

a)

humidity is high, right handed, minor and major

b)

humidity is low, left handed, minor

c)

humidity is low, right handed, major and minor

d)

humidity is low, left handed, major and minor

16.

DNA Z

a)

left handed, minor

b)

right handed, minor

c)

left handed, major and minor

d)

right handed, major and minor

17.

DNA B

a)

humidity is low, left handed, major and minor

b)

humidity is high, left handed, major and minor

c)

humidity is high, right handed, major and minor

d)

humidity is low, right handed, major and minor

18.

Meselson and Stahl

a)

DNA is composed of 2 antiparallel strands

DNA strand contains info for the synthesis of the other strand

DNA replication is semiconservative

used 15N (heavy N) and 14N (lighter N)

DNA replication results in new DNA duplex molecules in which 1 strand is from the parent duplex and the other is completely new

b)

Determined the molecular weight of DNA

used Autoradiography

used a radioactive label and incorporated it into a substance

made E.coli radioactive

revealed that the intact chromosomes of E.coli is a single high circle

radioactive DNA isolated from cells during replication showed an extra loop

the structures contained eyes (bubbles)

resembling theta

both strands are replicated at the same time

1 or both ends of the loop are dynamic points

c)

repeated Griffith’s experiment but in test tubes

subjected it to digestion with various enzymes

found the transforming substance was DNA

d)

wanted to know if genes reside in protein or DNA

DNA is rich in phosphorus

Protein has no phosphorus

labeled

DNA of the phage (P32)

Proteins of the phage (S35)

the genes of the phage are made of DNA

19.

DNA replication


results in new DNA duplex molecules in which 1 strand is from the parent duplex and the other is completely new

a)

true

b)

false

20.

Cairns

a)

Determined the molecular weight of DNA

used Autoradiography

used a radioactive label and incorporated it into a substance

made E.coli radioactive

revealed that the intact chromosomes of E.coli is a single high circle

radioactive DNA isolated from cells during replication showed an extra loop

the structures contained eyes (bubbles)

resembling theta

both strands are replicated at the same time

1 or both ends of the loop are dynamic points

b)

DNA is composed of 2 antiparallel strands

DNA strand contains info for the synthesis of the other strand

DNA replication is semiconservative

used 15N (heavy N) and 14N (lighter N)

DNA replication results in new DNA duplex molecules in which 1 strand is from the parent duplex and the other is completely new

c)

wanted to know if genes reside in protein or DNA

DNA is rich in phosphorus

Protein has no phosphorus

labeled

DNA of the phage (P32)

Proteins of the phage (S35)

the genes of the phage are made of DNA

d)

njected smooth (S strain) and rough (R strain) in mice

found the heat-killed bacteria was probably the gene virulence itself

missing piece was the chemical nature of the transforming substance

21.

replication forks

where parental DNA is being unwound and the separated strands are quickly replicated

a)

true

b)

false

22.

replication of bacterial chromosomes is bidirectional or only one direction

a)

one direction

b)

bidirectional

23.

Salzman

a)

DNA is composed of 2 antiparallel strands

DNA strand contains info for the synthesis of the other strand

DNA replication is semiconservative

used 15N (heavy N) and 14N (lighter N)

DNA replication results in new DNA duplex molecules in which 1 strand is from the parent duplex and the other is completely new

b)

total amount of purines (A+G) is = to total amount of pyrimidines (T+C)

purines has a double ring

pyrimidines are single rings

c)

identified SV40

origin of replication

DNA replication proceeded bidirectional

used EcoRI (Restriction enzyme) to cleave replicating SV40 DNA molecules at a unique site

SV40 DNA contains only 1 single EcoRI site

only one single replicating bubble, indicated a single origin of replication

bubble grew at both ends

both replicating forks were moving away from the single origin

24.

DNA molecules can coil and bend in space, leading to changes in topology

formation of supercoils

a)

true

b)

false

25.

Topisomerases

class of enzyme that control DNA topology

perform essential functions at several different steps in replication of DNA

a)

true

b)

false

26.

Type 1 topoisomerase

a)

changes the degree of supercoiling of DNA by causing single strand breaks and re-ligation

b)

bacterial gyros

cause double strand breaks

c)

implicated in recombination events

d)

impacted in process of segregation of the newly replicated chromosomes

27.

Type 2 topisomerases

a)

implicated in recombination events

b)

impacted in process of segregation of the newly replicated chromosomes

c)

bacterial gyros

cause double strand breaks

d)

changes the degree of supercoiling of DNA by causing single strand breaks and re-ligation

28.

Topisomerase 3

a)

impacted in process of segregation of the newly replicated chromosomes

b)

changes the degree of supercoiling of DNA by causing single strand breaks and re-ligation

c)

bacterial gyros

cause double strand breaks

d)

implicated in recombination events

29.

Topiomerase 4

a)

bacterial gyros

cause double strand breaks

b)

impacted in process of segregation of the newly replicated chromosomes

c)

changes the degree of supercoiling of DNA by causing single strand breaks and re-ligation

d)

implicated in recombination events

30.

DNA polymerase 1

a)

repair of damaged DNA

Exonuclease 5’-4’ is missing

b)

de novo synthesis of new stands of DNA

smallest molecules/cell

c)

involved in

repair of damaged DNA

subsidiary role in semiconservative replication

largest molecules/cell

31.

DNA polymerase 2

a)

repair of damaged DNA

Exonuclease 5’-4’ is missing

b)

involved in

repair of damaged DNA

subsidiary role in semiconservative replication

largest molecules/cell

c)

de novo synthesis of new stands of DNA

smallest molecules/cell

32.

DNA polymerase 3

a)

involved in

repair of damaged DNA

subsidiary role in semiconservative replication

largest molecules/cell

b)

de novo synthesis of new stands of DNA

smallest molecules/cell

c)

repair of damaged DNA

Exonuclease 5’-4’ is missing

33.

exonuclease activity


5’-3’ exonuclease servers a proofreading function

removes incorrectly matched bases, so polymerase can try again

a)

true

b)

false

34.

exonuclease activity

5’ exonuclease activity accomplishes “nick translation”

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

35.

All prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA polymerases share the same fundamental type of synthetic activity

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

36.

Kornberg

a)

found all necessary ingredients required for the synthesis of E.coli DNA in vitro

their DNA is biological inactive

requires a primer to provide a free 3’-OH end that can be extended by addition of nucleotides

b)

identified SV40

origin of replication

DNA replication proceeded bidirectional

used EcoRI (Restriction enzyme) to cleave replicating SV40 DNA molecules at a unique site

SV40 DNA contains only 1 single EcoRI site

only one single replicating bubble, indicated a single origin of replication

bubble grew at both ends

c)

Determined the molecular weight of DNA

used Autoradiography

used a radioactive label and incorporated it into a substance

made E.coli radioactive

revealed that the intact chromosomes of E.coli is a single high circle

radioactive DNA isolated from cells during replication showed an extra loop

the structures contained eyes (bubbles)

resembling theta

both strands are replicated at the same time

1 or both ends of the loop are dynamic points

d)

DNA is composed of 2 antiparallel strands

DNA strand contains info for the synthesis of the other strand

DNA replication is semiconservative

used 15N (heavy N) and 14N (lighter N)

DNA replication results in new DNA duplex molecules in which 1 strand is from the parent duplex and the other is completely new

37.

PRIMER

is a short sequence that is paired with one strand of DNA and provides a free 3’-OH end at which a DNA polymerase starts synthesis of deoxyribonucleotide chain

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

38.

DNA helicases

a)

enzymes bind to a single stranded DNA near the replication fork and then move into the neighbouring double stranded region, forcing the strands apart in effect, unwinding the double helix

requires energy (ATP)

make single stranded cut

one the strand separated allow single stranded DNA binding (SSB) proteins bind, preventing reformation of the double helix

b)

enzymes bind to a single stranded DNA near the replication fork and then move into the neighbouring double stranded region, forcing the strands apart in effect, unwinding the double helix

make single stranded cut

one the strand separated allow single stranded DNA binding (SSB) proteins bind, preventing reformation of the double helix

c)

enzymes bind to a single stranded DNA near the replication fork and then move into the neighbouring double stranded region, forcing the strands apart in effect, unwinding the double helix

requires energy (ATP)

one the strand separated allow single stranded DNA binding (SSB) proteins bind, preventing reformation of the double helix

d)

enzymes bind to a single stranded DNA near the replication fork and then move into the neighbouring double stranded region, forcing the strands apart in effect, unwinding the double helix

requires energy (ATP)

make single stranded cut

39.

SSB proteins

a)

do not precent the base from pairing back together

b)

bind to double stranded DNA

c)

helix destabilizing proteins

bind only to separated single stranded DNA

prevent from base pairing back together

d)

bind to single stranded DNA

40.

Dna protein

a)

bind to specific nucleotide sequences at the origin of replication (rich in AT base pairs)

ATP requiring process causes the double stranded DNA to melt

the strand separate, forming localized regions of single stranded DNA

b)

requires ATP

c)

requires no ATP

41.

RNA primase

a)

not in DNA polymerase 3

b)

makes very short piece of RNA by base pairing RNA nucleotides with template DNA

c)

carried out by RNA dependent RNA primase

42.

DNA ligase

a)

makes very short piece of RNA by base pairing RNA nucleotides with template DNA

b)

ATP requiring process causes the double stranded DNA to melt

the strand separate, forming localized regions of single stranded DNA

c)

a “sealing” enzyme

join any gaps where adjacent nucleotides on one strand have not been covalently joined

Need energy (ATP or phosphate bond of NAD+)

43.

Discontinuous DNA replication

a)

each fragment grows in the 5'-3' direction

b)

each fragment grows in the 3'-5' direction

44.

Discontinuous DNA replication


leading strand

a)

is synthesized discontinuously in the form of short fragments

b)

is synthesized continuously as the parental duplex is unwound

45.

Discontinuous DNA replication

lagging strand

a)

is synthesized discontinuously in the form of short fragments

b)

is synthesized continuously as the parental duplex is unwound

46.

Fidelity of DNA replication

prokaryotes

a)

DNA replication beings at a single, fixed location in this molecule, the replication origin

done in no more than 40 minutes

b)

process takes a month

many replication origins

c)

replication begins at some origins earlier in S phase than at others, but the process is completed by the end of S phase

47.

Fidelity of DNA replication

eukaryotes

a)

process takes a month

many replication origins

replication begins at some origins earlier in S phase than at others, but the process is completed by the end of S phase

when replication nears completion, bubbles form and fuse, forming 2 new molecules

b)

DNA replication beings at a single, fixed location in this molecule, the replication origin

done in no more than 40 minutes

c)

process takes a month

many replication origins

replication begins at some origins earlier in R phase than at others, but the process is completed by the end of R phase

when replication nears completion, bubbles form and fuse, forming 2 new molecules

d)

process is very quick

many replication origins

replication begins at some origins earlier in S phase than at others, but the process is completed by the end of S phase

when replication nears completion, bubbles form and fuse, forming 2 new molecules

48.

DNA mutations

can occur spontaneously

a)

true

b)

false

49.

how many types of point mutations

a)

2

b)

3

c)

5

d)

4

50.

Transitions

a)

involves the change of

a purine to a pyrimidine

a pyrimidine to a purine

b)

addition of a new base pair

c)

involve the change of

1 purine to another

1 pyrimidine to another

d)

removal of a new base pair

51.

Transversions

a)

involve the change of

1 purine to another

1 pyrimidine to another

b)

addition of a base pair

c)

involves the change of

a purine to a pyrimidine

a pyrimidine to a purine

d)

removal of a base pair

52.

Deletions and insertions are mutations involving either the removal or the addition of a base pair

lead to changes in the reading frame, they are frameshift mutations

a)

true

b)

false

53.

Physical agents that bring about mutations in DNA include

X-rays

a)

leads to formation of pyrimidine dimers

b)

gives a new entity

c)

causes nicks or breaks in a single strand

54.

Physical agents that bring about mutations in DNA include

UV radiation

a)

leads to formation of pyrimidine dimers

Thymine dimers form when 2 consecutive pyrimidines in one strand become covalently linked to each other

b)

causes nicks or breaks in a single strand

c)

gives a new entity

55.

Many mutagens are also carcinogens

a)

true

b)

false

56.

Chemical mutagenesis may result from modification of bases due to

oxidative deamination of nitrous acid or precursors of nitrous acid

a)

gives a new entity

b)

reactive compounds that can transfer methyl or ethyl groups to a DNA bade

cross linking of DNA strands

alteration of the helix by intercalating agents

planar molecules that become inserted between adjacent base pairs and lead to insertion or deletion of one or more base pairs

c)

leads to formation of pyrimidine dimers

57.

Chemical mutagenesis may result from modification of bases due to alkylation by alkylating agents

a)

gives a new entity

b)

causes nicks or breaks in a single strand

c)

reactive compounds that can transfer methyl or ethyl groups to a DNA bade

cross linking of DNA strands

alteration of the helix by intercalating agents

planar molecules that become inserted between adjacent base pairs and lead to insertion or deletion of one or more base pairs

58.

Direct reversal of damaging reaction

a)

most damage to DNA is repaired by removal of the damaged bases followed by resynthesis of the excised region

some lesions in DNA can be repaired by direct reversal of the damage

more efficient way of dealing with specific type of DNA damage

only a few types can be repaired this way

pyrimidine dimers resulting from exposure to UV

alkylated guanine residues that have been modified by the addition of methyl or ethyl groups at the O^6 position of the purine ring


repair of pyrimidine dimers by Photoreavtivation

is a bit universal

many species including humans lack this mechanism of DNA repair

Repair by O^6 meghylguanine methyltransferase

b)

most common form of DNA repair

complex system

employs some of the enzymes of DNA replication

many different types of damage are repaired including pyrimidine dimers

involves removing a damaged DNA segment and replacing it with the normal base sequence

first

DNA repair endonuclease or endnuclease-containg enzyme complex

recognizes

binds to

excises the damages base or bases in DNA

second

DNA polymerase fills in the gap by using the undamaged complementary strand of DNA as a template

third

DNA ligase seals the break left by DNA polymerase to complete the repair process

c)

corrects errors introduced during DNA replication by identifying mismatched nucleotides

mechanism is based on the occurrence of methylated bases of DNA

during replication, parental DNA is fully methylated

daughter DNA is under methylated for a brief period of time

due to DNA methylation lags behind DNA synthesis

capacity to recognize

unmethylated sequences

mismatched base pairs in the newly synthesized daughter strand

repair involves excising a segment of the daughter strand and includes the mismatched

excised segment is replaced by a new segment contains the correct base

59.

Excision repair

a)

most common form of DNA repair

complex system

employs some of the enzymes of DNA replication

many different types of damage are repaired including pyrimidine dimers

involves removing a damaged DNA segment and replacing it with the normal base sequence

first

DNA repair endonuclease or endnuclease-containg enzyme complex

recognizes

binds to

excises the damages base or bases in DNA

second

DNA polymerase fills in the gap by using the undamaged complementary strand of DNA as a template

third

DNA ligase seals the break left by DNA polymerase to complete the repair process

b)

a complex set of cellular changes

induced in bacteria subjected to lethal mutagens

UV

alkylating agents

cells cease to divide and increase their capacity to repair damaged DNA

the whole battery of DNA repair, recombination and replication proteins are synthesized

is a risky attempt to escape lethal effects of heavily damaged DNA

c)

damaged DNA undergo replication though all the damage has not been repaired

the damaged region is skipped during replication

the gap is filled by DNA polymerase and ligase

60.

2 major types of excision repair

base excision

a)

systems remove larger defects like thymine dimers

b)

systems remove abnormal or chemically modified bases from DNA

61.

2 major types of excision repair

nucleotide excision repair

a)

systems remove abnormal or chemically modified bases from DNA

b)

systems remove larger defects like thymine dimers

62.

Excinuclease activity in E.coli require the products of 3 genes (UvrA, UvrB, UvrC)

a)

true

b)

false

63.

nucleotide excision repair involves about _____ times as Many proteins

a)

3

b)

2

c)

4

64.

Xeroderma pigmentosum (XP)

a)

no treatment

inherited, associated with defective nucleotide excision repair

hypersensitive to UV light

exhibit stunted growth

b)

autosomal recessive disease

UV induced pyrimidine dimers and chemical adducts not excised from DNA

DNA ligase and repair enzymes are defective

develop aplastic anemia

pigmentary changes in skin

c)

autosomal recessive disease

lack of balance and slurred speech

muscle coordination defect

high frequency of chromosome breaks leading to translocations and inversions

d)

sensitive to sun and UV light

a rare hereditary disease in humans

due to a deficiency of the endonuclease that introduce nicks into damaged sections of DNA

65.

Cockayne syndrome (CS)

a)

no treatment

inherited, associated with defective nucleotide excision repair

hypersensitive to UV light

exhibit stunted growth

b)

sensitive to sun and UV light

a rare hereditary disease in humans

due to a deficiency of the endonuclease that introduce nicks into damaged

c)

autosomal recessive disease

lack of balance and slurred speech

muscle coordination defect

high frequency of chromosome breaks leading to translocations and inversions

d)

autosomal recessive disease

involves deficiency in DNA ligase

pre- and postnatal growth deficiency

sun-sensitive skin

chromosome instability

diabetes mellitus

immunodeficiency

66.

ataxia telangiectasia (AT)

a)

autosomal recessive disease

lack of balance and slurred speech

muscle coordination defect

high frequency of chromosome breaks leading to translocations and inversions

b)

autosomal recessive disease

involves deficiency in DNA ligase

pre- and postnatal growth deficiency

sun-sensitive skin

chromosome instability

diabetes mellitus

immunodeficiency

c)

autosomal recessive disease

UV induced pyrimidine dimers and chemical adducts not excised from DNA

DNA ligase and repair enzymes are defective

develop aplastic anemia

pigmentary changes in skin

67.

fanconi’s anemia (FA)

a)

autosomal recessive disease

UV induced pyrimidine dimers and chemical adducts not excised from DNA

DNA ligase and repair enzymes are defective

develop aplastic anemia

pigmentary changes in skin

b)

autosomal recessive disease

lack of balance and slurred speech

muscle coordination defect

high frequency of chromosome breaks leading to translocations and inversions

c)

autosomal recessive disease

involves deficiency in DNA ligase

pre- and postnatal growth deficiency

sun-sensitive skin

chromosome instability

diabetes mellitus

immunodeficiency

68.

bloom’s syndrome (BS)

a)

autosomal recessive disease

UV induced pyrimidine dimers and chemical adducts not excised from DNA

DNA ligase and repair enzymes are defective

develop aplastic anemia

pigmentary changes in skin

b)

autosomal recessive disease

lack of balance and slurred speech

muscle coordination defect

high frequency of chromosome breaks leading to translocations and inversions

c)

autosomal recessive disease

involves deficiency in DNA ligase

pre- and postnatal growth deficiency

sun-sensitive skin

chromosome instability

diabetes mellitus

immunodeficiency

69.

Mismatch DNA repair

a)

a complex set of cellular changes

induced in bacteria subjected to lethal mutagens

UV

alkylating agents

cells cease to divide and increase their capacity to repair damaged DNA

the whole battery of DNA repair, recombination and replication proteins are synthesized

is a risky attempt to escape lethal effects of heavily damaged DNA

b)

corrects errors introduced during DNA replication by identifying mismatched nucleotides

mechanism is based on the occurrence of methylated bases of DNA

during replication, parental DNA is fully methylated

daughter DNA is under methylated for a brief period of time

due to DNA methylation lags behind DNA synthesis

capacity to recognize

unmethylated sequences

mismatched base pairs in the newly synthesized daughter strand

repair involves excising a segment of the daughter strand and includes the mismatched

excised segment is replaced by a new segment contains the correct base

c)

damaged DNA undergo replication though all the damage has not been repaired

the damaged region is skipped during replication

the gap is filled by DNA polymerase and ligase

70.

SOS repair

a)

a complex set of cellular changes

induced in bacteria subjected to lethal mutagens

UV

alkylating agents

cells cease to divide and increase their capacity to repair damaged DNA

the whole battery of DNA repair, recombination and replication proteins are synthesized

is a risky attempt to escape lethal effects of heavily damaged DNA

b)

corrects errors introduced during DNA replication by identifying mismatched nucleotides

mechanism is based on the occurrence of methylated bases of DNA

during replication, parental DNA is fully methylated

daughter DNA is under methylated for a brief period of time

due to DNA methylation lags behind DNA synthesis

capacity to recognize

unmethylated sequences

mismatched base pairs in the newly synthesized daughter strand

repair involves excising a segment of the daughter strand and includes the mismatched

excised segment is replaced by a new segment contains the correct base

c)

damaged DNA undergo replication though all the damage has not been repaired

the damaged region is skipped during replication

the gap is filled by DNA polymerase and ligase

71.

Recombination Repair

a)

most damage to DNA is repaired by removal of the damaged bases followed by resynthesis of the excised region

some lesions in DNA can be repaired by direct reversal of the damage

more efficient way of dealing with specific type of DNA damage

only a few types can be repaired this way

pyrimidine dimers resulting from exposure to UV

alkylated guanine residues that have been modified by the addition of methyl or ethyl groups at the O^6 position of the purine ring


repair of pyrimidine dimers by Photoreavtivation

is a bit universal

many species including humans lack this mechanism of DNA repair

Repair by O^6 meghylguanine methyltransferase

b)

a complex set of cellular changes

induced in bacteria subjected to lethal mutagens

UV

alkylating agents

cells cease to divide and increase their capacity to repair damaged DNA

the whole battery of DNA repair, recombination and replication proteins are synthesized

is a risky attempt to escape lethal effects of heavily damaged DNA

c)

damaged DNA undergo replication though all the damage has not been repaired

the damaged region is skipped during replication

the gap is filled by DNA polymerase and ligase

72.

ames test

a)

shows the probability that a substance is a mutagen or carcinogen and the relative mutagenicity or carinogenicty of the substance

histidine requiring (His-) mutants of the bacterium salmonella typhimurim are tested for reverse of His+

b)

100% gurantee

c)

shows the probability that a substance is a mutagen or carcinogen and the relative mutagenicity or carinogenicty of the substance

histidine requiring (His+) mutants of the bacterium salmonella typhimurim are tested for reverse of His-

73.

DNA recombination

makes new combination of genetic info on a new DNA molecule

results in the exchange or transfer of segments of DNA from one chromosome to another or with a chromosome

most are examples of homologous recombination (general recombination)

occurs between any 2 DNA molecules or fragments of the same DNA molecule that have closely related sequences

a)

true

b)

false

74.

in bacteria can occur during

conjugation

a)

DNA fragment becomes incorporated into the chromosome of a recipient bacterial cell (Griffiths experiment)

b)

sexual reproduction

DNA transfer between cells of opposite mating types

Lederberg and Tatum showed that 2 different strains of bacteria with different growth requirements could exchange genes

c)

transfer of DNA segment first becomes incorporated into the phage DNA and from there is transferred to the DNA of the recipient cell

75.

in bacteria can occur during

transformation

a)

transfer of DNA segment first becomes incorporated into the phage DNA and from there is transferred to the DNA of the recipient cell

b)

sexual reproduction

DNA transfer between cells of opposite mating types

Lederberg and Tatum showed that 2 different strains of bacteria with different growth requirements could exchange genes

c)

DNA fragment becomes incorporated into the chromosome of a recipient bacterial cell (Griffiths experiment)

76.

in bacteria can occur during

Transduction

a)

transfer of DNA segment first becomes incorporated into the phage DNA and from there is transferred to the DNA of the recipient cell

b)

DNA fragment becomes incorporated into the chromosome of a recipient bacterial cell (Griffiths experiment)

c)

sexual reproduction

DNA transfer between cells of opposite mating types

Lederberg and Tatum showed that 2 different strains of bacteria with different growth requirements could exchange genes

77.

site specific recombination

a)

rare event

require neither sequence similarity nor the action of any known protein between the recombine DNA’s

b)

only limited sequence

recombine DNA’a and always involves the same DNA regions

c)

short segment of DNA with the remarkable capacity to move from one location in chromosome to another

78.

homologous recombination occurs via crossing over

genetic material is exchanged between homologous chromosomes during meiosis

a)

true

b)

false

79.

illegitamate recombination

a)

only limited sequence

recombine DNA’a and always involves the same DNA regions

b)

rare event

require neither sequence similarity nor the action of any known protein

c)

short segment of DNA with the remarkable capacity to move from one location in chromosome to another

80.

DNA transposition

a)

rare event

require neither sequence similarity nor the action of any known protein between the recombine DNA’s

b)

short segment of DNA with the remarkable capacity to move from one location in chromosome to another

c)

only limited sequence

recombine DNA’a and always involves the same DNA regions

81.

Meselson and Weigle

a)

co-infected E.coli with 2 pages carrying different markers

one grown contain heavy isotopes (15N,13C)

other growth in normal light isotopes (14N,12C)

recombinant viruses were found to have intermediate densities

non-recombinant phages were uniformly light or heavy

recombinant phages contained DNA derived from both parents by breaking and rejoining

b)

DNA is composed of 2 antiparallel strands

DNA strand contains info for the synthesis of the other strand

DNA replication is semiconservative

used 15N (heavy N) and 14N (lighter N)

DNA replication results in new DNA duplex molecules in which 1 strand is from the parent duplex and the other is completely new

c)

wanted to know if genes reside in protein or DNA

DNA is rich in phosphorus

Protein has no phosphorus

labeled

DNA of the phage (P32)

Proteins of the phage (S35)

the genes of the phage are made of DNA

82.

Holiday Model

a model of heterologous recombination

a)

true

b)

false

83.

Holiday Model

STEP 1

a)

1 strand of each double helix breaks

b)

recombination process is recognition and alignment in which the 2 homologous DNA double helices become precisely aligned

pairing process is called synapsis

c)

Each broken strand invaded the opposite double helix and base pairs with the complementary nucleotides of the invaded helix

called invasion

leaves gaps that are sealed by DNA polymerase and DNA ligase

produces Chi (X) structure

84.

Holiday Model

STEP 2

a)

1 strand of each double helix breaks

b)

Each broken strand invaded the opposite double helix and base pairs with the complementary nucleotides of the invaded helix

called invasion

leaves gaps that are sealed by DNA polymerase and DNA ligase

produces Chi (X) structure

c)

recombination process is recognition and alignment in which the 2 homologous DNA double helices become precisely aligned

pairing process is called synapsis

85.

Holiday Model

Step 3

a)

Each broken strand invaded the opposite double helix and base pairs with the complementary nucleotides of the invaded helix

called invasion

leaves gaps that are sealed by DNA polymerase and DNA ligase

produces Chi (X) structure

b)

1 strand of each double helix breaks

c)

2 DNA double helices can rotate

generates different conformations of the holiday structure

4-armed structure for the DNA strand is produced by pulling the 4 chromosome ends apart

86.

Holiday Model

Step 4

a)

2 DNA double helices can rotate

generates different conformations of the holiday structure

4-armed structure for the DNA strand is produced by pulling the 4 chromosome ends apart

b)

holiday intermediate is cut by the enzymes at 2 points in the single stranded DNA region of the branch point

cut can either be vertical or horizontal planes

both occur at equal probability

sealing the nicks leaves 2 DNA duplex with

short stretched of hetroduplex containing 1 strand from each of the recombine partners (no true recombination)

c)

Each broken strand invaded the opposite double helix and base pairs with the complementary nucleotides of the invaded helix

called invasion

leaves gaps that are sealed by DNA polymerase and DNA ligase

produces Chi (X) structure

87.

Holiday Model

Step 5

a)

Each broken strand invaded the opposite double helix and base pairs with the complementary nucleotides of the invaded helix

called invasion

leaves gaps that are sealed by DNA polymerase and DNA ligase

produces Chi (X) structure

b)

holiday intermediate is cut by the enzymes at 2 points in the single stranded DNA region of the branch point

cut can either be vertical or horizontal planes

both occur at equal probability

sealing the nicks leaves 2 DNA duplex with

short stretched of hetroduplex containing 1 strand from each of the recombine partners (no true recombination)

patched duplexes

recombinant DNA

spliced duplexes

c)

2 DNA double helices can rotate

generates different conformations of the holiday structure

4-armed structure for the DNA strand is produced by pulling the 4 chromosome ends apart

88.

Holiday model

explains the events of recombination

does not give any mechanism of exchange reactions

does not give any mechanism of molecular aspects of the process

a)

true

b)

false

89.

RecA : recombinase RecA

a)

drive branch migration and process the holiday structure into recombinant products

b)

binds to single stranded DNA, forms a nucleoprotein filament capable of strain invasion and homologous pairing

c)

binds to the end of a DNA duplex and its helices activity starts to unwind the double helix

90.

RecBCD:

a)

binds to the emerging single strands

b)

drive branch migration and process the holiday structure into recombinant products

c)

enzymatic complex which imitates recombination

91.

RuvA, RuvB, RuvC proteins

a)

binds to single stranded DNA, forms a nucleoprotein filament capable of strain invasion and homologous pairing

b)

drive branch migration and process the holiday structure into recombinant products

c)

binds to the emerging single strands

92.

RecBCD

a)

binds to the end of a DNA duplex and its helices activity starts to unwind the double helix

b)

binds to the emerging single strands

c)

binds to single stranded DNA, forms a nucleoprotein filament capable of strain invasion and homologous pairing

93.

the endonuclease activity of RecBCD

a)

cuts randomly cleaves the single strand DNA

When RecBCD encounters a nucleotide sequence (Chi site)

b)

3’ terminal strand is cleaved just below the 3’ end Chi site

c)

binds to the end of a DNA duplex and its helices activity starts to unwind the double helix

94.

integration of RecBCD with Chi site caused the RecD to become irreversibly altered

a)

true

b)

false

95.

RecBCD no longer expresses nuclease activity towards the 5’ terminal strand

a)

true

b)

false

96.

RecBCD nuclease activity against the 5’ terminal strand increases

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

97.

RuvA and B work together as a holiday junction specific helices complex

a)

dissociates the RecA filament

catalyzes branch migration

b)

is an endonuclease that binds at the junction and cuts pairs of DNA strand of similar polarity

c)

splice and patch recombinants

98.

RuvC

a)

dissociates the RecA filament

catalyzes branch migration

b)

is an endonuclease that binds at the junction and cuts pairs of DNA strand of similar polarity

splice and patch recombinants

c)

tetramer fits within the junction point

99.

Recombination

Transposition

a)

involves physical movement of DNA segments from one chromosomal locus to another

occurs in prokaryotes and eukaryotes

b)

range in length from several hundred to tens of thousands of base pairs

can be divided into 3 classes

100.

transposons are autonomous units and each encodes and enzyme called transposase

a)

true

b)

false

101.

transposase catalyzes its own transposition

a)

range in length from several hundred to tens of thousands of base pairs

can be divided into 3 classes

b)

involves physical movement of DNA segments from one chromosomal locus to another

occurs in prokaryotes and eukaryotes

102.

insertion sequence (IS)

a)

promotes changes in DNA (insertion and deletions)

plays vital role in the capacity of bacteria to mutate at a rapid rate

b)

represents the simplest transposable elements

contains a small ds DNA segment that generally contains fewer than 2000 bo

contains a gene that codes for transposase

sometimes a regulatory gene related to the process of transposition, but no other gene

flanked by inverted repeats

identical sequences reading in opposite directions

c)

contain not only the gene for transposase but also a # of other genes not related to transposition

103.

Transposons

a)

larger transposons elements

contain not only the gene for transposase but also a # of other genes not related to transposition

transposes are flanked by inverted repeats (identical sequences, reading in opposite directions)

b)

promotes changes in DNA (insertion and deletions)

plays vital role in the capacity of bacteria to mutate at a rapid rate

c)

accounts for the development of bacterial resistance to antibodies

104.

composite transposons

a)

Transposons and composite transposons

larger transposons elements

contain not only the gene for transposase but also a # of other genes not related to transposition

transposes are flanked by inverted repeats (identical sequences, reading in opposite directions)

b)

are flanked by insertion sequences

transposition

promotes changes in DNA (insertion and deletions)

plays vital role in the capacity of bacteria to mutate at a rapid rate

accounts for the development of bacterial resistance to antibodies

105.

Scientists believe that transposes, called retrotransposons represent degenerated retroviruses

retrotransposons are transported by being first transcribed into RNA

action of an enzyme produces DNA complementary to the RNA

constitutes as a copy of the original retrotransposon, becomes inverted into DNA

a)

true

b)

false

106.

cDNA

a)

A DNA sequence that is complementary to mRNA molecule

synthesized in vitro by an enzyme called reverse transcriptase

b)

A population of individuals or DNA fragments that are identical

c)

A DNA polymerase that uses an RNA template

107.

Reverse transcriptase

a)

DNA molecule used to direct the replication of a cloned DNA fragment in a host cell

b)

A plasmid or other DNA sequences capable of self-replication

can be used for insertion of foreign DNA sequences

c)

A DNA polymerase that uses an RNA template

108.

Vector

a)

A plasmid or other DNA sequences capable of self-replication

can be used for insertion of foreign DNA sequences

b)

DNA molecule used to direct the replication of a cloned DNA fragment in a host cell

c)

a small autonomously replicating circular double strand DNA present in bacteria and eukaryotes

109.

Clone

a)

A plasmid or other DNA sequences capable of self-replication

can be used for insertion of foreign DNA sequences

b)

A population of individuals or DNA fragments that are identical

c)

a small autonomously replicating circular double strand DNA present in bacteria and eukaryotes

110.

Cloning vector

a)

A population of individuals or DNA fragments that are identical

b)

DNA molecule used to direct the replication of a cloned DNA fragment in a host cell

c)

A plasmid or other DNA sequences capable of self-replication

can be used for insertion of foreign DNA sequences

111.

Plasmid

a)

a small autonomously replicating circular double strand DNA present in bacteria and eukaryotes

b)

DNA molecule used to direct the replication of a cloned DNA fragment in a host cell

c)

a fragment of DNA or RNA labeled with radioactivity, a dye, or an antigen

for detecting the presence of complementary sequences

112.

Probe

a)

a small autonomously replicating circular double strand DNA present in bacteria and eukaryotes

b)

a fragment of DNA or RNA labeled with radioactivity, a dye, or an antigen

for detecting the presence of complementary sequences

c)

forming a double stranded structure from 2 polynucleotide strands from different sources

113.

Hybridization

a)

forming a double stranded structure from 2 polynucleotide strands from different sources

b)

use of radioactive or fluorescent probes to detect DNA or RNA sequences in cell extracts, chromosomes, or intact cells

c)

uses antibodies to detect proteins separated by SDS-PAGE

114.

In situ hybridization

a)

use of radioactive or fluorescent probes to detect DNA or RNA sequences in cell extracts, chromosomes, or intact cells

b)

forming a double stranded structure from 2 polynucleotide strands from different sources

c)

mechanism by which bacteria transfers genes from one strain to another

occurs when DNA from a donor is added to medium and taken by the recipient

the recipient gene is known as transformant

115.

Immunoblotting

a)

method to separate proteins by gel electrophoresis on the basis of size

b)

uses antibodies to detect proteins separated by SDS-PAGE

c)

mechanism by which bacteria transfers genes from one strain to another

occurs when DNA from a donor is added to medium and taken by the recipient

the recipient gene is known as transformant

116.

SDS-PAGE

a)

method to separate proteins by gel electrophoresis on the basis of size

b)

enzyme that cleaves DNA at a specific sequence

c)

a virus for which the natural host is a bacteria cell

bacteria eaters

117.

Restriction enzyme

a)

enzyme that cleaves DNA at a specific sequence

b)

mechanism by which bacteria transfers genes from one strain to another

occurs when DNA from a donor is added to medium and taken by the recipient

the recipient gene is known as transformant

c)

joining of 2 DNA molecules with a covalent bond

118.

Transformation

a)

a virus for which the natural host is a bacteria cell

bacteria eaters

b)

mechanism by which bacteria transfers genes from one strain to another

occurs when DNA from a donor is added to medium and taken by the recipient

the recipient gene is known as transformant

c)

techniques for separating, uniting, and amplifying heterologous DNA molecules

119.

bacteriophage

a)

a virus for which the natural host is a bacteria cell

bacteria eaters

b)

joining of 2 DNA molecules with a covalent bond

c)

techniques for separating, uniting, and amplifying heterologous DNA molecules

120.

Ligation

a)

enzyme that cleaves DNA at a specific sequence

b)

uses antibodies to detect proteins separated by SDS-PAGE

c)

joining of 2 DNA molecules with a covalent bond

121.

Recombinant DNA technology

a)

A DNA insert joined to a vector

b)

techniques for separating, uniting, and amplifying heterologous DNA molecules

c)

exchange of genetic material

122.

Recombinant molecule

a)

A DNA insert joined to a vector

b)

exchange of genetic material

c)

techniques for separating, uniting, and amplifying heterologous DNA molecules

123.

Recombination

a)

A DNA insert joined to a vector

b)

exchange of genetic material

c)

a unit of DNA capable of replication (plasmid or chromosome)

124.

Cosmid

a)

a vector that contains bacteriophage lambda sequences, antibiotic resistance sequences and an origin of replication

can accommodate large DNA inserts

b)

a unit of DNA capable of replication (plasmid or chromosome)

c)

joining of 2 DNA molecules with a covalent bond

125.

Replicon

a)

A DNA insert joined to a vector

b)

exchange of genetic material

c)

a unit of DNA capable of replication (plasmid or chromosome)

126.

Isopycnic centrifugation

a)

Is a variant of the basic technique of ultracentrifugation Can be used to isolate DNA The densities of DNAs are about the same as concentrated solutions of cesium chloride

b)

A technique where the components of a sample (DNA) are separated on the basis of their density in a centrifuge according to the centrifugal force they experience

c)

Is an excellent means of removing proteins and RNA in the purification of DNA

The proteins float near the top of the tube The DNA bands near the center of the tube The RNA forms the pellets at the bottom of the tube

127.

Density gradient centrifugation

a)

Is a variant of the basic technique of ultracentrifugation Can be used to isolate DNA The densities of DNAs are about the same as concentrated solutions of cesium chloride

b)

A technique where the components of a sample (DNA) are separated on the basis of their density in a centrifuge according to the centrifugal force they experience

c)

Is an excellent means of removing proteins and RNA in the purification of DNA

128.

Cesium chloride centrifugation

a)

A technique where the components of a sample (DNA) are separated on the basis of their density in a centrifuge according to the centrifugal force they experience

b)

Is an excellent means of removing proteins and RNA in the purification of DNA

The proteins float near the top of the tube The DNA bands near the center of the tube The RNA forms the pellets at the bottom of the tube

c)

Is a variant of the basic technique of ultracentrifugation Can be used to isolate DNA The densities of DNAs are about the same as concentrated solutions of cesium chloride

129.

DNA extraction Eukaryotes

a)

Cell disruption (nuclei separation) Nuclei are treated with detergents and digestion with proteolytic enzymes and ribonuclease Extraction of DNA with organic solvents (in general a mixture of phenol-chloroform) Precipitation of DNA (ethanol) DNA dissolution in aqueous buffer Evaluation of DNA solution by spectrophotometry (UV)

b)

Bacterial cells are disrupted by successive cycles of freezing-thawing (several times) Addition of ribonuclease enzyme and purified protinases to destroy RNA and proteins Density gradient centrifugation (cesium chloride)

130.

DNA extraction prokaryotes

a)

Bacterial cells are disrupted by successive cycles of freezing-thawing (several times) Addition of ribonuclease enzyme and purified protinases to destroy RNA and proteins Density gradient centrifugation (cesium chloride)

b)

Cell disruption (nuclei separation) Nuclei are treated with detergents and digestion with proteolytic enzymes and ribonuclease Extraction of DNA with organic solvents (in general a mixture of phenol-chloroform) Precipitation of DNA (ethanol) DNA dissolution in aqueous buffer Evaluation of DNA solution by spectrophotometry (UV)

131.

Characterization and measuring nucleic acid content

measured by spectrophometry

DNA and RNA

a)

260

b)

300

c)

280

132.

Characterization and measuring nucleic acid content

measured by spectrophometry

protein

a)

280

b)

260

c)

300

d)

220

133.

Measurement of the nucleus acid content of whole cell or tissue homogenates requires chemical methods

a)

true

b)

false

134.

DNA and RNA absorb at 260 due to

a)

the conjugated double bonds present in their constituent bases

b)

the unconjugated double bonds present in their constituent bases

c)

the unconjugated single bonds present in their constituent bases

135.

Spectrofluorimetry

a)

Cleave some of the phosphodiester bonds Hydrolyse the glycosidic links between the deoxyribose and purines Deoxyribose residues are converted to hydroxylevulinyl aldehyde Hydroxylevulinyl aldehyde reacts with diphenylamine to produce a blue pigment The blue pigment is assayed at 600 nm

b)

This is the ebay approach for samples where the DNA concentration is too low

The method uses the fluorescent dye ethidium bromide Ethidium bromide binds to dsDNA by insertion between stacked base pairs (intercalation)

The fluorescence of ethidium bromide is enhanced 25X when it interacts with dsDNA ssDNA gives no significant enhancement of fluorescence The conc of dsDNA can be calculated by comparing its fluorescence with that of standard dsDNA of known conc

c)

A technique where the components of a sample (DNA) are separated on the basis of their density in a centrifuge according to the centrifugal force they experience

136.

Chemical methods: DNA

a)

Mostly based on colorimetric reactions with the Pentose groups of nucleic acids The total DNA concentration can be measured by the diphenylamine reaction Diphenylamine is specific for 2-deoxypentoses Diphenylamine reaction involves heating in a boiling water bath for 10 min: DNA solution Diphenylamine reagent in acetic acid Concentrated sulphuric acid

b)

Orcinol reaction is a general assay for pentoses Orcinol reaction involves heating in a boiling bath RNA solution Orcinol reagent The orcinol reagent is prepared by dissolving 1g of FeCl36H2O in 1 liter of concentrated HCl +35 ml of 6% w/v Orcinol in ethanol

137.

Chemical methods: DNA

The acids

a)

Cleave some of the phosphodiester bonds Hydrolyse the glycosidic links between the deoxyribose and purines Deoxyribose residues are converted to hydroxylevulinyl aldehyde Hydroxylevulinyl aldehyde reacts with diphenylamine to produce a blue pigment The blue pigment is assayed at 600 nm

b)

Cleave some of the phosphodiester bonds Hydrolyses the glycosidic links between the ribose and purines The hot acid also converts the tibose to furfural The furfural reacts with orcinol in presence of ferric ions to produce green coloured compounds Green coloured compounds are assayed at 660 nm

138.

Chemical methods: RNA

a)

Mostly based on colorimetric reactions with the Pentose groups of nucleic acids The total DNA concentration can be measured by the diphenylamine reaction Diphenylamine is specific for 2-deoxypentoses Diphenylamine reaction involves heating in a boiling water bath for 10 min: DNA solution Diphenylamine reagent in acetic acid Concentrated sulphuric acid

b)

Orcinol reaction is a general assay for pentoses Orcinol reaction involves heating in a boiling bath RNA solution Orcinol reagent The orcinol reagent is prepared by dissolving 1g of FeCl36H2O in 1 liter of concentrated HCl +35 ml of 6% w/v Orcinol in ethanol

139.

Chemical methods: RNA

The acid

a)

Cleave some of the phosphodiester bonds Hydrolyses the glycosidic links between the ribose and purines The hot acid also converts the tibose to furfural The furfural reacts with orcinol in presence of ferric ions to produce green coloured compounds Green coloured compounds are assayed at 660 nm

b)

Cleave some of the phosphodiester bonds Hydrolyse the glycosidic links between the deoxyribose and purines Deoxyribose residues are converted to hydroxylevulinyl aldehyde Hydroxylevulinyl aldehyde reacts with diphenylamine to produce a blue pigment The blue pigment is assayed at 600 nm

140.

To have an absolute concentration :

Determination of inorganic phosphate (ip) concentration

a)

We can produce ip by heating nucleic acid in presence of perchloric acid (hydrolysis) Phosphate determination Can not differentiate between RNA and DNA

b)

Dry and weigh

c)

Separation without denaturation Good method but expensive Only if little material (DNA or RNA)

141.

To have an absolute concentration:

DNA precipitation

a)

Dry and weigh

b)

heating nucleic acid in presence of perchloric acid (hydrolysis)

c)

Separation without denaturation

142.

DNA-RNA separation

Density gradient (cesium chloride) centrifugation can be used to separate DNA-RNA

a)

Separation without denaturation Good method but expensive Only if little material (DNA or RNA)

b)

Material of the column: calcium phosphate gel (hydroxyapatite) Hydroxyapatite binds to double stranded nucleic acid more tenaciously than to single stranded molecules dsDNA can be effectively separated from ssDNA, RNA and protein contaminants

c)

DNAse or RNAse treatment Pure material

143.

DNA-RNA separation

Column chromatography

a)

Separation without denaturation Good method but expensive Only if little material (DNA or RNA)

b)

Material of the column: calcium phosphate gel (hydroxyapatite) Hydroxyapatite binds to double stranded nucleic acid more tenaciously than to single stranded molecules dsDNA can be effectively separated from ssDNA, RNA and protein contaminants By eluting the column with increasing concentration of phosphate buffer dsDNA binds to the column, while the rest of the samples passes through

c)

Gel electrophoresis

144.

Methods that denature the nucleic acids

a)

DNAse or RNAse treatment Pure material

b)

DNAse or RNAse treatment unPure material

c)

RNAse treatment Pure material

145.

Determination of molecular weight

Gel electrophoresis (relative method)

DNA molecules are negatively charged Migrating through an Agarose gel towards the anode (+) at a rate which is dependent upon molecular size

a)

true

b)

false

146.

Determination of molecular weight:Gel electrophoresis:DNA

Migration from - to + Type of DNA influences the migration process Linear DNA and circular DNA with the same MW migrate differently

a)

true

b)

false

147.

Determination of molecular weight :Gel electrophoresis : RNA


Under conditions used to separate dsDNA, RNA molecules tend to develop a primary structure And this leads to anomalous mobilities To eliminate RNA secondary structure, samples are pre-treated by heating in dilute formamide or glyoxal And electrophoresis is carried out in “denaturing gel” which include buffers containing formaldehyde

a)

true

b)

false

148.

For higher molecular weight (MW)


Impossible to determine the MW by gel electrophoresis or sequencing

a)

true

b)

false

149.

for MW less than 200kb

a)

Density gradient (saccharose) centrifugation

b)

electric microscopy (EM)

150.

For MW greater than 200kb

a)

electric microscopy (EM)

b)

Density gradient (saccharose) centrifugation

151.

Denaturation of DNA

Physicochemical properties of DNA

Hydrogen bonds between base pairs can be disrupted The 2 strands are no longer held together (the strands separate as individual random coils)

a)

true

b)

false

152.

Denaturation of DNA is prompted by

a)

Heat

Low salt conc

Extremes in pH (basic or acidic media)

Chemical agent: formamide, urea

b)

cold

Low salt conc

Extremes in pH (basic or acidic media)

Chemical agent: formamide, urea

c)

Heat

high salt conc

Extremes in pH (basic or acidic media)

Chemical agent: formamide, urea

153.

The rise in absorbance coincides with strand separation

a)

true

b)

false

154.

And the temperature at which one-half of a DNA sample is denatured is termed: melting temperature (Tm)

a)

true

b)

false

155.

Tm value is higher for

a)

G-C

b)

A-T

c)

A-U

156.

Renaturation of DNA

if the denaturing conditions are removed

a)

DNA solution is cooled gradually

pH is returned to neutrality

Denaturants are diluted out

Denatured DNA will renature to reform the duplex structure

b)

DNA solution is cooled gradually

pH stays the same

Denaturants are diluted out

Denatured DNA will renature to reform the duplex structure

c)

DNA solution is cooled gradually

pH is returned to neutrality

Denaturants remain

Denatured DNA will renature to reform the duplex structure

157.

annealing is the process of cooling heated samples of DNA and Annealing is a powerful mean for comparing samples of DNA from different sources for their relatedness

a)

true

b)

false

158.

Nucleic acid hybridization


Artificial hybrid duplexes may form if the DNA from one species is similar in nucleotide sequence to the DNA of the other About 25% of the DNA from human forms hybrids with mouse DNA Indicating that some of the genes (nucleotide sequences) in humans are very similar to those in mice

a)

true

b)

false

159.

Nucleic acid hybridization

Is a uncommon employed procedure in molecular biology

1) it can reveal evolutionary relationships

2) it gives researchers the power to identify specific genes selectively against a vast background of irrelevant genetic material

a)

true

b)

false

160.

Southern Blotting

a)

used for detection of specific genes in cellular DNA

b)

target nucleic acid is RNA

c)

identifying and characterizing specific gene product

161.

Southern Blotting applications

a)

gene under investigation is expressed in a specific tissue or what level the gene is expressed

b)

identifying and characterizing specific gene product

c)

rape and murder investigations

162.

Northern blotting

a)

the target nucleic acid is DNA

b)

the target nucleic acid is RNA

c)

protein

163.

northern blotting application

a)

tool for identifying and characterizing specific gene product

b)

This method is now proving decisive in court cases worldwide (rape and murder victim)

c)

An investigator may not know whether a gene under investigation is expressed in a specific tissue or what level the gene is expressed

164.

western blot

a)

A particular DNA product can be located

b)

A particular protein product can be located

c)

A particular RNA product can be located

165.

western blot applications

a)

powerful tool for identifying and characterizing specific gene product

b)

An investigator may not know whether a gene under investigation is expressed in a specific tissue or what level the gene is expressed

c)

In oncology, targeting certain specific DNA sequences in lymphoma and leukemia

166.

In situ hybridization


used to detect nucleic acid sequences present in intact cells

a)

true

b)

false

167.

In situ hybridization applications

a)

to identify expression of specific mRNAs in individual cells present in tissues containing a number of different cell types


can be used to show that insulin mRNA is produced only by the beta cells of the pancreas

b)

The detection of specific pathogenic microbes and the detection of particular genes

168.

Dot blotting or slot blotting


The dot blotting allows detection of a particular nucleic acid sequence in a sample

a)

true

b)

false

169.

dot blotting or slot blotting applications

a)

identify expression of specific mRNAs in individual cells present in tissues containing a number of different cell types

b)

The detection of specific pathogenic microbes and the detection of particular genes

c)

powerful tool for identifying and characterizing specific gene product

170.

The probes used in blotting and DNA hybridization can be obtained from a variety of sources including:

a)

cDNA

oligonucleotide probes

polymerase chain reaction

b)

zDNA

oligonucleotide probes

polymerase chain reaction

c)

cDNA

oligonucleotide probes

polymerase chain reaction

Heterologous probes

171.

labeling of probes

Nick-translation technique

a)

involves introducing single strand breaks (nicks) in the DNA

b)

involve incorporating a modified nucleotide precursor, such as dTTP, into the DNA by nick-translation

172.

Labeling of probes

enzyme-linked methods

a)

involves introducing single strand breaks (nicks) in the DNA

b)

involve incorporating a modified nucleotide precursor, such as dTTP, into the DNA by nick-translation

173.

DNA fingerprinting

a)

discovered by Alec Jefferys

human genome contains many microsatellite regions

repeated nucleotide sequences, all of which have a short common core sequence

b)

discovered by Griffith

human genome contains many microsatellite regions

repeated nucleotide sequences, all of which have a short common core sequence

c)

discovered by Alec Jefferys

human genome contains 1 microsatellite region

repeated nucleotide sequences, all of which have a short common core sequence

174.

DNA fingerprints applications

a)

biological evidence

personal identification

b)

diagnosis of inherited disorders

biological evidence

personal identification

c)

personal identification

175.

DNA sequencing

(Sanger)

a)

makes use of dideoxynucleotides, which have no -OH group at either C-2 or C-3 of ribose

A dideoxynucleoside triphosphate (ddNTP) can be added to a growing DNA chain

But since it lacks an -OH group at C-3 position it cannot form a phosphodiester bond with the next deoxynucleoside triphosphate (dNTP)

Dideoxynuleotide acts as a terminator at the site it occupies

b)

This technique is based on chemical degradation using different reagents to break the target DNA sequence into fragments at each point where a particular base occurs

176.

DNA sequencing (Maxam-Gilbert)

a)

This technique is based on chemical degradation using different reagents to break the target DNA sequence into fragments at each point where a particular base occurs

b)

makes use of dideoxynucleotides, which have no -OH group at either C-2 or C-3 of ribose

A dideoxynucleoside triphosphate (ddNTP) can be added to a growing DNA chain

But since it lacks an -OH group at C-3 position it cannot form a phosphodiester bond with the next deoxynucleoside triphosphate (dNTP)

Dideoxynuleotide acts as a terminator at the site it occupies

177.

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

a)

This technique for amplifying DNA sequences was developed by Mullis

b)

This technique for amplifying DNA sequences was developed by Tullis

c)

This technique for amplifying DNA sequences was developed by mark

178.

The PCR can be used on DNA or RNA fragments that are present at extremely low concentrations

a)

true

b)

false

179.

PCR is carried out at 3 stages with different temperature

a)

denaturation: above 90

annealing: 40-60

extension: 72

b)

denaturation: above 90

annealing: 40-60

extension: 80

c)

denaturation: above 62

annealing: 90

extension: 72

180.

taq polymerase is heat stable but does not possess proofreading properties

a)

true

b)

false

181.

restriction enzymes

a)

discovered by smith and nathans and arber

recognize and degrade DNA from foreign organisms

any DNA that enters the bacterial cell and is not methylated at those specific sites is subject to cleavage by restriction endonucleases

3 types

b)

discovered by smith and nathans and arber

recognize and degrade DNA from foreign organisms

any DNA that enters the bacterial cell and is not methylated at those specific sites is subject to cleavage by restriction endonucleases

2 types

c)

discovered by smith and nathans and arber

recognize and degrade DNA from foreign organisms

any DNA that enters the bacterial cell and is methylated at those specific sites is subject to cleavage by restriction endonucleases

3 types

182.

restriction enzymes

type 1

a)

requires ATP

cuts randomly

b)

requires ATP

cuts at specific sites

c)

cuts randomly

183.

restriction enzymes

type 3

a)

requires ATP

cuts at specific nucleotide site

b)

cuts at specific nucleotide site

c)

does not require ATP

cuts at specific nucleotide site

184.

restriction enzyme

type 2

a)

modify DNA by methylation

do not require ATP

cleave DNA at specific sites

reads the same forward or backward (palindromic)

ex refer

b)

do not modify DNA by methylation

do not require ATP

cleave DNA at specific sites

reads the same forward or backward (palindromic)

ex refer

c)

do not modify DNA by methylation

require ATP

cleave DNA at specific sites

reads the same forward or backward (palindromic)

ex refer

185.

DNA restriction fragments having sticky ends can be joined together with DNA ligase to create new combinations of DNA sequences

a)

true

b)

false

186.

restriction mapping

a)

involves binding the DNA with one or more of a series of different restriction enzymes and separating the resulting fragments according to size by agarose gel electrophoresis

b)

involves cutting the DNA with one or more of a series of different restriction enzymes and separating the resulting fragments according to size by agarose gel electrophoresis

187.

Restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLP)

a)

There are slight DNA sequence differences that occur from individual to individual

Once every 200 to 500 base pair

b)

There are slight DNA sequence differences that occur from individual to individual

188.

1-RFLP

a)

used to identify individuals

b)

used to screen for genetic diseases

189.

2-RFLP

a)

used to identify individuals

b)

used to screen for genetic diseases

190.

Nuclease S1, isolated from certain Neurospora and Aspergillus species This enzyme hydrolyzes single stranded DNA and RNA It is used to eliminate non-annealed polynucleotide tails and hair-pin loops in DNA RNA or DNA DNA duplexes in hybridization studies and in genetic recombination experiments

a)

true

b)

false

191.

Deoxyribonuclease (DNAse I)

a)

degrades randomly single-stranded DNA and double stranded DNA

No specific recognition site

This enzyme is used for limited digestion of DNA in a variety of molecular biology techniques,

b)

degrades randomly single-stranded DNA and double stranded DNA

specific recognition site

This enzyme is used for limited digestion of DNA in a variety of molecular biology techniques,

c)

degrades single-stranded DNA and double stranded DNA

No specific recognition site

This enzyme is used for limited digestion of DNA in a variety of molecular biology techniques,

192.

RNA sequencing


When RNA is to be sequenced, the method of choice is not to analyze RNA itself but to use the methods of DNA sequencing on a DNA complementary (cDNA) to the RNA in question The cDNA in turn is generated by using the enzyme reverse transcriptase The enzyme transcriptase catalyzes the synthesis of DNA from an RNA template

a)

true

b)

false

193.

DNA cloning

3 categories

a)

isolation

preparation

transfer

b)

preparation

transfer

deletion

c)

preparation

transfer

addition

194.

selection and detection


These genes do not act as markers for the vector One gene (e.g. amp) can be used to select for bacteria which form colonies on an agar base media containing the antibiotic, while non-transformed (amp-sensitive) cells would be killed The other gene (e.g. tet) can be used as not a marker for the recombinant plasmid vector

a)

true

b)

false

195.

cloning vector

a)

are short molecules

cut at multiple positions

must be replicated in host cell

do not include markers

b)

are long molecules

must be replicated in host cell

carry markers

c)

short molecules

cut at only one position

must be replicated in host cell

must carry markers

196.

DNA cloning

plasmids

a)

simplest cloning vectors

capable of autonomous replication

b)

most complicated cloning vectors

197.

DNA cloning

phages

a)

offer several disadvantages over plasmid vectors

carry larger fragments of DNA

b)

offer several advantages over plasmid vectors

carry larger fragments of DNA

198.

DNA cloning

Cosmids


must possess a 14kb sequence (cos) at each of its ends

must be separate by no more than 51 and no less than 36

reproduce in host bacteria as plasmids

a)

true

b)

false

199.

Transgenic animals brinster and palmiter

introduced a gene for rat growth hormone

increase = gigantism

decrease = dwarfism

a)

true

b)

false

200.

procedures for producing transgenic mammals


microinjection

a)

Cells from the blastocyst stage of early mouse embryos can be removed and grown in culture These are called embryonic stem (ES) cells and have the ability to differentiate into all other cell types ES can be genetically modified in the laboratory and returned to the blastocysts for implantation

b)

The injected eggs are then introduced into the oviduct of a recipient female or foster mother to develop This process is technically demanding and has a low success rate This is now the most widely used methods of producing transgenic animals

c)

The process of inactivating a specific gene in a mouse is called gene targeting

201.

procedures for producing transgenic mammals


embryonic stem cells

a)

Cells from the blastocyst stage of early mouse embryos can be removed and grown in culture These are called embryonic stem (ES) cells and have the ability to differentiate into all other cell types ES can be genetically modified in the laboratory and returned to the blastocysts for implantation

b)

The injected eggs are then introduced into the oviduct of a recipient female or foster mother to develop This process is technically demanding and has a low success rate This is now the most widely used methods of producing transgenic animals

c)

The process of inactivating a specific gene in a mouse is called gene targeting

202.

Procedures for producing transgenic mammals


creating knockout mice

a)

The injected eggs are then introduced into the oviduct of a recipient female or foster mother to develop This process is technically demanding and has a low success rate This is now the most widely used methods of producing transgenic animals

b)

The process of inactivating a specific gene in a mouse is called gene targeting,

c)

Cells from the blastocyst stage of early mouse embryos can be removed and grown in culture These are called embryonic stem (ES) cells and have the ability to differentiate into all other cell types ES can be genetically modified in the laboratory and returned to the blastocysts for implantation

203.

Procedure for producing transgenic plants


microprojectile bombardment:

a)

involves shooting DNA coated tungsten or gold particles into plant cells

b)

The Ti plasmid can be isolated from bacteria and linked with foreign genes to produce a recombinant plasmid that is taken up in culture by plant cells

c)

uses a short burst of electricity to get the DNA into the cell

204.

Procedure for producing transgenic plants


electroporation

a)

involves shooting DNA coated tungsten or gold particles into plant cells

b)

uses a short burst of electricity to get the DNA into the cell

c)

During an infection, the Ti plasmid is passed from bacterium into the plant cell where it becomes incorporated into plant cell’s chromosome The Ti plasmid can be isolated from bacteria and linked with foreign genes to produce a recombinant plasmid that is taken up in culture by plant cells

205.

Procedure for producing transgenic plants


agrobacterium tumefaciens-mediated transformation

a)

During an infection, the Ti plasmid is passed from bacterium into the plant cell where it becomes incorporated into plant cell’s chromosome The Ti plasmid can be isolated from bacteria and linked with foreign genes to produce a recombinant plasmid that is taken up in culture by plant cells

b)

involves shooting DNA coated tungsten or gold particles into plant cells

c)

uses a short burst of electricity to get the DNA into the cell

206.

Gene therapy


Gene therapy is the attempt to treat and possibly cure human disease, including genetic defects, cancer, diabetes etc.. with cloned genes

a)

true

b)

false

207.

Transcription in prokaryotes


Francis crick enunciated the central dogma of molecular biology

The transcription requires an enzyme known as DNA-dependent RNA polymerase (RNA polymerase)

A distinguishing feature of RNA polymerase is its ability to initiate chain growth without the need of a primer, unlike DNA polymerase

a)

true

b)

false

208.

Transcription Regulation in Prokaryotes

a)

operons regulate

b)

operons do not regulate