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Worksheets

Quizz

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the compression ratio of the F100-PW-299 ENGINE?

a)

25:1

b)

32:1

c)

0.60:1

d)

0.36:1

2.

what is the basic description of the F100-PW-299 engine?

a)

High by pass, low compression ratio tein spool

b)

High bypass, high compression ratio, twin spool

c)

Low bypass, low compression ratio, twin spool

d)

Low bypass, high compression ratio, twin spool

3.

How many modules does the F100-PW-299 engine consists of?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

4.

What is the maximum rated thrust at full augmentation for the F100-PW-299 engine?

a)

24,000lb

b)

17,800lb

c)

29,100lb

d)

29,500lb

5.

What is the by-pass ratio of the F100-PW-299 engine?

a)

0.36:1

b)

32:1

c)

0.60:1

d)

25:1

6.

How many bearings does the F100-PW-299 engine has? 

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

7.

How is the Inlet Fan module support?

a)

It is supported by the No.1 bearing

b)

It is supported by the No2 bearing in the rear 

c)

It is supported by the No1 bearing in the front and the No 2 bearing at the rear

d)

It is supported by No 1, 2 and 3 bearings

8.

What is the functions of the No 1 bearing?

a)

It supports the axial loads of the fan and maintains fan-to-case axial alignment.

b)

It supports the axial loads of the fan and maintains fan to case radial alignment

c)

It supports the fan rotor assembly.

d)

It supports the radial loads of the fan and maintain fan to case radial alignment.

9.

What is the purpose of the 3 stage inlet fan? 

a)

The 3 stage inlet fan increases the velocity of the air to the intermediate case, where the airflow is divided between the core engine module and bypass ducts.

b)

The 3 stage inlet fan delivers compressed air to the core engine module

c)

The 3 stage inlet fan increases the velocity of the air to the core engine module.

d)

The 3 stage fan delivers compressed air to the intermediate case, where the airflow is divided between the core engine module and bypass ducts.

10.

In the intermediate case, how is the fan bypass air divided from the rear compressor airflow?

a)

Diffuser

b)

aerodynamic flow splitter

c)

They are not divided

d)

Struts

11.

What is the purpose of the core module?

a)

The core module produces hot, high-pressure gases to rotate the rear compressor drive turbine(High Pressure Turbine) 

b)

The core module produces hot, high-pressure gases to rotate the fan drive turbine(Low pressure Turbine) 

c)

The core module produces hot, high-pressure gases to drive the engine accessories

d)

The core module produces hot, high pressure gases to rotate the rear compressor and fan drive turbine

12.

What are the 4 major subsections of the core module?

a)

Compressor Intermediate case, rear compressor, diffuser case and rear compressor drive turbine

b)

Compressor intermediate case, rear compressor, diffuser case and fan drive turbine

c)

Compressor intermediate case, rear compressor and rear compressor drive turbine

d)

Rear compressor, rear compressor drive turbine and diffuser case

13.

The fan turbine inlet temperature probes extend into which stage turbine vanes

a)

1st

b)

2nd

c)

3rd

d)

4th

14.

What is the function of the radial gutters found in the flameholder?

a)

The radial gutters direct the hot gases out of the exhaust

b)

The radial gutters mix the hot core gases with the cooler fan air.

c)

The radial gutters act as a structural support to the flameholder

d)

All of the above

15.

What is the functions of the reduction gearbox?

a)

Provides a mounting flange for the main fuel control

b)

Provides a speed reduction of 52% between the engine driven main gearbox and the main fuel pump

c)

It houses the No 2 and 3 bearing scavenge pump

d)

All of the above

16.

What is the primary purpose of the engine mounted generator? 

a)

Provides power to the IBOX

b)

Provides power to the DEEC and IBOX

c)

Provides power to the aircraft emergency power unit.

d)

Provides power to the deec ignition system and ps2 probe heater

17.

What is the purpose of the anti-ice system?

a)

Prevent ice accumulation on the ps2 probe

b)

Prevent ice accumulation on the engine inlet

c)

Prevent ice accumulation on the aircraft intake duct

d)

Removal of ice on the engine intake

18.

How is the anti ice valve control

a)

By the means of electrical signals from the DEEC

b)

By the means of electrical signals from the airframe

c)

By means of electrical signals from the DEEC and airframe 

d)

By means of electrical signals from the engine mounted generator 

19.

The Tt2 probes provides engine total temperature signal to which component?

a)

IBOX

b)

MFC

c)

Cockpit indicator

d)

DEEC

20.

What is one of the purpose of the quad N1 sensor?

a)

Provides electrical speed signal to the DEEC

b)

Provides hydromechanical speed signal to the MFC 

c)

provides electrical speed signal to the MFC 

d)

Provides hydromechanical speed signal to the DEEC

21.

The FTIT probes provide temperature signals to the ___. 

a)

DEEC and PHM

b)

DEEC and MFC 

c)

DEEC only 

d)

 IBOX only

22.

Which turbine stage are the FTIT probes located? 

a)

1ST

b)

2ND

c)

3RD

d)

4TH

23.

The secondary Tt2 probes provides ___.

a)

Engine inlet temperature signal to the DEEC

b)

secondary engine inlet temperature to the DEEC 

c)

Engine inlet temperature signal to the MFC

d)

secondary engine inet temperature signal to the MFC

24.

What is the function of the Ps2 probe?

a)

Sample air temperature and send the information to the DEEC 

b)

Sample static air pressure and send the information to the DEEC

c)

Sample both air pressure and temperature and send the information to the DEEC. 

d)

Guide the airflow flowing into the engine

25.

When will the dual solenoid-actuated anti-ice valve be closed (anti-ice inhabited)? 

a)

When either or both solenoids receives electrical power

b)

When both solenoids receive electrical power 

c)

When solenoids did not receive electrical power

d)

When either or both solenoids did not receive electrical power

26.

When will DEEC allows anti-ice operation?

a)

When altitude is less than 30,000ft, antiice air temperature is less than 759 deg F and tt2 is less than 30 deg F.

b)

When altitude is less than 30,000ft, anti ice air temperature is less than 750 deg F and tt2 is less than 60 deg F ()

c)

When altitude is less than 35,000ft, anti-ice air temperature is less than 750 deg F and tt2 is less than 30 deg F

d)

When altitude is less than 35,000ft, anti-ice air temperature is less than 750 deg F and tt2 is less than 60 deg F

27.

Which of the following statements is true pertaining to anti-ice system? 

a)

The anti ice valve is controlled by a combination of airframe and EDU electrical signals supplied to the anti ice valve solenoids

b)

The anti-ice valve is controlled by electrical signals from the airframe mounted ice detector probe supplied to the anti-ice valve 

c)

The anti ice valve is controlled by electrical signals from the DEEC. 

d)

The anti-ice valve is controlled by a combination of airframe and DEEC electrical signals supplied to the anti ice valve solenoids.

28.

How is main ignition scheduled? 

a)

By the DEEC

b)

As a function of PLA

c)

As a function of fan rotor speed, N1

d)

As a function of core rotor speed, N2

29.

The F100-PW-299 lubrication system engine consists of 3 subsystem. What are they? 

a)

Pressure scavenge and vent 

b)

Pressure, scavenge and breather

c)

Scavenge, vent and breather 

d)

Pressure, vent and breather

30.

In the lubrication system, the boost oil pressure is supplied to which main bearings? 

a)

1,4,5

b)

1,2,3

c)

1,3,5

d)

3,4,5

31.

What is the purpose of the scavenge system? 

a)

Return the cold oil to the oil tank

b)

Reduced the heat of the oil 

c)

Vents breather air Overboard 

d)

Returns oil and breather air to the oil tank

32.

Which subsystem regulates pressure of the air that is introduced into the lubrication system through the bearing compartment.

a)

Pressure subsystem 

b)

Breather subsystem

c)

Scavenge subsystem 

d)

Vent subsystem 

33.

What is the purpose of the oil pressure subsystem? 

a)

Supplies clean, cool, pressurized oil to the main bearings and gears for lubrication and cooling.

b)

Removes air from the oil and breather lines

c)

Prevents excessive pressure build-up and pump cavitation

d)

Collects oil from the gearbox and returns the oil to the oil tank

34.

What is the usable capacity of the engine oil tank? 

a)

2.1 gallon 

b)

3.1 gallon

c)

4.1 gallon 

d)

5.1 gallon 

35.

How many magnetic chip detectors are there in the lubrication system of the F100-PW-299 engine? 

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

36.

What is the purpose of the breather pressurizing valve?

a)

Maintains correct breather pressure in the oil tank, No 2-3 bearing compartment and gearbox

b)

Maintains correct scavenge pressure in the oil tank, No 2-3 bearing compartment and gearbox 

c)

Maintains correct breather pressure in the oil tank, No.1 to 5 bearings compartments and gearbox

d)

Maintains correct breather pressure in the oil tank and No2-3 bearing compartment

37.

What is the purpose of the carbon seals? 

a)

Prevent oil leakage into the breather system 

b)

Prevent oil leakage from the bearing compartments

c)

Prevent air from leaking out of the bearing compartments 

d)

Prevent air from entering the bearing compartments

38.

What is the purpose of the anti-siphon line 

a)

Prevents oil from siphoning into the No4 and 5 bearing compartments after shutdown by introducing breather air into the boost pressure line after shutdown

b)

Prevents oil from siphoning into the No4 bearing compartment after shutdown by introducing breather air into the boost pressure line after shutdown.

c)

Prevents air from siphoning into the no4 and 5 bearing compartments after shutdown by introducing breather air into the boost pressure line after shutdown

d)

Prevents air from siphoning into the No4 and 5 bearing compartments after shutdown by means of a check valve between the pressure line and the breather lines

39.

How is the oil cool during engine operation? 

a)

Air oil cooler 

b)

Fuel oil cooler

c)

By air oil cooler and fuel oil cooler

d)

Not cool 

40.

 An oil pressure transmitter measures ____. 

a)

Differential pressure between main oil pressure and breather air pressure

b)

Differential pressure between main oil pressure and scavenge air pressure

c)

Differential pressure between scavenge air pressure and breather air pressure

d)

Main oil pressure 

41.

Why does No. 1,4 and 5 roller bearings require higher oil pressure? 

a)

Due to higher breather air pressure within the bearing compartments

b)

Due to lower breather air pressure within the bearing compartments 

c)

Due to higher scavenge pressure within the bearing compartments

d)

Due to lower scavenge pressure within the bearing compartments

42.

In primary mode, how do the DEEC controls engine operation? 

a)

The DEEC controls engine operation through the use of electrical signals from the EDU. 

b)

The DEEC controls engine operation through the use of electrical signals from the EDU and aircraft inputs. 

c)

The DEEC controls engine operation by scheduling control system compartments, through the use electrohydraulic servovalves, solenoids, switches and resolvers.

d)

The DEEC controls engine operation through the use of cams, linkages and other mechanical/hydraulic devices based on throttle position and engine inputs 

43.

In secondary mode, the main fuel control schedules fuel flow as a function of: 

a)

PLA,Ps2, tt2

b)

Exhaust nozzle position 

c)

RCVV position 

d)

CIVV position 

44.

The DEEC system controls thrust and stall margin by scheduling how many variables? 

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

45.

Why does the DEEC schedule CIVVs, RCVVs and compressor bleed? 

a)

To increase fuel flow and fan speed 

b)

To increase compressor efficiency and stall margin

c)

To increase exhaust nozzle area

d)

To lower rear compressor speed 

46.

What component controls the engine in primary mode? 

a)

Main fuel control 

b)

DEEC

c)

Augmentor fuel control 

d)

Primary control 

47.

What components are used by the DEEC to position actuators? 

a)

Solenoids and stepper motors 

b)

EHVs and cams 

c)

EHVs and solenoids

d)

Solenoids and electromechanical servo valves

48.

What engine pressures does the DEEC use to control exhaust nozzle area?

a)

Pt2 and pb 

b)

Ps3 and pt6m 

c)

Pt2 and pt6m

d)

Pt2 and ps3

49.

The mach number(Mn) signal is primarily used by the DEEC to bias engine start, idle fuel flow and ___. 

a)

Engine acceleration 

b)

Fuel flow scheduling 

c)

CIVV scheduling 

d)

RCVV scheduling

50.

What is the purpose of idle area reset? 

a)

Increase thrust during takeoff and for high speed taxiing

b)

Increase acceleration time for fast takeoff

c)

Increase acceleration for short takeoff

d)

Reduces thrust during landing and for safe taxi speed

51.

What is the purpose of the PLA rate limiter? 

a)

To prevent uncontrolled PLA input to the MFC during SEC mode operation 

b)

To prevent uncontrolled PLA input to the MFC during PRI mode operation 

c)

To prevent uncontrolled PLA input to the MFC during PRI and SEC mode operation 

d)

To prevent uncontrolled PLA input to the MFC during PRI mode operation at 30,000 feet and below 

52.

The exhaust nozzle is variable to control____. 

a)

Engine thrust and fan stall margin

b)

Engine thrust and fuel flow 

c)

Engine thrust and fan speed 

d)

Engine thrust and core speed

53.

The transfer valve that allows transfer from primary to secondary mode is located in the ____. 

a)

Engine diagnostic unit 

b)

DEEC

c)

MFC

d)

Transfer Solenoid

54.

The aircraft throttle is connected from the airframe to the ____. 

a)

EDU

b)

DEEC

c)

AFC

d)

MFC

55.

What is the position of the exhaust nozzle during SEC mode? 

a)

Fully closed 

b)

Fully opened 

c)

82% to 84% 

d)

10% to 20%

56.

The deec engine provides high accuracy and reliability with minimum size and weight. One of its feature is____.

a)

Unrestricted PLA movement 

b)

Unrestricted PLA movement in Primary mode only 

c)

Restricted PLA movement at augmentation when the engine is at secondary mode 

d)

Restricted throttle movement at 20,000 feet above sea-level 

57.

Which of the following fuel flow sequence is correct? 

a)

Aircraft - Main Fuel Pump - Main Fuel Control - Fuel Oil Cooler - Pressurizing and Dump Valve - Fuel Nozzles 

b)

Aircraft - Main Fuel Pump - Main Fuel Control - Pressurizing and Dump Valve - Fuel Oil Cooler - Fuel Nozzles 

c)

Aircraft - Main Fuel Pump -  Fuel Oil Cooler - Main Fuel Control - Pressurizing and Dump Valve - Fuel Nozzles 

d)

 Aircraft - Main Fuel Control - Main Fuel Pump -  Fuel Oil Cooler - Pressurizing and Dump Valve - Fuel Nozzles

58.

How many fuel nozzles can be found on the diffuser case? 

a)

16

b)

18

c)

22

d)

24

59.

During engine shutdown, why is there no fuel dump from the engine 

a)

There is no P&D valve 

b)

Fuel bypass back to the aircraft 

c)

The dump section of the P&D valve is capped 

d)

The P&D valve is stuck closed 

60.

How many staged and unstaged fuel nozzles are there in the F100-PW-299 engine?

a)

10 staged, 14 unstaged

b)

12 staged, 12 unstaged 

c)

14 staged, 10 unstaged 

d)

10 staged, 10 unstaged 

61.

Which of the following statements is true? 

a)

The unstaged fuel nozzles introduce more fuel as compared to the staged nozzle

b)

The stage fuel nozzles introduce more fuel as compared to the unstaged nozzles

c)

The staged and unstaged fuel nozzles introduce the same amount of fuel 

d)

None of the above 

62.

What is the purpose of having 12 unstaged and 12 staged fuel nozzles in the engine? Choose the most correct answer.

a)

For fuel efficiency 

b)

To prevent engine light off stall

c)

To improve the air start envelope without increasing wfgg which could cause a light off stall due to excessive back pressure on the compressor

d)

To increase the fuel flow during starting 

63.

What design is configured in the fuel nozzles to eliminate fuel surge? 

a)

Regulator valve 

b)

Damper

c)

Pressurizing valve 

d)

Scheduling valve

64.

The compressor bleed actuating mechanism is actuated by ___? 

a)

Fuel pressure from MFGP 

b)

fuel pressure from MFC 

c)

Fuel pressure from DEEC 

d)

Oil pressure from gearbox

65.

what is the purpose of the fuel oil cooler?

a)

cools engine oil before it goes to gearbox and bearings

b)

cools fuel before it goes to the fuel nozzles

c)

cools engine oil before it goes back to the oil tank

d)

cools fuel before it goes to the MFC

66.

The main fuel pump delivers fuel to the ___.

a)

MFC and AFC

b)

MFC and augmentor fuel pump

c)

mfc, rcvv actuator and augmentor fuel pump

d)

mfc, rcvv actuators, civv actuators and augmentor fuel pump

67.

The total range of travel for the Compressor Inlet Variable Vanes is

a)

-7 degrees (fully cambered) to + 21 degrees (fully axial)

b)

-10 degrees (fully cambered) to +18 degrees (fully axial)

c)

-14 degrees (fully cambered) to +14 degrees (fully axial)

d)

-21 degrees(fully cambered) to +7 degrees (fully axial)

68.

The total range of the Rear Compressor Variable Vanes is

a)

-34 degrees (fully cambered) to +7.5 degrees (fully axial)

b)

-7.5 degrees (fully cambered) to +34 degrees (fully axial)

c)

-34 degrees (fully cambered) to +34 degrees (fully axial)

d)

-7.5 degrees (fully cambered) to +7.5 degrees (fully axial)

69.

which of the following statements is true?

a)

During primary mode engine starts, the compressor bleed unloads the high compressor by bleeding air from the 7th stage of compression.

b)

During secondary mode engine starts, the compressor bleed unloads the high compressor by bleeding air from the 7th stage of compression.

c)

During primary and secondary mode engine starts, the compressor bleed unloads the high compressor by bleeding air from the 7th stage of compression.

d)

During emergency, i.e air start, the compressor bleed unloads the high compressor by bleeding air from the 7th stage of compression.

70.

which of the following is used when stop-to-stop actuation is required without variable positioning between the stops?

a)

Electrohydraulic servo valves

b)

Switch

c)

solenoid

d)

resolver

71.

which of the following statements is true for the Augmentor Duct and Nozzle Module?

a)

the nozzle is opened and closed by a drive system that incorporates two primary drive cables, one primary nozzle actuator, five secondary drive cables, four secondary nozzle actuators and one synchronizing ring

b)

the nozzle is opened and closed by a drive system that incorporates one primary drive cables, one primary nozzle actuator, four secondary drive cables, four secondary nozzle actuators and one synchronizing ring

c)

the nozzle is opened and closed by means of the synchronising ring

d)

the nozzle is opened and closed by a drive system that incorporates two primary drive cables, one primary nozzle actuator, five secondary drive cables, four secondary nozzle actuators

72.

what drives the exhaust nozzle position transmitter?

a)

Main fuel Control

b)

primary actuator

c)

secondary actuator

d)

CENC

73.

what are the components that operate the exhaust nozzle control system?

a)

CENC, external segments and 5 actuators

b)

CENC, synchronizing ring, primary and secondary drive cables and actuators

c)

CENC air pressure regulator, bell cranks, primary and secondary drive cables and actuators

d)

ENPT, CENC, primary and secondary drive cables and actuators

74.

which compressor stage air does the CENC utilises to change the exhaust nozzle control system?

a)

13th stage air

b)

7th stage air

c)

aircraft

d)

Pt6m

75.

what controls the compressor bleed system during SEC operation?

a)

CB is inoperative during SEC operation

b)

AFC

c)

DEEC

d)

MFC

76.

what position is the exhaust nozzle designed to fail in if the augmentor primary drive cables are sheared?

a)

closed position

b)

position when failure occur

c)

opened position

d)

position depending on the throttle setting

77.

the augmentor segment manifolds consists of ___ rings and ___ segments.

a)

5 rings and 5 segments

b)

11 rings and 7 segments

c)

7 rings and 7 segments

d)

7 rings and 11 segment

78.

what is the position of the CIVV vanes during secondary mode?

a)

fully axial

b)

fully cambered

c)

varies with N1 rpm

d)

varies with N2 rpm

79.

what is the purpose of opening the compressor bleed strap during engine start?

a)

to decrease the rear compressor stall margin and unload the rear compressor for a faster start

b)

to increase the rear compressor stall margin and unload the rear compressor for a faster start

c)

to decrease the rear compressor stall margin and increase the compression ratio a for faster start

d)

to increase the rear compressor stall margin and increase the compression ratio for a faster start

80.

where is the compressor bleed strap located?

a)

around the 6th stage of the rear compressor

b)

around the 7th stage of the rear compressor

c)

around the 8th stage of the rear compressor

d)

around the 9th stage of the rear compressor

81.

the DEEC schedules the compressor bleed open on start based on ___?

a)

N1 and N2

b)

N1 and Tt2

c)

N2 and Tt2

d)

N2 and EPR

82.

At which stage of the engine operation does the compressor bleed system unloads the high compressor?

a)

Intermediate power settings

b)

engine augmentation

c)

engine start

d)

engine ground operation

83.

which is one of the purpose of the flameholder?

a)

it allows the spread of flames during augmentor initiation

b)

it reduces the velocity of the gases so that the flame stability is maintained during augmentation

c)

it mixes the hot gases and fan air for smooth performance

d)

all of the above

84.

___ is a pilot ring in the form of a channel that allows spread of flame during augmentor initiation

a)

spray manifold assembly

b)

turbine exhaust cone

c)

flameholder

d)

augmentor synchronizing ring

85.

which of the following is TRUE?

a)

segment 2 produces a pilot flame for the augmentor initiation sequence

b)

radial gutters of the flameholder branch inward and outward to mix the gases

c)

the flameholder increases the velocity of gases to maintain flame stability

d)

the flameholder mixed hot gases and fan air during augmentation only

86.

which component controls augmentor fuel flow in secondary mode?

a)

DEEC

b)

AFC

c)

augmentation is not possible in SEC MODE

d)

MFC

87.

Which component supplies the AFC with servo pressure?

a)

MFC

b)

AFPC

c)

MFP

d)

CENC

88.

The speed of the augmentor fuel pump is controlled by the

a)

bypass valve

b)

main fuel control

c)

electronic engine control

d)

augmentor fuel pump controller

89.

which segment produces a pilot flame for the remaining segments

a)

segment 1

b)

segment 2

c)

segment 3

d)

segment 4

90.

which equipment is used to measure the augmentor system fuel pressure

a)

CEDS

b)

PDA

c)

Pressure Test Set

d)

Engine warning test set

91.

what is the device that converts electrical signal from the DEEC to hydraulic pressure?

a)

EHV

b)

Resolver

c)

Cam

d)

Diagnostic switch

92.

what is the purpose of performance data?

a)

to monitor/trend engine performance

b)

to monitor engine cycle limits

c)

to determine the life of the core module

d)

to determine the relationship between engine cycle and engine operating time

93.

which of the following conditions will trigger recording of a single transient data?

a)

whenever an engine event is detected

b)

whenever a system fault is detected

c)

whenever an internal DEEC fault is detected

d)

whenever an engine event is detected and an internal DEEC fault if detected.

94.

what is the secondary mode of the engine operation?

a)

it is the fail safe mode of engine operation which is controlled by the MFC

b)

it is the fail safe mode of engine operation which is controlled by the DEEC

c)

it is the standard mode of engine operation which is controlled by the MFC

d)

it is the standard mode of engine operation which is controlled by the DEEC

95.

which of the following is a feature of the DEEC?

a)

Unrestricted throttle movement throughout the flight envelope

b)

unrestricted throttle movement below 40,000 feet

c)

unrestricted throttle movement below Mach 1.8

d)

unrestricted throttle movement below 40,000 feet and Mach 1.8

96.

how does the engine monitoring system(EMS) components communicate with each other?

a)

through a UART channel

b)

through EHVs and resolvers

c)

through Resolver Equivalent Degrees (REDs) format

d)

through Resolver Equivalent Degrees(REDs) channel

97.

which series of fault code is for event fault code?

a)

1000

b)

2000

c)

3000

d)

4000

98.

how does DEEC relinquishes control of the engine to the MFC?

a)

by positioning the mode switches within the MFC

b)

by positioning the transfer valve within the MFC

c)

by positioning the metering valve EHV within the MFC

d)

by positioning the resolver within the MFC

99.

what series fault code indicated an engine performance related fault?

a)

3000

b)

4000

c)

5000

d)

6000

100.

what series fault code indicates an internal DEEC malfunction?

a)

1000

b)

2000

c)

3000

d)

4000

101.

What series fault codes are system faults?

a)

1000

b)

2000

c)

3000

d)

4000

102.

What series fault codes are advisory faults?

a)

1000

b)

3000

c)

5000

d)

7000

103.

What EMS data aids maintenance personnel in troubleshooting?

a)

EOT

b)

Fault codes

c)

Range checks

d)

Transducer signals

104.

What series fault codes are event faults?

a)

1000

b)

2000

c)

3000

d)

4000

105.

How does DEEC controls engine operation

a)

by sending electrical signals in electrohydraulic servo valves (EHVs) or solenoids

b)

by sending electrical signals in electrohydraulic servo valves (EHVs) or resolvers

c)

by sending electrical signals in electrohydraulic servo valves (EHVs)

d)

by sending electrical signals to resolvers

106.

The engine starting system provides main engine starting capability up to which altitude?

a)

18,000ft

b)

20,000ft

c)

22,000ft

d)

24,000ft

107.

Under which of the following conditions will the DESSC controller shut down the JFS?

a)

Controller fails to detect 90% speed within 30 seconds after start is initiated

b)

Controller detects overspeed in excess of 110% JFS speed

c)

Controller detects underspeed of 90% after JFS has exceeded 90% speed

d)

All of the above

108.

How does DESSC distinguish between a ground start and an air start?

a)

ambient pressure

b)

ambient temperature

c)

landing gear handle

d)

weight on wheel switch

109.

After main engine start is accomplished, how is the JFS gear train disengaged from the ADG gear train?

a)

servo clutch valve

b)

torque converter

c)

overrunning clutch

d)

hydraulic start motor

110.

When the engine has reached self sustaining speed during engine ground run, how is the JFS shutdown?

a)

ground runner has to manually switch off the JFS

b)

the JFS start switch automatically snaps to the OFF position and the run light goes off

c)

the JFS start switch automatically snaps to the OFF position and the run light remains on

d)

the JFS will continue running until engine reaches idle speed

111.

During ESS operation in flight, which logic is disabled?

a)

the logic that automatically shuts down the JFS when engine is running is lock up

b)

JFS will be shut down once engine reaches self sustaining speed

c)

JFS overtemp is not allowed to occur

d)

Start 2 is used

112.

When is the Max Fuel valve energise to open?

a)

90% JFS speed

b)

90% JFS speed plus one second

c)

70% JFS speed plus one second

d)

100% JFS speed

113.

Which equipment is used to troubleshoot the engine starting system?

a)

Ignition test set

b)

PDA

c)

CEDS

d)

EAU

114.

At what JFS speed will the JFS doors close during the ground start?

a)

5% 

b)

10% 

c)

15% 

d)

20% 

115.

Where is the JFS speed sensor located?

a)

Contain within the ADG

b)

Mounted on the ADG adjacent to the ESS FCU

c)

Mounted on upper right hand side of ADG above System A hydraulic pump

d)

Mounted on JFS

116.

The JFS door will be closed at _ JFS speed in flight

a)

5%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

40%

117.

Diaphragms or bellows located in the splined section and center section of the PTO shaft allow for up to __ of angular deflection across each bellow

a)

1 degree

b)

2 degrees

c)

3 degrees

d)

4 degrees

118.

When is the Start Fuel valve energise to open?

a)

5% JFS speed

b)

12% JFS speed

c)

70% JFS speed

d)

90% JFS speed

119.

When is the Main Fuel valve energise to open?

a)

5% JFS speed 

b)

12% JFS speed

c)

70% JFS speed

d)

90% JFS speed

120.

When is the JFS Ignition Exciter de-energised?

a)

5% JFS speed 

b)

12% JFS speed 

c)

70% JFS speed

d)

90% JFS speed

121.

The solenoid deprime value operates during

a)

start 2 only

b)

start 2 on ground only

c)

start 2 in the air only

d)

start 1 only

122.

How many overrunning clutches (ORC) are there in the ADG?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

123.

What is the purpose of the delay valve in the hydraulic system of the ESS?

a)

To prevent a sudden temperature increase in the hydraulic system

b)

To prevent a sudden pressure spike from damaging the hydraulic start motor

c)

To convert hydraulic pressure into mechanical torque for the starting sequence

d)

To step-up an input torque for more efficient starting

124.

JFS run light is seen flashing when aircraft is electrically powered up. It means _

a)

aircraft battery power is low

b)

JFS shots are due

c)

there is a malfunction in the ESS electrical circuitry

d)

JFS is ready for start

125.

When a main engine start is accomplished, DESSC shuts down the starting sequence (ground start) based on

a)

JFS speed

b)

PTO speed

c)

N2 speed

d)

N1 speed

126.

When will the Start Fuel Valve be de-energised during the JFS starting sequence?

a)

90% JFS speed

b)

90% PTO speed

c)

70% JFS speed

d)

70% PTO speed

127.

Which of the following when energise, will increase the JFS rpm to 105% JFS speed?

a)

Max Fuel Valve

b)

Fuel Bias Valve

c)

Start Fuel Valve

d)

Main Fuel Valve

128.

Which equipment is used for downloading of engine start data from the DESSC?

a)

PDA

b)

CEDS

c)

CETS

d)

PTS

129.

Hydraulic Start Motor will dis-engages at _% JFS speed

a)

5

b)

12

c)

70

d)

105

130.

What is the purpose of Hydraulic Start Motor in the engine starting system

a)

Provides rotational power necessary to accelerate the JFS to starting speed

b)

Provides energy to start the engine

c)

Provides power to drives the accessory drive gearbox

d)

Provides the aircraft with hydraulic pressure

131.

The F-16 engine starting system can be powered up using _

a)

Aircraft Battery

b)

Engine Generator

c)

Aircraft Emergency Generator

d)

Hydraulic Accumulator

132.

Which test set is used to test JFS ignition system?

a)

CEDS

b)

CETS

c)

PDA

d)

Ignition Test Set

133.

JFS run light will illuminate at _

a)

5% JFS speed

b)

12% JFS speed

c)

70% JFS speed

d)

90% JFS speed + 1 sec

134.

Jet Fuel Starter consists of:

a)

1. a single-stage centrifugal flow compressor

2. a single-stage radial inflow turbine

3. an annular atomizing combustor

b)

1. a 3-stage axial flow compressor

2. a 3-stage axial flow turbine

3. an annular atomizing combustor

c)

1. a single-stage centrifugal flow compressor

2. a single-stage radial inflow turbine

3. a can type combustor

d)

1. a single-stage centrifugal flow compressor

2. a single-stage radial inflow turbine

3. a can-annular type combustor

135.

Standard operating condition for the JFS is _

a)

unlimited

b)

ground level only

c)

ground level to 20,000ft altitude

d)

unlimited for start 2

136.

During JFS prime and initial fuel leak check _

a)

the PTO speed sensor is disconnected

b)

the JFS speed sensor is disconnected

c)

the DESSC is disconnected

d)

the ignition is disabled

137.

At 90% plus one second, the following events will take place __

a)

JFS run light illuminates, Servo Clutch Valve regulates and Max Fuel Valve opens

b)

JFS run light illuminates, Servo Clutch Valve regulates

c)

JFS run light illuminates,  Max Fuel Valve opens

d)

JFS run light illuminates, Servo Clutch Valve regulates and Max Fuel Valve closes

138.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a)

JFS run light comes on at 90% JFS speed plus 1 second

b)

Servo Clutch valve engage at 90% JFS speed plus 1 second

c)

JFS shutdown at 50% N2 RPM

d)

Start Fuel Valve de-energise to close at 50% N2 RPM

139.

SNIF-16CJ-2-80FI-00-21 is used for _

a)

ESS component removal/installation instruction

b)

ESS component check out only

c)

ESS parts breakdown listing

d)

ESS troubleshooting

140.

Where is ADG speed sensor located?

a)

Contain within the ADG

b)

Mounted on the ADG adjacent to the ESS FCU

c)

Mounted on upper right side of ADG above System A hydraulic pump

d)

Mounted on Standby Generator CSD

141.

What will happen if the JFS does not attain 90% JFS speed in 30 seconds?

a)

Fuel Bias Valve will be activated to increase the JFS RPM to 105%

b)

DESSC will attempt another 30 seconds before flagging out a fault

c)

DESSC will shut down the JFS

d)

Nothing will happen, JFS will continue operation

142.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

The Fuel Bias Valve operates only during ground starts

b)

The Fuel Bias Valve operates only during air starts

c)

The Fuel Bias Valve is not used during engine starts

d)

The Fuel Bias Valve operates during ground and air starts

143.

What is the location of DESSC for F-16 CD aircraft?

a)

Behind panel 3302

b)

Behind panel 3303

c)

Behind panel 3304

d)

Behind panel 7019

144.

What is the location of DESCC for F-16 D+ aircraft?

a)

Behind panel 3302

b)

Behind panel 3303

c)

Behind panel 3304

d)

Behind panel 7019

145.

Hydraulic energy from JFS accumulators are converted to rotary power through

a)

Hydraulic Start Motor

b)

Delay Valve

c)

JFS

d)

Servo Clutch Valve

146.

JFS gets its ignition power from

a)

Main power bus

b)

Standby power Bus

c)

Battery Bus

d)

Auxillary power bus

147.

What are the positions of JFS start switch?

a)

Start 1 / Off

b)

Start 1 / Off / Start 2

c)

Start 1 / Start 2 / Start 3 / Off

d)

Start 1 / Start 2

148.

What are the conditions that warrant selection of Start 2 during JFS start?

a)

Very cold ambient temperature

b)

Very hot ambient temperature

c)

Very cold and hot ambient temperature

d)

1st start of the day

149.

When the JFS has accelerated the engine, how does the main engine be started?

a)

By depressing an engine start button beside the JFS start switch

b)

Advance throttle from Cut Off to MIL position

c)

No action required. Engine starting will be automatic everytime JFS comes on speed

d)

Advance throttle from Cut Off to Idle position

150.

What is the purpose of JFS door switch?

a)

It allow electrical power to be routed to the Fuel Bias Valve after JFS exhaust door is fully opened

b)

It allow electrical power to be routed to the Lube De-prime valve after JFS exhaust door is fully opened

c)

It allow electrical power to be routed to the Servo Clutch Valve after JFS exhaust door is fully opened

d)

It allow electrical power to be routed to the Fuel Shut Off Valve after JFS exhaust door is fully opened