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Worksheets

Week 18 FINAL - Bio

Total questions: 233

Worksheet time: 3hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the name of the structure labeled #10?
a)
objective lens
b)
ocular lens
c)
aperture
d)
nosepeice
2.
What is the function of the structure labeled #10?
a)
controls amount of light that passes through the slide
b)
it is used to change the magnification of the object
c)
it holds that slide in place
d)
it is used to carry the microscope
3.
What is the name of the structure labeled #4?
a)
stage
b)
course adjustment knob
c)
fine adjustment knob
d)
aperture
4.
What is wrong this how the student is carrying the microscope in the image?
a)
They are using two hands.
b)
They are carrying it close to their body.
c)
The plug is not wrapped around the base.
d)
They are walking. 
5.

What piece supports the body tube and is also used to transport the microscope from one place to another, along with the base?

a)

Arm

b)

Stage

c)

Aperture

d)

Objective

6.

What piece is the platform that supports the microscope slide?

a)

Base

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Stage Clips

d)

Stage

7.

What piece is a hole in the stage that allows light to pass through the slide?

a)

Aperture

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Light Source

d)

Stage

8.

What piece controls the amount of light that enters the microscope ?

a)

Aperture

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Light Source

d)

Arm

9.

What piece is the smaller knob, found near the course adjustment knob, and is used to focus the image under low and high power?

a)

Aperture

b)

Fine Adjustment Knob

c)

Diaphragm

d)

Course Adjustment Know

10.

What should you use to clean the microscope?

a)

Only lens paper

b)

Only tissue paper

c)

Only paper towels

d)

Only Windex

11.
When looking at a specimen on your slide, you should always start with the
a)
low objective lens
b)
medium objective lens
c)
high objective lens
12.

What kind of microscope do we use in the classroom?

a)

Compound Light Microscope

b)

Scanning Electron Microscope

c)

Transferring Electron Microscope

d)

Compound Dark Microscope

13.
What does DNA stand for?
a)
Deoxyribonucleic acid
b)
Denitrogenous acid
c)
Deribonucleic acid
d)
Diribonucleic acid
14.
DNA is a polymer made of:
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Purines
d)
Pyrimidines
15.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
16.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
17.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
ribosome
d)
nucleus
18.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
19.
What will the matching sequence be on a strand that reads AAGCTAT?
a)
AACGATA
b)
TTCGTTA
c)
CCTGATA
d)
TTCGATA
20.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
21.
DNA codes for...
a)
bases
b)
proteins
c)
amino acids
d)
phosphates
22.
__________________ is a change in the nucleotide base sequence of DNA.
a)
switch
b)
eraser
c)
creation
d)
mutation
23.
How does RNA differ from DNA?
a)
RNA contains uracil and deoxyribose
b)
RNA contains ribose and thymine
c)
RNA contains uracil and ribose
d)
RNA contains adenine and ribose
24.
How would the DNA sequence GCTATA be transcribed to mRNA?
a)
GCUAUA
b)
CGATAT
c)
CGAUAU
d)
GCUTUT
25.
The process by which the genetic code of DNA is copied into a strand of RNA is called
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
transformation
d)
replication
26.

What is the correct order to make a protein?

a)

Protein, DNA, RNA

b)

RNA, DNA, Protein

c)

DNA, RNA, Protein

d)

Protein, RNA, DNA

27.

RNA has what base that is instead of thymine?

a)

guanine

b)

adenine

c)

thymine

d)

uracil

28.

Which RNA carries the message?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

29.
Where does transcription take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
ribosome
30.

Why must transcription occur where DNA can be found?

a)

because DNA can't leave

b)

because ribosomes are in the nucleus

c)

because DNA polymerase is found there

d)

because helicase unzips the DNA

31.

TRANSCRIBE this DNA sequence: TACGTTACT

a)

AUGCAAUGA

b)

ATGCAATGA

c)

AUGGATUGA

d)

TACGTTACT

32.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
33.

DNA and RNA are which type of macromolecule?

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

nucleic acid

d)

protein

34.

mRNA is read into amino acids during what process?

a)

transcription

b)

transfer

c)

translation

d)

transition

35.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
36.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
37.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
38.
What process is going on in this photo? 
a)
Transcription 
b)
Translation 
c)
Replication 
d)
All the above 
39.
What is the location in the cell for translation?
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
ribosome
d)
chloroplast
40.
How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:
ATG GGA ACT CCA
a)
4
b)
2
c)
6
d)
12
41.
What is the three base sequence of mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
42.
The mRNA leaves the ________ to find the ribosome to make proteins.
a)
cell
b)
nucleotide
c)
nucleus
43.

A small organelle in the cell on which proteins are assembled, It is a type of protein.

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Ribosome

c)

Nucleus

d)

Lysosome

44.
Which statement is describing the process of protein synthesis?
a)
DNA is copied into mRNA which is translated into protein
b)
DNA is copied into DNA
c)
DNA is copied into lysosome
45.
DNA sequence ACCTG produces which mRNA strand? 
a)
UGGAC
b)
TGGAC
c)
GTCCA
46.
Contains the bases adenine, uracil, cytosine and guanine
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Both
47.

Transcribe the following DNA strand: CTG AAT

a)

GAC TTA

b)

CTG AAT

c)

GAC UUA

d)

CUG AAU

48.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
49.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
50.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
51.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
52.
What is the difference between DNA and RNA in terms of bases?
a)
RNA contains uracil in place of thymine
b)
RNA contains uracil in place of adenine
c)
RNA contains uracil in place of guanine
d)
RNA contains uracil in place of  cytosine
53.
Which type of RNA takes the instructions from the nucleus to the cytoplasm?
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
RNA polymerase
54.
How many nucleotides make a codon?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
6
55.
In eukaryotes, molecule 1 is found in
a)
ribosomes
b)
chloroplasts
c)
cytoplasm
d)
the nucleus
56.

The long string of bases at the bottom of the diagram is

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

an anticodon

d)

an amino acid

57.

Transfer RNA is indicated by which structure in the diagram?

a)
b)
c)
d)
58.

The multicolor string of spheres represents

a)

a sugar

b)

a protein

c)

a nitrogen base

d)

phosphate group

59.

The job of the "t-shaped" molecule in this diagram is to

a)

copy the genetic code from DNA

b)

bring amino acids to the ribosome so they can be made into a protein

c)

bring the code from DNA in the nucleus to the ribosome in the cytoplasm

d)

synthesize amino acids

60.

What enzyme in the nucleus helps mRNA form?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

pepsin

d)

nuclease

61.
This trait always shows up in an organism when the allele is present
a)
dominant allele
b)
codominance
c)
probability
d)
recessive allele
62.
This trait is hidden whenever the dominant allele is present
a)
dominant allele
b)
codominance
c)
recessive allele
d)
Punnett Square
63.
A chart that shows all the possible combinations of alleles that can result from a genetic cross
a)
dominant allele
b)
codominance
c)
probability
d)
Punnett Square
64.
An organism's physical appearance or visible traits
a)
fertilization
b)
genotype
c)
phenotype
d)
homozygous
65.
An organism's genetic makeup, or allele combination
a)
fertilization
b)
genotype
c)
phenotype
d)
heterozygous
66.
An organism that has two different alleles for a trait (hybrid)
a)
fertilization
b)
genotype
c)
homozygous
d)
heterozygous
67.
An organism that has two identical alleles for a trait (purebred)
a)
genotype
b)
phenotype
c)
homozygous
d)
heterozygous
68.
The different forms of a gene
a)
heredity
b)
genetics
c)
gene
d)
alleles
69.

Two parents have type O blood. What will the blood type of their children be?

a)

O

b)

They can have all four types of blood

c)

Either A or O

d)

AB

70.

Which of the following is an example of incomplete dominance?

a)

A red cow and a white bull have a red and white spotted calf.

b)

Human ABO blood types

c)

A red flowering plant and a white flowering plant have pink flowered offspring.

d)

A tall plant and a short plant have tall offspring.

71.

In peas, yellow pod color is dominant to green pod color. Two heterozygous parents are crossed. What are the chances that the offspring will have green pods?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

72.

In peas, yellow pod color is dominant to green pod color. Two homozygous dominant parents are crossed. What are the chances that the offspring will have green pods?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

73.

In peas, yellow pod color is dominant to green pod color. A heterozygous parent is crossed with a homozygous recessive plant. What are the chances that the offspring will have green pods?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

74.

A woman has type AB blood and her husband has type O blood. The doctor tells them their child has type O blood. She thinks this is very strange. Why?

a)

She can't be the mother of a type O child.

b)

Her husband can't be the father of a type O child.

c)

Type O blood is very rare.

d)

There's nothing strange about it.

75.

If a man is color blind, can he pass the trait on to his sons?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Only if his mother was color blind.

d)

Only if his father was color blind.

76.

Male patterned baldness is a recessive sex linked trait. How can a woman have it?

a)

A woman can have it if she has two alleles for it.

b)

A woman can have it if her father had it.

c)

A woman can have it if she has one allele for it.

d)

A woman can't have male patterned baldness.

77.

In a dihybrid cross, how many boxes does the punnet square need to have?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

8

d)

16

78.

In horses, coat color has incomplete dominance. A horse with one allele for black coat and one allele for cream coat will have the color known as buckskin. If two buckskin horses have a baby, what are the potential coat colors it could have.

a)

It can only be buckskin.

b)

It will be either buckskin or cream colored.

c)

It will be either black or cream.

d)

It could have any of the three possible coat colors.

79.

Two pea plants are crossed that are heterozygous for both height and flower color. Tall is dominant to short and purple is dominant to white. What is the phenotypic ratio of the children.

a)

9:3:3:1

b)

10:2:2:2

c)

5:4:4:3

d)

6:6:2:2

80.

A white flowered plant is crossed with a red flowered plant. The two traits have codominance. What color are the offspring?

a)

Red

b)

White

c)

Red and white spotted

d)

Pink

81.
The pH scale is a range from:
a)
1-7
b)
0-14
c)
1-5
d)
1-20
82.
A(n) ______ is a substance with a pH less than 7
a)
Acid
b)
Alkaline
c)
Base
d)
Buffer
83.
A(n) _______ is a substance with a pH greater than 7.
a)
Base
b)
Acid
c)
Buffer
d)
Water
84.

A base is a substance

a)

That releases OH- ions when dissolved in water

b)

That releases H+ ions when dissolved in water

c)

Does not release any ions when dissolved in water

d)

None of the above

85.

An acid

a)

is a substance that releases H+ ions when dissolved in water

b)

is a substance that does not release any ions when dissolved in water

c)

is a substance that releases OH- when dissolved in water

d)

releases an equal amount of OH- and H+ ions when dissolved in water

86.

Water has a neutral pH because

a)

it has more H+ ions than OH-

b)

it has more OH- ions than H+

c)

it does not produce any ions

d)

it has an equal amount of H+ and OH- in solution

87.
A solution has a pH of 7.0.  What would happen to the pH if H ions were added?
a)
pH would go up
b)
pH would go down
c)
pH would stay the same
d)
None of these
88.
A solution has a pH of 7.0.  What would happen to the pH if OH ions were added?
a)
pH would go up
b)
pH would go down
c)
pH would stay the same
d)
None of these
89.
A solution has a pH of 7.0.  What would happen to the pH if OH ions were added?
a)
pH would go up
b)
pH would go down
c)
pH would stay the same
d)
None of these
90.

Bright Red pH indicator indicates that the solution is a(n)

a)

Base

b)

Acid

91.

Dark blue pH indicator indicates that the solution is a(n)

a)

Base

b)

Acid

92.
A  pH and a pOH will add up to:
a)
0
b)
7
c)
14
d)
1.0 x 10-14
93.

If a solution has a hydroxide (OH-) ion concentration of 6 what is the Hydronium (H+) concentration?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

9

94.

If a solution has a hydroxide (OH-) ion concentration of 6 what is the pH?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

9

95.

According to the video, H+ and H3O+ are symbols essentially representing the same idea.

a)

True

b)

False

96.
At one point in time, many people thought disease was caused by fate or by incorrect behavior. Following the invention of the microscope, bacteria were discovered. After this, a new theory of what causes disease arose that was known as the germ theory.  Why was the original theory modified? 
a)
It quickly became obvious that germs cause disease.
b)
The person who invented the microscope became ill.
c)
New evidence prompted revision to the original ideas.
d)
The proponents of the germ theory had political power.
97.
Joe tells Mai his theory about why sea turtles nest on the beach instead of in the ocean. He says, “The turtle eggs would sink to the bottom of the ocean, and the baby turtles would drown.” Joe says his uncle is a fisherman, who told Joe this information. Mai tells Joe that his theory is not scientific. Which explanation supports Mai’s evaluation of Joe’s theory?
a)
Joe’s idea is already a scientific law. 
b)
Joe’s idea is not supported by scientific evidence. 
c)
Joe’s idea is a good guess that can be tested by experiments. 
d)
Joe’s idea accurately explains why sea turtles nest on the beach. 
98.
Scientists discuss and debate experimental results and possible explanations in studying phenomena. Which best explains why scientists debate while searching for explanations?
a)
because debating helps scientists focus on empirical evidence, analyzing both the strengths and weaknesses of the evidence
b)
because debating helps the scientific community to present interesting and exciting science to the public
c)
because debating gives scientists an opportunity to express their feelings and opinions about the subject
d)
because every scientist wants to find an accurate explanation and disprove others’ explanations
99.
Unprotected exposure to the sun’s rays is a factor in the development of skin cancer. Which   of the following is an example of empirical evidence that supports this hypothesis?
a)
a model of a skin cell showing where DNA is in the cell
b)
a skin cancer survivor’s recollection that he had a bad sunburn as a child
c)
data demonstrating a relationship between amount of sun exposure and incidences of skin cancer
d)
an advertisement for a sun block product that claims it protects skin for ultraviolet rays
100.
Which explanation best describes why theories can change?
a)
Scientists like to make kids learn new things
b)
Textbooks need to be updated
c)
More money is needed for research
d)
Scientists are always learning new things.
101.

When trying to get accurate information it is best to...

a)

Use multiple credible sources

b)

Use one single, credible source

c)

Use as many sources as possible, even if they are unreliable

d)

Not use any sources

102.

Which of the following are good steps to take when you encounter something online that you’re unsure about:

a)

Do a quick web search to see if other credible sources of information are reporting the same thing

b)

Assume that if your info is posted online, it had to be well-checked so it's credible

c)

If there are photos, it's automatically more authentic news

d)

Post the story on social media and crowdsource an opinion

103.
Where do most teens get their news from?
a)
Newspapers
b)
TV
c)
Parents or family
d)
Social Media
104.
Why is fake news a problem?
a)
The public is getting misinformation
b)
Most people who see fake news believe it's actual news
c)
Fake news often looks like real news
d)
all of the above
105.

Which of the following are ways to be sure that you should do to best choose your news?

a)

only trust .com URLs

b)

give it time- wait to see how a story develops

c)

only get news from sources where you know the media bias

d)

check other social media accounts

106.

If the speaker is a celebrity, you can believe what they are saying is valid and true.

a)

true

b)

false

107.

In the Dark Ages, how were books produced?

a)

Books were not produced in the dark ages.

b)

Books were carved into stone tablets.

c)

Books were copied by hand by people known as monks.

d)

Books were copied by hand by women who were imprisoned.

108.

The Gutenberg printing press truly changed the world. Which answer best summarizes how the invention of the printing press leads to world change?

a)

The Gutenberg printing press allows schools to begin teaching reading.

b)

The Gutenberg printing press allows for the development of an alphabet. Before the printing press, people only wrote in hieroglyphs.

c)

The Gutenberg printing press allowed for mass production of books, leading to an explosion of ideas being shared.

d)

The Gutenberg press was used to mass-produce the bible, which led to an expansion of religious ideas.

109.

Beyond the Gutenberg printing press, there were four major revolutions in communication. The development of the Gutenberg press was the first major revolution, what is the last?

a)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of TV.

b)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of t cellular phones in the 1980s.

c)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of social media and electronic technology for idea-sharing.

d)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of live radio broadcasting.

110.
You should be skeptical of media.  Skeptical means
a)
doubtful
b)
daring
c)
deceiving
d)
delighted
111.
Which phrase MOST accurately describes the relationship between bias and media? 
a)
If a piece of media is biased, it has no value
b)
bias can be avoided easily
c)
biased media is more interesting
d)
all media has a bias
112.
Thinking that does not blindly accept arguments and conclusions. Rather, it examines assumptions, discerns hidden values, evaluates evidence, and assesses conclusions.
a)
Absolute Thinking 
b)
Genius Thinking 
c)
Critical Thinking 
d)
Awesome Thinking 
113.

Which of the following units provides the best measure for the amount of space that matter occupies (volume)?

a)

mL

b)

grams

c)

cm3

d)

Both mL and cm3

114.

Density =

a)

Mass x Volume

b)

Volume x Mass

c)

Mass / Volume

d)

Volume / Mass

115.
What is the density of water?
a)
1 mL
b)
1 gram
c)
1 g/cm3
d)
All of the above
116.

When a metal mailbox is rusting because of the weather, the rust is an example of

a)

a physical change

b)

a chemical change

c)

magnetism

d)

texture

117.

When a hammer breaks a large rock into smaller pieces, the broken rock is an example of

a)

a physical change

b)

a chemical change

c)

solubility

d)

density

118.

Properties of matter that can be measured or observed without changing the basic nature of the matter.

a)

Chemical properties

b)

property

c)

matter

d)

Physical properties

119.

A property of matter that can only be observed by changing the basic nature of the matter (e.g. combustibility)

a)

physical property

b)

physical change

c)

chemical change

d)

chemical property

120.
Where are electrons of an atom found?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Electron Cloud
c)
Some are in the nucleus and some in the electron cloud.
d)
They are moving everywhere.
121.
Which of the following is a positively charged subatomic particle found in the nucleus of an atom?
a)
Electron
b)
Proton
c)
Neutron
d)
Quark
122.
What carries no charge 
a)
Neutrons
b)
Electrons
c)
Protons
123.

Which is the smallest particle of an atom?

a)

electron

b)

proton

c)

atom

d)

neutron

124.
The negatively charged particles of an atom are the ______.
a)
electrons
b)
protons
c)
neutrons
d)
protons & neutrons
125.
Which two particles make up the nucleus of an atom?
a)
Protons and Electrons
b)
Protons and Neutrons
c)
Molecules and Compounds
d)
Neutrons and Electrons
126.

What is the atomic number?

a)

35

b)

18

c)

17

d)

52

127.
Which is an electron?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
128.

After mixing two substances you notice some bubbling has occurred. What can you infer about this interaction?

a)

It's a chemical reaction

b)

It's a physical reaction

c)

It's a magical reaction

d)

It's a physical change

129.

When moving a metal bar next to some iron shavings you notice that the iron shavings stick to the metal bar. This is an example of what property of matter?

a)

Magnetism

b)

Electricity

c)

Chemical Reaction

d)

Plasma

130.

Electricity was summarized in class by the _________ of electrons.

a)

Flow

b)

Waves

c)

Particles

d)

Field

131.

Light, electricity and magnetism are all part of the electromagnetic spectrum.

a)

True

b)

False

132.

Which of the following statements is an observation. (Checkboxes mean there may be more than 1 correct answer)

a)

The light got brighter

b)

The light is powered by electricity

c)

The electrons are flowing through the light bulb.

d)

The light got dimmer

133.
This organelle acts like a gatekeeper, allowing some materials to pass through it, but not others. 
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Vacuole
134.
This organelle is a gel-like fluid that takes up most of the space inside the cell. 
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Vacuole
d)
Golgi Body
135.
Some viruses attack cells by inserting their own DNA into the host cell's DNA. Why might it be simpler for these viruses to attack prokaryotic cells than eukaryotic cells?
a)
prokaryotic cells have less DNA than do eukaryotic cells.
b)
Unlike eukaryotic cells, prokaryotic cells do not have a nucleus.
c)
The cell wall in prokaryotic cells is a less effective barrier.
d)
The rapid growth of prokaryotic cells generates more viruses.
136.
Which of the following is a function of the Golgi apparatus?
a)
storing genetic information
b)
recycling waste products of the cell
c)
providing a protective barrier
d)
processing and storing proteins
137.
The graph shows the number of mitochondria in breast muscles of different birds. Which statement best explains these data?
a)
The number of mitochondria in chickens would be higher if they could fly.
b)
The chicken breast muscle requires the greatest amount of energy per cell.
c)
The energy requirement of pigeon breast muscle is low.
d)
Duck breast muscle require the least amount of energy.
138.
What makes up the cell membrane?
a)
Lipid Monolayer
b)
Lipid Bilayer
c)
Protiens
d)
Carbohydrate Chains
139.
What structure is responsible for making proteins?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Golgi Apparatus
d)
Ribosome
140.
Besides the cytoplasm, where else do we find ribosomes?
a)
Vacoule
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
d)
Lysosome
141.
What is the function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
a)
to make energy
b)
modify and transport proteins made by the ribosomes on it
c)
store water and other vital molecules
d)
to make new membranes and neutralize toxins
142.
Membrane packages that carry molecules around the cell or out of the cell.
a)
Golgi Apparatus
b)
Vacuole
c)
Lysosome
d)
Vesicles
143.
Vesicle filled with digestive enzymes that break down lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins into monomers. Recycle damaged or unused organelles.
a)
ER
b)
Lysosome
c)
Vacuole
d)
Mitochondria
144.
I am a protein packaging and shipping machine! Who am I?
a)
vacuole
b)
ribosome
c)
mitochondrion
d)
golgi apparatus
145.
Which of the following is directly involved in the transportation of materials inside/within the cell?
a)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
b)
Vacuole
c)
Lysosome
d)
Mitochondria
146.
Some cells, such as human nerve and muscle cells, contain many more mitochondria than do other cells, such as skin cells.  Why do some cells have more mitochondria than others?
a)
The cells use more energy
b)
The cells store more nutrients
c)
The cells degrade more proteins
d)
The cells divide more frequently
147.
Bacteria, protist, animal and plant cells all have a _______
a)
cell membrane
b)
nucleus
c)
chloroplasts
d)
cell wall
148.
What is the difference between rough and smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum?
a)
There is no difference.
b)
Plants have rough ER, animals have smooth ER.
c)
What type of injuries the Doctors treat.
d)
Rough has ribosomes, smooth does not.
149.

Which organelle is labeled C, and stores DNA?

a)

cytoplasm

b)

cell membrane

c)

cell wall

d)

nucleus

150.

Which organelle is an energy-releasing structure that creates energy in cells?

a)

A, mitochondria

b)

B, golgi apparatus

c)

C, nucleus

d)

D, endoplasmic reticulum

151.
The process by which the genetic code of DNA is copied into a strand of RNA is called
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
transformation
d)
replication
152.

What is the correct order to make a protein?

a)

Protein, DNA, RNA

b)

RNA, DNA, Protein

c)

DNA, RNA, Protein

d)

Protein, RNA, DNA

153.

RNA has what base that is instead of thymine?

a)

guanine

b)

adenine

c)

thymine

d)

uracil

154.

Which RNA carries the message?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

155.
Where does transcription take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
ribosome
156.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
157.

What does tRNA stand for?

a)

transition RNA

b)

transcription RNA

c)

transfer RNA

d)

translation RNA

158.

mRNA is read into amino acids during what process?

a)

transcription

b)

transfer

c)

translation

d)

transition

159.

Which of the following structure is where cellular respiration (Kreb's Cycle and Electron Transport Chain) occurs in the cell?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

mitochondria

d)

vacuoles

160.

Cellular Respiration's goal is to

a)

make water

b)

make ATP

c)

make glucose

d)

make oxygen

161.

What type of respiration requires oxygen?

a)

Aerobic

b)

Anaerobic

162.

Where does Glycolysis occur inside the cell? (first step in the overall process)

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Nucleus

163.

What are the products (what is released) of cellular respiration? (Mark all of them!)

a)

oxygen

b)

glucose

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

water

e)

ATP (energy)

164.

Which stage of the cellular respiration process produces the most ATP?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Acetyl CoA

c)

Kreb's Cycle

d)

Electron Transport Chain

165.

What's the chemical formula for glucose?

a)

6C6H12O6

b)

C12H6O12

c)

C6H12O6

d)

CHO

166.

Which molecule is the product of Glycolysis and the reactant of the Krebs Cycle?

a)

pyruvic acid

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

water

d)

oxygen

167.

Which molecule is the product of the Krebs Cycle?

a)

oxygen

b)

pyruvic acid

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

water

168.

What is formed at the end of the Electron Transport Chain by the combination of its reactant and hydrogen?

a)

water

b)

oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

glucose

169.

The Electron Transport Chain is a series of chemical reactions in which energy is transferred to form a large amount of what molecule?

a)

glucose

b)

oxygen

c)

pyruvate

d)

ATP

170.
This process releases chemical energy from sugars and other carbon-based molecules to make ATP when oxygen is present.
a)
photosynthesis
b)
light-independent reaction
c)
cellular respiration
d)
light-dependent reaction
171.
What is cellular respiration?
a)
the breakdown of glucose  to release ATP
b)
the breakdown of glucose to release NADH
c)
the breakdown of glucose to release FADH
d)
the breakdown of glucose to release carbon
172.
The energy in ATP is stored 
a)
in the bond between the second and third phosphate
b)
in the bond between the first and second phosphate
c)
in the bond between the adenosine and the first phosphate
d)
I like turtles
173.
What is the function of ATP in living things?
a)
provides energy for cells
b)
stores genetic information
c)
provides structure in the nucleus
174.
What does the "TP" in ATP stand for?
a)
2 phosphates
b)
tri (3) phosphates
c)
Two proteins
d)
tri (3) proteins
175.

Energy-requiring process that moves material across a cell membrane against a concentration gradient.

a)

Active transport

b)

Passive transport

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

osmosis

176.

Hydrophobic

a)

Mixes well with water

b)

Does not mix with water

177.

Diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane

a)

Osmosis

b)

Facilitated Diffusion

c)

Active Transport

d)

Endocytosis

178.

the movement of substances across a cell membrane without the use of energy by the cell

a)

Active transport

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Exocytosis

d)

Passive transport

179.

some substances, but not all, can pass directly through the cell membrane by passive or active transport

a)

semipermeable

b)

plasma

c)

cell

d)

turgid

180.
___________ strengthens and stabilizes the cell membrane.
a)
Carbohydrates 
b)
Proteins 
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
Cholesterol
181.
___________ have 2 functions in the cell membrane.
1.) They act like gatekeepers, only let certain things in. 
2.) Enzyme receptors embedded in the membrane.
a)
Carbohydrates 
b)
Proteins 
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
Cholesterol
182.
It forms a boundary between the inside of the cell and the outside of the cell. 
a)
Cell Membrane
b)
Lipid Cleric Layer
c)
Membrane Gate
d)
Protein Receptors 
183.
What forms the channels and pumps in the phospholipid bilayer?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
proteins
c)
hydrophilic heads 
d)
lipids
184.
Hydrophobic region of the cell membrane?
a)
E
b)
B
c)
C
d)
A 
185.
Part of the plasma membrane responsible for cell recognition... 
a)
C
b)
E
c)
B
d)
D
186.
Cell membrane is made up of 
a)
Polar heads, non-polar tails
b)
Non-polar heads, polar tails
c)
Polar heads, polar tails
d)
Non-polar heads, non-polar tails
187.
______________ produces the most ATP.
a)
photosnthesis
b)
aerobic respiration
c)
anaerobic respiration
d)
glycolysis
188.

True or False. The Krebs Cycle takes place within the mitochondrial matrix.

a)

True

b)

False

189.

True or False. The electron transport chain for both the mitochondria and the chloroplast occur on membranes.

a)

True

b)

False

190.

What is the function of the intermembrane space of the mitochondria?

a)

space where H+ ions accumulate quickly for ATP synthesis

b)

space where electrons accumulate for ATP synthesis

c)

to increase the surface area to volume ratio for ATP production

191.

Letter F is which structure of the mitochondria?

a)

inner membrane

b)

outer membrane

c)

cristae

d)

matrix

192.
A/An ____________is the smallest unit of life.
a)
atom
b)
stimulus
c)
cell
d)
DNA
193.

Select from the following the most basic requirements for life to form from non-living matter:

a)

Water

b)

Nutrients

c)

Energy

d)

Oxygen

194.

An organism from Kansas may struggle to survive in an Arctic climate due to what fundamental property of life?

a)

Environmental adaptations

b)

It's too cold

c)

There isn't enough sunlight

d)

Water isn't available

195.

Organisms being well adapted to their environment is a result of what?

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Evolution

c)

Environmental adaptations

d)

Artificial Selection

196.

The texture of soil depends on

a)

How much water it can retain

b)

Particle size

c)

Soil color

d)

Soil mass

197.
What type of soil would be best for a man-made pond, where the goal is to have as little leakage of water as possible?
a)
mostly clay
b)
mostly silt
c)
mostly sand
d)
equal amounts of clay, silt, and sand
198.

What is made up of equal parts of clay, sand, and silt is called

a)

foam

b)

loam

c)

soil

d)

sand

199.

Which particle is the most porous and allows for the most water to travel between them?

a)

silt

b)

sand

c)

clay

d)

loam

200.

Which of the following is not a primary nutrient required for plant growth?

a)

Calcium

b)

Phosphorus

c)

Potassium

d)

Nitrogen

201.

· What do the three numbers found on a fertilizer label represent?

a)

Guaranteed analysis; percentage of Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium found in the bag

b)

Guaranteed analysis; percentage of Calcium, Phosphorus, Potassium found in the bag

c)

Guaranteed analysis; percentage of Nitrogen, Potassium, Phosphorus found in the bag

d)

Guaranteed analysis; percentage of Iron, Manganese, Potassium found in the bag

202.

When you hear the word "potash", what element does it refer to?

a)

Phosphorus

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Potassium

d)

Iron

203.

A soil analysis shows that there is 3% sand, 30% silt and 40% clay; what can you add to the soil after it's tilled to help it hold water in the most efficient way?

a)

Sand

b)

Silt

c)

Clay

d)

Potash

204.

Which of the following can be controlled to help an organism thrive?

a)

Light

b)

pH

c)

Temperature

d)

Soil texture

e)

Moisture

205.

A plant is struggling in an acidic soil, what can you do to help it out?

a)

Increase the pH

b)

Decrease the pH

c)

Add sand to the soil

d)

Increase Nitrogen

206.

Understanding soil texture is important for what requirement of life?

a)

Water

b)

Energy

c)

Nutrients

d)

Respiration

207.

Understanding the NPK analysis of soil is important for what requirement of life?

a)

Water

b)

Energy

c)

Nutrients

d)

Phosphorus

208.

You discover that the soil is very hard to work with and is nearly as hard as a brick in the summer; this implies that is has to much of what soil particle?

a)

Sand

b)

Silt

c)

Clay

d)

Biomass

209.

What form of energy is likely to have helped produce the earliest life forms?

a)

Solar (Sunlight)

b)

Nuclear (Radioactive)

c)

Geothermal (Volcanic)

d)

Wind (Mechanical)

210.

The earliest life forms were able to undergo photosynthesis.

a)

True

b)

False

211.

If you eat a cheeseburger, the energy you get ultimately comes from what source?

a)

The cow

b)

The cheese

c)

The sun

d)

The earth

212.

Soil contains nutrients for life, all types of life, but you don't want mold which prefers soil that stays wet for long periods of time. When growing indoor plants, what can you add to soil to promote better drainage?

a)

Sand

b)

Silt

c)

Clay

d)

Sun

213.

Mitosis is the stage of the cell cycle during which ____.

a)

the cell's nucleus divides into two new nuclei.

b)

the cell divides into two new cells.

c)

the cell's DNA is replicated.

d)

the cell's cytoplasm divides.

214.

During what stage of the cell cycle does replication occur?

a)

interphase

b)

cytokinesis

c)

prophase

d)

mitosis

215.

What happens during cytokinesis of an animal cell?

a)

Each organelle divides into two parts.

b)

A new round of mitosis begins.

c)

Two new daughter cells are formed.

d)

A cell plate forms.

216.

Chromatids are...

a)

identical daughter cells.

b)

doubled rods of condensed chromatin.

c)

pigments that absorb the energy in sunlight.

d)

identical strands of chromosomes.

217.

Cycle of growth and division that cells undergo is...

a)

replication

b)

the cell cycle.

c)

interphase.

d)

mitosis.

218.

At the end of prophase, each of the following happens except

a)

tighter coiling of the chromosomes.

b)

breaking down of the nuclear envelope

c)

disappearing of the nucleolus.

d)

chromosomes line up in the middle.

219.

The longest phase of the cell cycle is...

a)

prophase

b)

interphase

c)

metaphase

d)

mitosis

220.

What type of cells undergo mitosis?

a)

germ cells

b)

sperm cells

c)

somatic cells

d)

egg cells

221.

The structures that become tightly packed during cell division and contain DNA are

a)

centromeres

b)

centrioles

c)

chromosomes

d)

spindle fibers

222.

Stage in mitosis in which chromosomes replicate themselves.

a)

anaphase

b)

metaphase

c)

prophase

d)

telophase

223.

Cell elongates and chromosomes move toward the poles during

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

224.

Two new daughter cells are formed and visible during

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

225.

Which stage of mitosis do the chromosomes line up the middle?

a)

anaphase

b)

metaphase

c)

prophase

d)

telophase

226.

Which stage of mitosis is visible here?

a)

anaphase

b)

prophase

c)

telophase

d)

metaphase

227.

Which stage is visible?

a)

anaphase

b)

prophase

c)

telophase

d)

metaphase

228.

Identify the stage.

a)

prophase

b)

anaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

229.

What happens during cytokinesis?

a)

nuclear division

b)

DNA replicates

c)

cell grows

d)

cytoplasm divides

230.

What is the end result of Mitosis/cytokinesis?

a)

two genetically different daughter cells

b)

four identical daughter cells

c)

two identical daughter cells

d)

four genetically different daughter cells

231.

Cancer cells...

a)

divide too frequently

b)

are uncontrolled

c)

can metastasize (move) to other locations

d)

all of these.

232.

Which type of cell division results in 4 daughter cells

a)

Interphase

b)

Meiosis

c)

Mitosis

d)

Cytokinesis

233.
A phospholipid has 2 parts. What are they called? 
a)
Hydrophilic Head, Hydrophobic Tail 
b)
Hydrophobic Head, Hydrophilic Tail