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PPL Knowledge Test Unit 3 (Airports, ATC, and Airspace)

Total questions: 152

Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately

a)

008 degrees and 026 degrees true

b)

080 degrees and 260 degrees true

c)

080 degrees and 260 degrees magnetic

2.

(Refer to Fig 48) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true?

a)

position E on Runway 30 is available for landing

b)

Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B

c)

The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position B

3.

(Refer to Fig 48) What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted?

a)

"A" may be used only for taxiing; "E" may be used for all operations except landing

b)

"A" may be used for taxi and takeoff; "E" may be used only as an overrun.

c)

"A" may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landings; "E" may be used only as an overrun

4.

(Refer to Fig 48) Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a

a)

stabilized area

b)

multiple heliport

c)

closed runway

5.

(Refer to Fig 48) That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for

a)

landing

b)

taxiing and takeoff

c)

taxiing and landing

6.

The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

a)

009 degrees and 027 degrees true

b)

090 degrees and 270 degrees true

c)

090 degrees and 270 degrees magnetic

7.

(Refer to Fig 65) Which sign is a designation and direction of an exit taxiway from a

a)

I

b)

F

c)

K

8.

(Refer to Fig 65) Which sign identifies where aircraft are prohibited from entering?

a)

D

b)

G

c)

B

9.

(Refer to Fig 65) (refer to E) This sign is a visual clue that

a)

confirms the aricraft's location to be on taxiway

b)

warns the pilot of approaching taxiway

c)

indicates "B" holding area is ahead

10.

(Refer to Fig 65) (Refer to F) This sign confirms your position on

a)

runway 22

b)

routing to runway 22

c)

taxiway 22

11.

(Refer to Fig 65) (Refer to G) From the flight deck, this marking confirms the aircraft to be

a)

on a taxiway, about to enter runway zone

b)

on a runway, about to clear

c)

near an instrument approach clearance zone

12.

(Refer to Fig 65) Which of the signs in the figure is a mandatory instruction sign

a)

D

b)

G

c)

H

13.

When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot

a)

should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines

b)

may continue taxiing

c)

should not cross the lines without ATC clearance

14.

What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?

a)

denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway

b)

denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway

c)

Denotes intersecting runways

15.

What does the outbound destination sign identify?

a)

identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway

b)

identifies runway on which an aircraft is located

c)

identifies direction to take-off runways

16.

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?

a)

indicates direction to take-off runway

b)

indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway

c)

indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection

17.

What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve?

a)

provides general taxiing direction to named runway

b)

denotes entrance to runway form a taxiway

c)

identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located

18.

The 'yellow demarcation bar' marking indicates

a)

runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway

b)

a hold line from a taxiway to a runway

c)

the beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side

19.

(Refer to Fig 64) Which marking indicates a vehicle lane?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

E

20.

A lighted heliport may be identified by a b) flashing yellow lightc) blue lighted square landing area

a)

green, yellow, and white rotating beacon

b)

flashing yellow light

c)

blue lighted square landing area

21.

A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon the emits

a)

white and green alternating flashes

b)

two quick, white flashes between green flashes

c)

two quick, white flashes between green flashes

22.

An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

a)

there are obstructions on the airport

b)

that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums

c)

the Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation

23.

How can a military airport be identified at night?

a)

Alternate white and green light flashes

b)

Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes

c)

White flashing lights with steady green at the same location

24.

Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by

a)

white directional lights

b)

blue omnidirectional light

c)

alternate red and green lights

25.

To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it

a)

One time within 4 seconds

b)

Three times within 3 seconds

c)

Five times within 5 seconds

26.

(Refer to figure 49) if the wind is as shown by the landing direction Indicator, the pilot should land on

a)

Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right

b)

Runway 22 directly into the wind

c)

Runway 36 and expect a cross wind

27.

(Refer to figure 49) the arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate

a)

May be used only for taxiing

b)

Is usable for taxiing, takeoff, and landing

c)

Cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and take off

28.

(Refer to figure 49) select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing.

a)

Left-hand traffic and runway 18

b)

Right-hand traffic and runway 18

c)

Left-hand traffic and runway 22

29.

(Refer to figure 50) Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle?

a)

Right-hand Traffic on runway 9

b)

Right-hand Traffic on runway 18

c)

Left-hand Traffic on runway 36

30.

(Refer to figure 50) the segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is

a)

Left hand for runway 36 and right hand for runway 18

b)

Left hand for runway 18 and right hand for runway 36

c)

Right hand for runway 9 and left hand for runway 27

31.

(Figure 30) the traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the

a)

South of the airport

b)

North of the airport

c)

Southeast of the airport

32.

(Figure 50) the segmented circle indicates that a landing on R 26 will be with a

a)

Right quartering head wind

b)

Left quartering head wind

c)

Right quartering tail wind

33.

Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a non controlled airport

a)

Depart in any direction consistent with safety after crossing the airport boundary

b)

Make all turns to the left

c)

Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport

34.

The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is

a)

45 degree to the bare leg just below traffic pattern altitude

b)

To enter 45 degree at the mid point of the down wind leg at traffic pattern altitude

c)

To cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the l down wind leg

35.

You are on approach to land on runway 19 of non towered airport. You observe ripples on the south East side of a small lake 3/4 mi East of the airport. What is the most appropriate course of action?

a)

Proceed with approach to runway 19

b)

Maneuver for an approach to runway 01

c)

Check the wind sock to determine the appropriate runway.

36.

When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall

a)

Maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles down wind from the runway threshold

b)

Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

c)

Remain on the glide slope and land between the two light bar

37.

A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a

a)

Pulsating white light

b)

steady white light

c)

pulsating red light

38.

(Figure 47) Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is

a)

Below the glide slope

b)

On the glide slope

c)

Above the glide slope

39.

While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall

a)

maintain a 3 degree glide until approximately 1/2 mile to the runway before going below the VASI

b)

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing

c)

stay high the runway can be reached in a power-off landing

40.

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

a)

Runway identification and course guidance

b)

Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area

c)

Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area

41.

Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall

a)

Maintain a 3 degrees glide to the runway

b)

Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

c)

Stay high until the runway can be reached in a power off landing

42.

(Refer to figure 47) while on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights shown in D means that

a)

Above the glide path

b)

Below the glide path

c)

On glide path

43.

C indicates

a)

Off course to the left

b)

Above glide slope

c)

Below the glide slope

44.

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

a)

Runway identification and course guidance

b)

Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area

c)

Lateral course guidance to runway

45.

A slightly high approach indicates

a)

Four white lights

b)

Three white and one red light

c)

Two white lights and two red light

46.

Wing tip notices are created only when an aircraft is

a)

Operating at high airspeeds

b)

Heavily loaded

c)

Developing lift

47.

Wing tip vortices created by large aircraft tend to

a)

Sink below the aircraft generating turbulence

b)

rise into the traffic pattern

c)

rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway

48.

The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a

a)

light, quartering headwind

b)

light, quartering Tail wind

c)

Strong head wind

49.

(Refer to Fig 48 pg. 100) With winds reported as from 300 degrees at 4 knots, you are given instructions to a taxi to runway 30 for departure and to expect to take off after an airliner, which is departing from runway 35L. What effect would you expect from the airliner's vortices?

a)

The winds will push the vortices into your takeoff path

b)

The crosswind will prevent lateral movement of the vortices

c)

The downwind vortex will rapidly dissipate

50.

When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to

a)

rise from a crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path

b)

rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport

c)

sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence

51.

When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying

a)

above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point

b)

below the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point

c)

above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point

52.

How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip ?

a)

Inward, upward , and around each tip

b)

Inward, upward, and counterclockwise

c)

Outward, upward, and around each tip

53.

Landing behind a large aircraft, what should be done

a)

Stay above its final approach Flight path all the way to touch down

b)

Stay below and to one side of its final approach Flight path

c)

Stay well below its final approach Flight path and land at least 2,000 feet behind

54.

The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft

a)

Light , dirty, fast

b)

Heavy, dirty, and fast

c)

Heavy, clean, and slow

55.

When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft

a)

Below and down wind from the heavy aircraft

b)

Above and upwind from the heavy aircraft

c)

Below and upwind from the heavy aircraft

56.

Your flight takes you in a path of a large aircraft. To avoid the vortices you should fly

a)

Above flight path of large aircraft

b)

Below flight path of large aircraft

c)

On flight path of large aircraft

57.

Night flight: you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft ?

a)

Crossing to the left

b)

Crossing to the right

c)

Approaching head on

58.

Night flight- you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead. Direction of other aircraft?

a)

Aircraft flying away from you

b)

Crossing you to the left

c)

Crossing you to the right

59.

Night flight: you see a steady red and green lights ahead. What is the moment of the other aircraft

a)

The other aircraft is crossing to the left

b)

The other aircraft is flying away from you

c)

The other aircraft is approaching you head on

60.

How can you determine if another aircraft is on collision course with your aircraft?

a)

The aircraft will always appear to get larger and clear at a rapid rate

b)

The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space

c)

There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

61.

Eye movement during daytime collision avoidance scanning should

a)

Not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second

b)

Be 30 degrees and view each sector at least 3 seconds

c)

Use peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing

62.

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use

a)

Regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o’ clock positions

b)

A series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector

c)

Peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing

63.

Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should

a)

Check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications

b)

Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance

c)

Announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF

64.

What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?

a)

Execute gentle banks left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace

b)

Advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes

c)

Fly away from the centerline of the airway before changing altitude

65.

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use

a)

Regularly space concentration 3-, 9-, and 12-o-clock positions

b)

A series of short regularly spaced eye movements to search each 30-degree sector

c)

Peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing

66.

Most midair collision accidents occur during

a)

Hazy days

b)

Clear days

c)

Cloudy nights

67.

Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with

a)

The controlling agency

b)

All pilots

c)

air traffic control

68.

AIM encourage pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 ft, Day or night, and especially when operating

a)

Class B

b)

In conditions with reduced visibility

c)

Within 15 miles of towered airport

69.

It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least

a)

50 feet or less to another aircraft

b)

500 feet or less to another aircraft

c)

1,000 feet or less to another aircraft

70.

After landing at a tower- controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?

a)

when advised by the tower to do so

b)

prior to turning off the runway

c)

after reaching a taxiaway that leads directly to the parking area

71.

If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed

a)

via taxi ways and across runways to, but not onto, Runway 9

b)

to the next intersection runway where further clearance is required

c)

via taxiways and across runways to Runway 9, where an immediate takeoff may be made

72.

Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning:

a)

pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an obstruction

b)

nonessential information to reduce frequency congestion

c)

noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas

73.

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that

a)

weather conditions are at or above VFR minimums

b)

the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted

c)

the ceiling is at lest 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more

74.

When a control tower on an airport within Class D stop operation for the day, what happens to the airspace.

a)

The airspace designation normally will not change

b)

The airspace remains Class D an airspace as long as the weather observer or automated weather system is available

c)

The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of class D and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation

75.

The lateral dimension of class D airspace are based om

a)

the number of airports that lie within the class D airspace

b)

5 statue miles from the geographical center of the primary airport

c)

The instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established

76.

A non towers satellite airport, within the same class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the

a)

Satellite airport's control tower

b)

Associated flight service station

c)

Primary airports control tower

77.

Unless otherwise authorize, two way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs at all towered airports

a)

regardless of weather conditions

b)

Only when weather conditions are less than VFR

c)

within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR

78.

Airspace at an airport with a part time control tower classified as Class D airspace only

a)

when the weather minimums are below basic VFR

b)

when the associated control tower is in operation

c)

when the associated flight service station is in operation

79.

When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?

a)

when visibility is less than 1 mile

b)

when parallel runways are in use

c)

when departing from a runway intersection

80.

The radius of the procedural outer area of Class C airspace is normally

a)

10 NM

b)

20 NM

c)

30 NM

81.

Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?

a)

The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure

b)

The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace

c)

The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff

82.

All operation within Class C airspace must be in

a)

accordance with instrument flight rules

b)

compliance with ATC clearance and instructions

c)

an aircraft equipped with a transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability

83.

Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?

a)

Contact the tower and request permission to enter

b)

contact approach control on the appropriate frequency

c)

contact the FSS for traffic advisories

84.

The vertical limit of class C airspace above the primary airport is normally

a)

1200 AGL

b)

3000 AGL

c)

4000 AGL

85.

Two way radio communication must be established with the air radio control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace

a)

class C

b)

class E

c)

class G

86.

With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with

a)

an operable VOR or TACAN receiver

b)

instruments and equipment required for IFR operations

c)

an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability

87.

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

a)

Recreational Pilot Certificate

b)

Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements

c)

Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating

88.

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

a)

Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating

b)

Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements

c)

Commercial Pilot Certificate

89.

The basic vfr weather minimums for operating an aircraft within class D AIRSPACE are

a)

500 foot ceiling; 1mile vis

b)

1000 foot ceiling; 3 mile vis

c)

COC & 2 mile visibility

90.

You would like to enter Class B airspace and contact the approach controller. The controller responds to your initial radio call with " N125HF standby." May you enter the Class B airspace?

a)

You must remain outside Class B airspace until controller gives you a specific clearance

b)

You may continue into the Class B airspace and wait for further instructions

c)

You may continue into the Class B airspace without a specific clearance, if the aircraft is ADS-B equipped

91.

In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

class C

92.

The maximum flight visibility required for VFR Flights above 10000 ft Msl and more than 1200 ft AGL in controlled airspace is

a)

1 mile

b)

3 miles

c)

5 miles

93.

VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGl and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of

a)

3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace

b)

5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes

c)

5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace

94.

For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is

a)

1000 ft

b)

2000 ft

c)

1 mile

95.

What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?

a)

1 mile

b)

4 mile

c)

3 miles

96.

The minimum distance from the clouds required for VFR operations on airway below 10,000 feet MSL is

a)

remain clear of clouds

b)

500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally

c)

500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

97.

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

a)

1 mile visibility and clear of clouds

b)

1 miles visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds

c)

3 miles visibility and clear of clouds

98.

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGl, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum visibility for VFR flight at night is

a)

1 mile

b)

3 mile

c)

5 mile

99.

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR flight is

a)

1 mile

b)

3 miles

c)

5 miles

100.

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

a)

500 ft

b)

1000 ft

c)

1500 ft

101.

No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the

a)

flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile

b)

ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile

c)

ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles

102.

During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

a)

500 ft

b)

1000 ft

c)

1500 ft

103.

Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirements for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is

a)

1 mile

b)

3 miles

c)

5 miles

104.

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirements for VFR flight is

a)

1,000 ft

b)

1500 ft

c)

2000 ft

105.

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirements for VFR at night is

a)

500 ft

b)

1000 ft

c)

1500 ft

106.

Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the visibility and ceiling to be at least

a)

1,000 feet and 1 mile

b)

1,000 feet and 3 miles

c)

2,500 feet and 3 miles

107.

Your VFR flight will be conducted above 10,000 ft. MSL in Class E airspace. What is the minimum flight visibility?

a)

3 sm

b)

5 sm

c)

1 sm

108.

What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?

a)

Automated Flight Service Station

b)

Air Traffic Control Tower

c)

Air Route Traffic Control Center

109.

A special VFR clearance authorize the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is

a)

less than 1 mile and the ceiling less than 1,000 feet.

b)

at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds

c)

at least 3 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds

110.

No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the

a)

flight can be conducted 500 feet below the clouds

b)

airplane is equipped for instrument flight

c)

flight visibility is at least 3 miles

111.

What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?

a)

The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace

b)

The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder

c)

The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped

112.

What is the minimum weather condition required for airplane operating under special VFR in Class D airspace?

a)

1 mile flight visibility

b)

1 mile flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling

c)

3 mile flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling

113.

What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?

a)

Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder

b)

Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter

c)

Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and a VOR or TACAN receiver

114.

What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

a)

Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder

b)

Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and DME

c)

Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter

115.

Unless otherwise specified, Federal airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from

a)

700 feet above the surface, up to and including 17,999 feet Msl

b)

1200 feet above the surface up to and including 17999 feet MSL

c)

The surface, up to and including 18,000 feet MSL

116.

TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides

a)

IFR separation (1,000 feet vertical and 3 miles lateral) between all aircraft

b)

warning to pilots when their aircraft are in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft

c)

Sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft

117.

From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?

a)

clearance delivery

b)

Tower, just before takeoff

c)

Ground control, on initial contact

118.

Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as

a)

wind-shear warning at participating airports

b)

mandatory radar service provided by the Automated Radar Terminal System (ARTS)

c)

safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft

119.

If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code

a)

0000

b)

1200

c)

4096

120.

When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?

a)

7200

b)

7000

c)

7500

121.

When making routine transponder code changes, pilots avoid inadvertent selection of which code?

a)

1200

b)

7600

c)

4096

122.

When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?

a)

1200

b)

7600

c)

7700

123.

At an altitude below 18,000 feet MSL, which transponder code should be selected?

a)

Mode A/3, Code 1200

b)

Mode F, Code 1200

c)

Mode C, Code 4096

124.

Which of the following codes should be set for VFR flight in Class E airspace?

a)

1200, Mode A/3

b)

1200, Mode F

c)

4600, Mode S

125.

Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a pilot should squawk which VFR code?

a)

1200

b)

7600

c)

7700

126.

When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester FSS is

a)

"MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER."

b)

"MC ALESTER STATION, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CEE BEE, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER."

c)

"MC ALESTER FLIGHT SERVICE STATION, HAWK NOVEMBER SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER."

127.

The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is

a)

"FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED"

b)

"FOUR POINT FIVE"

c)

"FORTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET MSL"

128.

The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is

a)

"TEN THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED FEET"

b)

"TEN POINT FIVE"

c)

"ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED"

129.

ATC advises, "traffic 12 o'clock," this advisory is relative to your

a)

True course

b)

Ground track

c)

Magnetic heading

130.

An ATC radar facility ussues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090 degree

"TRAFFIC 3 O'CLOCK, 2 MILE, WESTBOUND..."

Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

a)

East

b)

South

c)

West

131.

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360 degree

"TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILE, SOUTHBOUND..."

Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

a)

North West

b)

North East

c)

South West

132.

An ATC radar facility ussues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight:"TRAFFIC 2 O'CLOCK, 5 MILE, NORTHBOUND..."Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

a)

Between directly ahead and 90 degrees to the left

b)

Between directly behind and 90 degrees to the right

c)

Between directly ahead and 90 degrees to the right

133.

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in a calm wind:

"TRAFFIC 9 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND..."

Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

a)

South

b)

North

c)

West

134.

While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received form the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should

a)

discontinue the approach, fly the same traffic pattern and approach again, and land

b)

exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing

c)

abandon the approach, circle the airport to the right, and expect a flashing white light when the airport is safe for landing

135.

If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?

a)

Observe other traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower

b)

Enter a crosswind leg and rock the wings

c)

Flash the landing lights and cycle the landing gear while circling the airport

136.

A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot

a)

is cleared to land

b)

should give way to other aircraft and continue circling

c)

should return for landing

137.

A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxing aircraft is an indication to

a)

taxi at a faster speed

b)

taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways

c)

return to the starting point on the airport

138.

If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be

a)

Flashing red

b)

steady red

c)

Alternating red and green

139.

Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?

a)

Flashing green

b)

Steady green

c)

Flashing white

140.

An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to

a)

hold position

b)

exercise extreme caution

c)

not land; the airport is unsafe

141.

When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on

a)

118.0 MHz

b)

406 MHz

c)

123.0 MHz

142.

Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated?

a)

Turn off the aircraft ELT after landing

b)

Ask the airport tower if they are receiving an ELT signal

c)

Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown

143.

While on a VFR cross country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency

a)

121.5 MHz

b)

122.5 MHz

c)

128.75 MHz

144.

(Refer to Fig 48) Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a

a)

stabilized area

b)

multiple heliport

c)

closed runway

145.

Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operation (LAHSO) program

a)

Recreational pilots only

b)

Military pilots

c)

Student pilots

146.

who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

a)

Pilot in command

b)

Owner/operator

c)

Second in command

147.

who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

a)

Pilot in command

b)

Air Traffic Controller

c)

Second in command

148.

Where is the “Available Landing Distance” (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operation (LAHSO)?

a)

Special Notices section of the Chart Supplement

b)

Aeronautical information Manual (AIM)

c)

14 CFR Part 91, General Operating and Flight Rules.

149.

When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance

a)

When it will compromise safety

b)

Only when the tower operator concurs

c)

Pilots cannot decline clearance

150.

What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

a)

3 nautical miles

b)

3 statue miles

c)

1 statue miles

151.

What should you expect when you are told that LAHSO operations are in effect at your destination airport?

a)

All aircraft must operate on an IFR clearance due to high traffic volume

b)

That ATC will give you a clearance to land and hold short of a specified point on the runway

c)

Delays due to low IFR conditions and high traffic volume

152.

If given a landing clearance on runway 16 and told to hold short runway 6, how can a pilot determine the available landing distance?

a)

The full runway length is available

b)

Use rule of thumb to determine the distance

c)

Ask the controller