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Government Final

Total questions: 176

Worksheet time: 1hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
the power to decide the meaning of laws
a)
JUDICIAL POWERS
b)
EXECUTIVE POWERS
c)
Roe vs. Wade
d)
Planned Parenthood v. Casey
2.
the power to make laws
a)
LEGISLATIVE POWER
b)
JUDICIAL POWERS
c)
EXECUTIVE POWERS
d)
Roe vs. Wade
3.
protection against the arbitrary taking of life, liberty, or property
a)
DUE PROCESS
b)
LEGISLATIVE POWER
c)
JUDICIAL POWERS
d)
EXECUTIVE POWERS
4.
belief that the federal and state governments should share power equally
a)
Federalism
b)
DUE PROCESS
c)
LEGISLATIVE POWER
d)
JUDICIAL POWERS
5.
power of Congress to regulate trade
a)
Commerce Clause
b)
Federalism
c)
DUE PROCESS
d)
LEGISLATIVE POWER
6.
no state can draw unreasonable distinctions between its residents and those of other states
a)
PRIVILEGES & IMMUNITIES CLAUSE
b)
Commerce Clause
c)
Federalism
d)
DUE PROCESS
7.
declares that the Constitution is the "supreme law"
a)
SUPREMACY CLAUSE
b)
PRIVILEGES & IMMUNITIES CLAUSE
c)
Commerce Clause
d)
Federalism
8.
the right to vote
a)
SUFFRAGE
b)
SUPREMACY CLAUSE
c)
PRIVILEGES & IMMUNITIES CLAUSE
d)
Commerce Clause
9.
differences in the way men and women vote
a)
GENDER GAP
b)
SUFFRAGE
c)
SUPREMACY CLAUSE
d)
PRIVILEGES & IMMUNITIES CLAUSE
10.
campaign money given directly to a candidate
a)
HARD MONEY
b)
GENDER GAP
c)
SUFFRAGE
d)
SUPREMACY CLAUSE
11.
members of both houses working together
a)
CONFERENCE COMMITTEE
b)
HARD MONEY
c)
GENDER GAP
d)
SUFFRAGE
12.
political donations given to the party or a special-interest group
a)
SOFT MONEY
b)
CONFERENCE COMMITTEE
c)
HARD MONEY
d)
GENDER GAP
13.
belief in the application of precedent and the Framer's original intent
a)
JUDICIAL RESTRAINT
b)
SOFT MONEY
c)
CONFERENCE COMMITTEE
d)
HARD MONEY
14.
vote cast by electors in the electoral college
a)
ELECTORAL VOTE
b)
JUDICIAL RESTRAINT
c)
SOFT MONEY
d)
CONFERENCE COMMITTEE
15.
a proposed law
a)
BILL
b)
ELECTORAL VOTE
c)
JUDICIAL RESTRAINT
d)
SOFT MONEY
16.
a case involving a contract dispute
a)
CIVIL CASE
b)
BILL
c)
ELECTORAL VOTE
d)
JUDICIAL RESTRAINT
17.
failed because they gave more power to some states than to others
a)
ARTICLES OF CONFEDERATION
b)
CIVIL CASE
c)
BILL
d)
ELECTORAL VOTE
18.
the major agent of government change though not mentioned in the Constitution
a)
POLITICAL PARTIES
b)
ARTICLES OF CONFEDERATION
c)
CIVIL CASE
d)
BILL
19.
the national government's specific power, like coining money
a)
EXPRESSED POWER
b)
POLITICAL PARTIES
c)
ARTICLES OF CONFEDERATION
d)
CIVIL CASE
20.
ended poll taxes as a requirement to vote
a)
24TH AMENDMENT
b)
EXPRESSED POWER
c)
POLITICAL PARTIES
d)
ARTICLES OF CONFEDERATION
21.
abolished slavery as a result of the Civil War
a)
13TH AMENDMENT
b)
24TH AMENDMENT
c)
EXPRESSED POWER
d)
POLITICAL PARTIES
22.
necessary for ratification of an amendment to the Constitution
a)
THREE-FOURTHS VOTE OF STATE LEGISLATURES
b)
13TH AMENDMENT
c)
24TH AMENDMENT
d)
EXPRESSED POWER
23.
the government document used to determine how many seats a state will receive during reapportionment
a)
CENSUS
b)
THREE-FOURTHS VOTE OF STATE LEGISLATURES
c)
13TH AMENDMENT
d)
24TH AMENDMENT
24.
the result of television's influence in politics
a)
MAJOR PARTIES DOMINATE POLITICS
b)
CENSUS
c)
THREE-FOURTHS VOTE OF STATE LEGISLATURES
d)
13TH AMENDMENT
25.
the reason the framers believed a bicameral legislature was the best option
a)
MORE DEMOCRACTIC
b)
MAJOR PARTIES DOMINATE POLITICS
c)
CENSUS
d)
THREE-FOURTHS VOTE OF STATE LEGISLATURES
26.
what Congress must have to propose a Constitutional amendment
a)
TWO-THIRDS VOTE IN EACH HOUSE
b)
MORE DEMOCRACTIC
c)
MAJOR PARTIES DOMINATE POLITICS
d)
CENSUS
27.
The League of Women Voters would be an example of
a)
PUBLIC-INTEREST GROUPS
b)
TWO-THIRDS VOTE IN EACH HOUSE
c)
MORE DEMOCRACTIC
d)
MAJOR PARTIES DOMINATE POLITICS
28.
gives the president the power to carry out the laws.
a)
ARTICLE II OF THE CONSTITUTION
b)
PUBLIC-INTEREST GROUPS
c)
TWO-THIRDS VOTE IN EACH HOUSE
d)
MORE DEMOCRACTIC
29.
is the power of an executive authority to nullify or cancel specific provisions of a bill, usually a budget appropriations bill, without vetoing the entire legislative package.
a)
LINE-ITEM VETO
b)
ARTICLE II OF THE CONSTITUTION
c)
PUBLIC-INTEREST GROUPS
d)
TWO-THIRDS VOTE IN EACH HOUSE
30.
a 1896 Supreme Court decision which legalized state ordered segregation so long as the facilities for blacks and whites were equal
a)
PLESSY v FERGUSON
b)
LINE-ITEM VETO
c)
ARTICLE II OF THE CONSTITUTION
d)
PUBLIC-INTEREST GROUPS
31.
Opponents of the American Constitution at the time when the states were contemplating its adoption.
a)
Anti-Federalists
b)
PLESSY v FERGUSON
c)
LINE-ITEM VETO
d)
ARTICLE II OF THE CONSTITUTION
32.
the first basis for the new nation's government; adopted in 1781; created an alliance of sovereign states held together by a weak central government
a)
Articles of Confederation
b)
Anti-Federalists
c)
PLESSY v FERGUSON
d)
LINE-ITEM VETO
33.
a legislature with two houses, such as the U.S. Congress
a)
bicameral legislature
b)
Articles of Confederation
c)
Anti-Federalists
d)
PLESSY v FERGUSON
34.
the first ten amendments to the U.S. Constitution; most were designed to protect fundamental rights and liberties
a)
Bill of Rights
b)
bicameral legislature
c)
Articles of Confederation
d)
Anti-Federalists
35.
a system that allows one branch of government to limit the exercise of power by another branch; requires the different parts of government to work together
a)
checks and balances
b)
Bill of Rights
c)
bicameral legislature
d)
Articles of Confederation
36.
a document written in 1776 in which the American colonists proclaimed their independence from Great Britain and listed their grievances against the British king
a)
Declaration of Independence
b)
checks and balances
c)
Bill of Rights
d)
bicameral legislature
37.
the powers given explicitly to the federal government by the Constitution (Article I, Section 8); power to regulate interstate and foreign commerce, raise and support armies, declare war, coin money, and conduct foreign affairs
a)
enumerated powers
b)
Declaration of Independence
c)
checks and balances
d)
Bill of Rights
38.
a form of government in which power is divided between state governments and a national government
a)
federal system
b)
enumerated powers
c)
Declaration of Independence
d)
checks and balances
39.
those who supported ratification of the Constitution
a)
Federalists
b)
federal system
c)
enumerated powers
d)
Declaration of Independence
40.
a compromise between the Virginia Plan and the New Jersey Plan that created a two-house Congress; representation based on population in the House of Representatives and equal representation of states in the Senate
a)
Great Compromise
b)
Federalists
c)
federal system
d)
enumerated powers
41.
the right to life, liberty, and property; believed to be given by God; no government may take away
a)
natural rights
b)
Great Compromise
c)
Federalists
d)
federal system
42.
a plan that called for a one-house national legislature; each state would receive one vote
a)
New Jersey Plan
b)
natural rights
c)
Great Compromise
d)
Federalists
43.
a form of government in which political power rests in the hands of the people, not a monarch, and is exercised by elected representatives
a)
republic
b)
New Jersey Plan
c)
natural rights
d)
Great Compromise
44.
any powers not prohibited by the Constitution or delegated to the national government; powers reserved to the states and denied to the federal government
a)
reserved powers
b)
republic
c)
New Jersey Plan
d)
natural rights
45.
the sharing of powers among three separate branches of government
a)
separation of powers
b)
reserved powers
c)
republic
d)
New Jersey Plan
46.
an agreement between people and government in which citizens consent to be governed so long as the government protects their natural rights
a)
social contract
b)
separation of powers
c)
reserved powers
d)
republic
47.
the statement in Article VI of the Constitution that federal law is superior to laws passed by state legislatures
a)
supremacy clause
b)
social contract
c)
separation of powers
d)
reserved powers
48.
a collection of eighty-five essays written by Alexander Hamilton, James Madison, and John Jay in support of ratification of the Constitution
a)
The Federalist Papers
b)
supremacy clause
c)
social contract
d)
separation of powers
49.
a compromise between northern and southern states that called for counting of all a state's free population and 60 percent of its slave population for both federal taxation and representation in Congress
a)
Three-Fifths Compromise
b)
The Federalist Papers
c)
supremacy clause
d)
social contract
50.
a legislature with only one house, like the Confederation Congress or the legislature proposed by the New Jersey Plan
a)
unicameral legislature
b)
Three-Fifths Compromise
c)
The Federalist Papers
d)
supremacy clause
51.
the power of the president to reject a law proposed by Congress
a)
veto
b)
unicameral legislature
c)
Three-Fifths Compromise
d)
The Federalist Papers
52.
a plan for a two-house legislature; representatives would be elected to the lower house based on each state's population; representatives for the upper house would be chosen by the lower house
a)
Virginia Plan
b)
veto
c)
unicameral legislature
d)
Three-Fifths Compromise
53.
shared state and federal powers that range from taxing, borrowing, and making and enforcing laws to establishing court systems
a)
concurrent powers
b)
Virginia Plan
c)
veto
d)
unicameral legislature
54.
the last clause of Article I, Section 8, which enables the national government "to make all Laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying" out all its constitutional responsibilities
a)
elastic clause
b)
concurrent powers
c)
Virginia Plan
d)
veto
55.
a law that criminalizes an act retroactively; prohibited under the Constitution
a)
ex post facto law
b)
elastic clause
c)
concurrent powers
d)
Virginia Plan
56.
found in Article IV, Section 2, of the Constitution, this clause prohibits states from discriminating against out-of-staters by denying such guarantees as access to courts, legal protection, and property and travel rights
a)
privileges and immunities clause
b)
ex post facto law
c)
elastic clause
d)
concurrent powers
57.
a petition that enables someone in custody to petition a judge to determine whether that person's detention is legal
a)
writ of habeas corpus
b)
privileges and immunities clause
c)
ex post facto law
d)
elastic clause
58.
limitations on the power of government, designed to ensure personal freedoms
a)
civil liberties
b)
writ of habeas corpus
c)
privileges and immunities clause
d)
ex post facto law
59.
guarantees of equal treatment by government authorities
a)
civil rights
b)
civil liberties
c)
writ of habeas corpus
d)
privileges and immunities clause
60.
a prosecution pursued twice at the same level of government for the same criminal action
a)
double jeopardy
b)
civil rights
c)
civil liberties
d)
writ of habeas corpus
61.
provisions of the Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments that limit government power to deny people "life, liberty, or property" on an unfair basis
a)
due process clause
b)
double jeopardy
c)
civil rights
d)
civil liberties
62.
the provision of the First Amendment that prohibits the government from endorsing a state-sponsored religion; interpreted as preventing government from favoring some religious beliefs over others or religion over non-religion
a)
establishment clause
b)
due process clause
c)
double jeopardy
d)
civil rights
63.
a requirement, from Supreme Court case Mapp v. Ohio, that evidence obtained as a result of an illegal search or seizure cannot be used to try someone for a crime
a)
exclusionary rule
b)
establishment clause
c)
due process clause
d)
double jeopardy
64.
the provision of the First Amendment that prohibits the government from regulating religious beliefs and practices
a)
free exercise clause
b)
exclusionary rule
c)
establishment clause
d)
due process clause
65.
a statement by law enforcement officers informing a person arrested or subject to interrogation of his or her rights
a)
Miranda warning
b)
free exercise clause
c)
exclusionary rule
d)
establishment clause
66.
a law passed by Congress in the wake of the 9/11 attacks that broadened federal powers to monitor electronic communications; the full name is the USA PATRIOT Act (Uniting and Strengthening America by Providing Appropriate Tools Required to Intercept and Obstruct Terrorism Act)
a)
Patriot Act
b)
Miranda warning
c)
free exercise clause
d)
exclusionary rule
67.
a government action that stops someone from doing something before they are able to do it (e.g., forbidding someone to publish a book he or she plans to release)
a)
prior restraint
b)
Patriot Act
c)
Miranda warning
d)
free exercise clause
68.
legal standard for determining whether a search or seizure is constitutional or a crime has been committed; a lower threshold than the standard of proof needed at a criminal trial
a)
probable cause
b)
prior restraint
c)
Patriot Act
d)
Miranda warning
69.
the right to be free of government intrusion
a)
right to privacy
b)
probable cause
c)
prior restraint
d)
Patriot Act
70.
a legal document, signed by a judge, allowing police to search and/or seize persons or property
a)
search warrant
b)
right to privacy
c)
probable cause
d)
prior restraint
71.
the gradual process of making some guarantees of the Bill of Rights (so far) apply to state governments and the national government
a)
selective incorporation
b)
search warrant
c)
right to privacy
d)
probable cause
72.
an action or statement that admits guilt or responsibility for a crime
a)
self-incrimination
b)
selective incorporation
c)
search warrant
d)
right to privacy
73.
a form of expression that does not use writing or speech but nonetheless communicates an idea (e.g., wearing an article of clothing to show solidarity with a group)
a)
symbolic speech
b)
self-incrimination
c)
selective incorporation
d)
search warrant
74.
the use of programs and policies designed to assist groups that have historically been subject to discrimination
a)
affirmative action
b)
symbolic speech
c)
self-incrimination
d)
selective incorporation
75.
the Native American civil rights group responsible for the occupation of Wounded Knee, South Dakota, in 1973
a)
American Indian Movement (AIM)
b)
affirmative action
c)
symbolic speech
d)
self-incrimination
76.
laws passed immediately after the Civil War that discriminated against freed slaves and other Black people and deprived them of their rights
a)
Black codes
b)
American Indian Movement (AIM)
c)
affirmative action
d)
symbolic speech
77.
the 1954 Supreme Court ruling that struck down Plessy v. Ferguson and declared segregation and "separate but equal" to be unconstitutional in public education
a)
Brown v. Board of Education
b)
Black codes
c)
American Indian Movement (AIM)
d)
affirmative action
78.
an action taken in violation of the letter of the law to demonstrate that the law is unjust
a)
civil disobedience
b)
Brown v. Board of Education
c)
Black codes
d)
American Indian Movement (AIM)
79.
segregation that results from the private choices of individuals
a)
de facto segregation
b)
civil disobedience
c)
Brown v. Board of Education
d)
Black codes
80.
segregation that results from government discrimination
a)
de jure segregation
b)
de facto segregation
c)
civil disobedience
d)
Brown v. Board of Education
81.
a provision of the Fourteenth Amendment that requires the states to treat all residents equally under the law
a)
equal protection clause
b)
de jure segregation
c)
de facto segregation
d)
civil disobedience
82.
the proposed amendment to the Constitution that would have prohibited all discrimination based on sex
a)
Equal Rights Amendment (ERA)
b)
equal protection clause
c)
de jure segregation
d)
de facto segregation
83.
an invisible barrier caused by discrimination that prevents women from rising to the highest levels of an organization—including corporations, governments, academic institutions, and religious organizations
a)
glass ceiling
b)
Equal Rights Amendment (ERA)
c)
equal protection clause
d)
de jure segregation
84.
the provision in some southern states that allowed illiterate White people to vote because their ancestors had been able to vote before the Fifteenth Amendment was ratified
a)
grandfather clause
b)
glass ceiling
c)
Equal Rights Amendment (ERA)
d)
equal protection clause
85.
harassment, bullying, or other criminal acts directed against someone because of bias against that person's sex, gender, sexual orientation, religion, race, ethnicity, or disability
a)
hate crime
b)
grandfather clause
c)
glass ceiling
d)
Equal Rights Amendment (ERA)
86.
state and local laws that promoted racial segregation and undermined Black voting rights in the south after Reconstruction
a)
Jim Crow laws
b)
hate crime
c)
grandfather clause
d)
glass ceiling
87.
tests that required the prospective voter in some states to be able to read a passage of text and answer questions about it; often used as a way to disenfranchise racial or ethnic minorities
a)
literacy tests
b)
Jim Crow laws
c)
hate crime
d)
grandfather clause
88.
annual tax imposed by some states before a person was allowed to vote
a)
poll tax
b)
literacy tests
c)
Jim Crow laws
d)
hate crime
89.
the period from 1865 to 1877 during which the governments of Confederate states were reorganized prior to being readmitted to the Union
a)
Reconstruction
b)
poll tax
c)
literacy tests
d)
Jim Crow laws
90.
a bar in Greenwich Village, New York, where the modern Gay Pride movement began after rioters protested the police treatment of the LGBT community there
a)
Stonewall Inn
b)
Reconstruction
c)
poll tax
d)
literacy tests
91.
the section of the U.S. Education Amendments of 1972 that prohibits discrimination in education on the basis of sex
a)
Title IX
b)
Stonewall Inn
c)
Reconstruction
d)
poll tax
92.
the name given to the forced migration of the Cherokees from Georgia to Oklahoma in 1838-1839
a)
Trail of Tears
b)
Title IX
c)
Stonewall Inn
d)
Reconstruction
93.
an election poll taken by interviewing voters as they leave a polling place
a)
exit poll
b)
Trail of Tears
c)
Title IX
d)
Stonewall Inn
94.
a public opinion poll that measures a public's positive feelings about a candidate or politician
a)
favorability poll
b)
exit poll
c)
Trail of Tears
d)
Title IX
95.
day-to-day media coverage of candidate performance in the election
a)
horserace coverage
b)
favorability poll
c)
exit poll
d)
Trail of Tears
96.
a number that states how far the poll results may be from the actual preferences of the total population of citizens
a)
margin of error
b)
horserace coverage
c)
favorability poll
d)
exit poll
97.
a political ideology that prioritizes individual liberties, preferring a smaller government that stays out of the economy
a)
modern conservatism
b)
margin of error
c)
horserace coverage
d)
favorability poll
98.
a political ideology focused on equality and supporting government intervention in society and the economy if it promotes equality
a)
modern liberalism
b)
modern conservatism
c)
margin of error
d)
horserace coverage
99.
a collection of opinions of an individual or a group of individuals on a topic, person, or event
a)
public opinion
b)
modern liberalism
c)
modern conservatism
d)
margin of error
100.
politically biased campaign information presented as a poll in order to change minds
a)
push poll
b)
public opinion
c)
modern liberalism
d)
modern conservatism
101.
a limited number of people from the overall population selected in such a way that each has an equal chance of being chosen
a)
random sample
b)
push poll
c)
public opinion
d)
modern liberalism
102.
a group of respondents demographically similar to the population of interest
a)
representative sample
b)
random sample
c)
push poll
d)
public opinion
103.
an informal and unofficial election poll conducted with a non-random population
a)
straw poll
b)
representative sample
c)
random sample
d)
push poll
104.
the constitutionally created group of individuals, chosen by the states, with the responsibility of formally selecting the next U.S. president
a)
Electoral College
b)
straw poll
c)
representative sample
d)
random sample
105.
the advantage held by officeholders that allows them to often win reelection
a)
incumbency advantage
b)
Electoral College
c)
straw poll
d)
representative sample
106.
the current holder of a political office
a)
incumbent
b)
incumbency advantage
c)
Electoral College
d)
straw poll
107.
the congressional elections that occur in the even-numbered years between presidential election years, in the middle of the president's term
a)
midterm elections
b)
incumbent
c)
incumbency advantage
d)
Electoral College
108.
an election in which any registered voter may vote in any party's primary or caucus
a)
open primary
b)
midterm elections
c)
incumbent
d)
incumbency advantage
109.
the set of issues important to the political party and the party delegates
a)
platform
b)
open primary
c)
midterm elections
d)
incumbent
110.
organizations created to raise money for political campaigns and spend money to influence policy and politics
a)
political action committees (PACs)
b)
platform
c)
open primary
d)
midterm elections
111.
a campaign run by political action committees and other organizations without the coordination of the candidate
a)
shadow campaign
b)
political action committees (PACs)
c)
platform
d)
open primary
112.
officially known as Independent Expenditure-Only Committees; organizations that can fundraise and spend as they please to support or attack a candidate but not contribute directly to a candidate or strategize with a candidate's campaign
a)
super PACs
b)
shadow campaign
c)
political action committees (PACs)
d)
platform
113.
all electoral votes for a state are given to the candidate who wins the most votes in that state
a)
winner-take-all system
b)
super PACs
c)
shadow campaign
d)
political action committees (PACs)
114.
a government action that stops someone from doing something before they are able to do it (e.g., forbidding someone to publish a book he or she plans to release)
a)
prior restraint
b)
winner-take-all system
c)
super PACs
d)
shadow campaign
115.
printed information about a person or organization that is not true and harms the reputation of the person or organization
a)
libel
b)
prior restraint
c)
winner-take-all system
d)
super PACs
116.
the collection of all media forms that communicate information to the general public
a)
mass media
b)
libel
c)
prior restraint
d)
winner-take-all system
117.
an FCC policy that all candidates running for office must be given the same radio and television airtime opportunities
a)
equal-time rule
b)
mass media
c)
libel
d)
prior restraint
118.
the media's ability to choose which issues or topics get attention
a)
agenda setting
b)
equal-time rule
c)
mass media
d)
libel
119.
a process of cooperation through compromise
a)
bipartisanship
b)
agenda setting
c)
equal-time rule
d)
mass media
120.
the manipulation of legislative districts in an attempt to favor a particular candidate
a)
gerrymandering
b)
bipartisanship
c)
agenda setting
d)
equal-time rule
121.
the legislative party with over half the seats in a legislative body, and thus significant power to control the agenda
a)
majority party
b)
gerrymandering
c)
bipartisanship
d)
agenda setting
122.
the legislative party with less than half the seats in a legislative body
a)
minority party
b)
majority party
c)
gerrymandering
d)
bipartisanship
123.
an individual who falls in the middle of the ideological spectrum
a)
moderate
b)
minority party
c)
majority party
d)
gerrymandering
124.
the formal structure of the political party and the active members responsible for coordinating party behavior and supporting party candidates
a)
party organization
b)
moderate
c)
minority party
d)
majority party
125.
the collection of a party's positions on issues it considers politically important
a)
party platform
b)
party organization
c)
moderate
d)
minority party
126.
organizations made up of groups of people with similar interests that try to directly influence public policy through their members who seek and hold public office
a)
political parties
b)
party platform
c)
party organization
d)
moderate
127.
the reallocation of House seats between the states to account for population changes
a)
reapportionment
b)
political parties
c)
party platform
d)
party organization
128.
the redrawing of electoral maps
a)
redistricting
b)
reapportionment
c)
political parties
d)
party platform
129.
political parties formed as an alternative to the Republican and Democratic parties, also known as minor parties
a)
third parties
b)
redistricting
c)
reapportionment
d)
political parties
130.
a system in which two major parties win all or almost all elections
a)
two-party system
b)
third parties
c)
redistricting
d)
reapportionment
131.
was a 2010 Supreme Court case that granted corporations and unions the right to spend unlimited amounts of money on elections
a)
Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission
b)
two-party system
c)
third parties
d)
redistricting
132.
three-way relationship among congressional committees, interests groups, and the bureaucracy
a)
iron triangle
b)
Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission
c)
two-party system
d)
third parties
133.
the process by which seats in the House of Representatives are distributed among the fifty states
a)
apportionment
b)
iron triangle
c)
Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission
d)
two-party system
134.
proposed legislation under consideration by a legislature
a)
bill
b)
apportionment
c)
iron triangle
d)
Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission
135.
a parliamentary process to end a debate in the Senate, as a measure against the filibuster; invoked when three-fifths of senators vote for the motion
a)
cloture
b)
bill
c)
apportionment
d)
iron triangle
136.
the relationship between Congress and the United States as a whole, and whether the institution itself represents the American people
a)
collective representation
b)
cloture
c)
bill
d)
apportionment
137.
a special type of joint committee that reconciles different bills passed in the House and Senate so a single bill results
a)
conference committee
b)
collective representation
c)
cloture
d)
bill
138.
the body of voters, or constituents, represented by a particular politician
a)
constituency
b)
conference committee
c)
collective representation
d)
cloture
139.
a parliamentary maneuver used in the Senate to extend debate on a piece of legislation as long as possible, typically with the intended purpose of obstructing or killing it
a)
filibuster
b)
constituency
c)
conference committee
d)
collective representation
140.
the powers not specifically detailed in the U.S. Constitution but inferred as necessary to achieve the objectives of the national government
a)
implied powers
b)
filibuster
c)
constituency
d)
conference committee
141.
a legislative committee consisting of members from both chambers that investigates certain topics but lacks bill referral authority
a)
joint committee
b)
implied powers
c)
filibuster
d)
constituency
142.
the leader of the majority party in either the House or Senate; in the House, the majority leader serves under the Speaker of the House, in the Senate, the majority leader is the functional leader and chief spokesperson for the majority party
a)
majority leader
b)
joint committee
c)
implied powers
d)
filibuster
143.
the party member who directs the activities of the minority party on the floor of either the House or the Senate
a)
minority leader
b)
majority leader
c)
joint committee
d)
implied powers
144.
the senator who acts in the absence of the actual president of the Senate, who is also the vice president of the United States; the president pro tempore is usually the most senior senator of the majority party
a)
president pro tempore
b)
minority leader
c)
majority leader
d)
joint committee
145.
an elected leader's looking out for his or her constituents while carrying out the duties of the office
a)
representation
b)
president pro tempore
c)
minority leader
d)
majority leader
146.
a small legislative committee created to fulfill a specific purpose and then disbanded; also called an ad hoc, or special, committee
a)
select committee
b)
representation
c)
president pro tempore
d)
minority leader
147.
the presiding officer of the House of Representatives and the leader of the majority party; the Speaker is second in the presidential line of succession, after the vice president
a)
Speaker of the House
b)
select committee
c)
representation
d)
president pro tempore
148.
a permanent legislative committee that meets regularly
a)
standing committee
b)
Speaker of the House
c)
select committee
d)
representation
149.
in the House and in the Senate, a high leadership position whose primary duty is to enforce voting discipline in the chambers and conferences
a)
whip
b)
standing committee
c)
Speaker of the House
d)
select committee
150.
Theodore Roosevelt's notion of the presidency as a platform from which the president could push an agenda
a)
bully pulpit
b)
whip
c)
standing committee
d)
Speaker of the House
151.
a group of advisors to the president, consisting of the most senior appointed officers of the executive branch who head the fifteen executive departments
a)
cabinet
b)
bully pulpit
c)
whip
d)
standing committee
152.
an international agreement between the president and another country made by the executive branch and without formal consent by the Senate
a)
executive agreement
b)
cabinet
c)
bully pulpit
d)
whip
153.
the administrative organization that reports directly to the president and made up of important offices, units, and staff of the current president and headed by the White House chief of staff
a)
Executive Office of the President
b)
executive agreement
c)
cabinet
d)
bully pulpit
154.
a rule or order issued by the president without the cooperation of Congress and having the force of law
a)
executive order
b)
Executive Office of the President
c)
executive agreement
d)
cabinet
155.
the president's right to withhold information from Congress, the judiciary, or the public
a)
executive privilege
b)
executive order
c)
Executive Office of the President
d)
executive agreement
156.
the act of charging a government official with serious wrongdoing, which in some cases may lead to the removal of that official from office
a)
impeachment
b)
executive privilege
c)
executive order
d)
Executive Office of the President
157.
literally a "friend of the court" and used for a brief filed by someone who is interested in but not party to a case
a)
amicus curiae
b)
impeachment
c)
executive privilege
d)
executive order
158.
a court that reviews cases already decided by a lower or trial court and that may change the lower court's decision
a)
appellate court
b)
amicus curiae
c)
impeachment
d)
executive privilege
159.
the highest-ranking justice on the Supreme Court
a)
chief justice
b)
appellate court
c)
amicus curiae
d)
impeachment
160.
the appeals (appellate) courts of the federal court system that review decisions of the lower (district) courts; also called courts of appeals
a)
circuit courts
b)
chief justice
c)
appellate court
d)
amicus curiae
161.
a non-criminal law defining private rights and remedies
a)
civil law
b)
circuit courts
c)
chief justice
d)
appellate court
162.
a law that prohibits actions that could harm or endanger others, and establishes punishment for those actions
a)
criminal law
b)
civil law
c)
circuit courts
d)
chief justice
163.
a judicial philosophy in which a justice is more likely to overturn decisions or rule actions by the other branches unconstitutional, especially in an attempt to broaden individual rights and liberties
a)
judicial activism
b)
criminal law
c)
civil law
d)
circuit courts
164.
a judicial philosophy in which a justice is more likely to let stand the decisions or actions of the other branches of government
a)
judicial restraint
b)
judicial activism
c)
criminal law
d)
civil law
165.
the power of the courts to review actions taken by the other branches of government and the states and to rule on whether those actions are constitutional
a)
judicial review
b)
judicial restraint
c)
judicial activism
d)
criminal law
166.
the 1803 Supreme Court case that established the courts' power of judicial review and the first time the Supreme Court ruled an act of Congress to be unconstitutional
a)
Marbury v. Madison
b)
judicial review
c)
judicial restraint
d)
judicial activism
167.
the principles or guidelines established by courts in earlier cases that frame the ongoing operation of the courts, steering the direction of the entire system
a)
precedent
b)
Marbury v. Madison
c)
judicial review
d)
judicial restraint
168.
a Supreme Court custom in which a case will be heard when four justices decide to do so
a)
Rule of Four
b)
precedent
c)
Marbury v. Madison
d)
judicial review
169.
an order of the Supreme Court calling up the records of the lower court so a case may be reviewed; sometimes abbreviated cert.
a)
writ of certiorari
b)
Rule of Four
c)
precedent
d)
Marbury v. Madison
170.
One man, one vote. Ordered state legislative districts to be as near equal as possible in population; Warren Court's judicial activism.
a)
Baker v. Carr
b)
writ of certiorari
c)
Rule of Four
d)
precedent
171.
NO racial gerrymandering; race cannot be the sole or predominant factor in redrawing legislative boundaries; majority-minority districts.
a)
Shaw v. Reno
b)
Baker v. Carr
c)
writ of certiorari
d)
Rule of Four
172.
Maryland tried to destroy a branch of the National Bank. Marshall stops this by using the doctrine of implied powers. This case showed that it was possible to sue a state.
a)
MucCulloch v. Maryland
b)
Shaw v. Reno
c)
Baker v. Carr
d)
writ of certiorari
173.
banned formal prayer in schools, government should not make any religion the 'official' religion.
a)
Engel v. Vitale
b)
MucCulloch v. Maryland
c)
Shaw v. Reno
d)
Baker v. Carr
174.
Students have the right to symbolic speech at school as long as it is not disruptive
a)
Tinker v. Des Moines
b)
Engel v. Vitale
c)
MucCulloch v. Maryland
d)
Shaw v. Reno
175.
Reaffirmed Roe v. Wade but upheld certain limits on its use
a)
Planned Parenthood v. Casey
b)
Tinker v. Des Moines
c)
Engel v. Vitale
d)
MucCulloch v. Maryland
176.
the U.S. supreme Court ruled that there is a fundamental right to privacy, which includes a woman's decision to have an abortion. Up until the third trimester the state allows abortion.
a)
Roe vs. Wade
b)
Planned Parenthood v. Casey
c)
Tinker v. Des Moines
d)
Engel v. Vitale