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Worksheets

PM 2025-FINAL

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 2hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The largest WAN is the internet.
a)
True
b)
False
2.
An extranet is designed for the exclusive use within an organization.
a)
True
b)
False
3.
A gateway connects networks using different communications.
a)
True
b)
False
4.

Networks are usually classified using three different properties

a)

Topologies

b)

Protocol

c)

Architecture

d)

All of these

5.

The word MODEM stands for

(a)  

6.

Full Form of FTP

a)

File Transfer Protocol

b)

File Transport Protocol

c)

File Tender Protocol

d)

None of these

7.

Different Network Methods are

a)

LAN

b)

MAN

c)

WAN

d)

Wireless LAN's and WAN's

e)

All of these

8.

The term Bandwidth refers to

a)

The Method you use to connect to internet

b)

The amount of data that can be downloaded via radio waves

c)

The number of minutes you use while online

d)

The maximum amount of data that can be transferred at any time via an internet connection

9.

A Computer Network is a system of

a)

A whole lot of individual machines working on their own

b)

Data transfer and information storage

c)

Sharing devices like scanners

d)

Two or more computing devices connected to one another

10.

Hardware needed to connect to a computer to the internet is

a)

Internet Explorer

b)

CAT 5 cabling

c)

NIC

d)

Servers

e)

WAT

11.

Communication medium transfers data and information between computing devices in a network.communication media include:

a)

Routers

b)

UTP

c)

Fibre optic

d)

Coaxial cable

e)

Wifi

12.

Which of the following statements describes characteristics of the IP protocol?

a)

Operates without a dedicated end-to-end connection and uses best effort in delivering packets.

b)

Detects and retransmits packets if errors occur.

c)

Re-assembles out of order packets into the correct order at the receiver end.

d)

Guarantees delivery of packets to the destination network.

13.

Which logical address is used for delivery of data to a remote network?

a)

destination MAC address

b)

destination IP address

c)

destination port number

d)

source MAC address

14.

All computers that are connected to a network and participate directly in network communication are classified as...Pick 2

a)

Hosts

b)

Clients

c)

Servers

d)

Routers

15.

is a program that emulates the input field in a text-based user interface screen with the Windows graphical user interface (GUI).

a)

IPCONFIG

b)

ping

c)

command prompt

d)

DOS

16.

is a Command Prompt which is used to get the network packet being sent and received and the number of hops required for that packet to reach to target.

a)

ping

b)

ipconfig

c)

tracert

d)

nslookup

17.

stands for name server lookup command, is a network utility command used to obtain information about internet servers.

a)

ipv4

b)

ipconfig

c)

nslookup

d)

ipv6

18.
Each side of a router is
a)
a different network
b)
the same network
c)
in the same IP subnet range
d)
connected to a single end device
19.

What is stored in the NVRAM of a Cisco router?

a)

the Cisco IOS

b)

the running configuration

c)

the bootup instructions

d)

the startup configuration

20.

When a hostname is configured through the Cisco CLI, which three naming conventions are part of the guidelines? (Choose three.)

a)

The hostname should be written in all lower case characters

b)

The hostname should contain no spaces

c)

the hostname should begin with a letter

d)

the hostname should be fewer than 64 characters in length

e)

the hostname should end with a special character

21.

Which type of access is secured on a Cisco router or switch with the enable secret command?

a)

Virtual terminal

b)

console line

c)

privileged EXEC

d)

AUX port

22.

What is a user trying to determine when issuing a ping 10.1.1.1 command on a PC?

a)

if the TCP/IP stack is functioning on the PC without putting traffic on the wire

b)

if there is connectivity with the destination device

c)

the path that traffic will take to reach the destination

d)

what type of device is at the destination

23.

How does the service password-encryption command enhance password security on Cisco routers and switches?

a)

It encrypts passwords as they are sent across the network.

b)

It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration files.

c)

It requires that a user type encrypted passwords to gain console access to a router or switch.

d)

It requires encrypted passwords to be used when connecting remotely to a router or switch with Telnet.

24.

Which information does the show startup-config command display?​

a)

the IOS image copied into RAM

b)

the bootstrap program in the ROM

c)

the contents of the current running configuration file in the RAM

d)

the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM

25.

Which command or key combination allows a user to return to the previous level in the command hierarchy?

a)

end

b)

exit

c)

Ctrl-Z

d)

Ctrl-C

26.

To a session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a switch to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

a)

Telnet

b)

Console

c)

SSH

d)

AUX

27.
A router has a valid operating system and a configuration stored in NVRAM. When the router boots up, which mode will display?
a)
global configuration mode
b)
user EXEC mode
c)
setup mode
d)
ROM monitor mode
28.
A switch was configured as shown. A ping to the default gateway was issued, but the ping was not successful. Other switches in the same network can ping this gateway. What is a possible reason for this?
a)
The ip default-gateway command has to be issued in the VLAN interface configuration mode.
b)
The VLAN IP address and the default gateway IP address are not in the same network.
c)
The no shutdown command was not issued for VLAN 1.
d)
The local DNS server is not functioning correctly.
29.

Which is the command to configure a banner to be displayed when connecting to a switch?

a)

banner $ Keep out $

b)

banner motd $ Keep out $

c)

display $ Keep out $

d)

login banner $ Keep out $

30.

Why would a technician enter the command copy startup-config running-config?

a)

To remove all configurations from the switch

b)

to make a changed configuration the startup configuration

c)

to copy the existing configuration into RAM

d)

to save an active configuration into NVRAM

31.

Clase C

a)

1 - 126

b)

128 - 191

c)

192 - 223

d)

224 - 239

e)

240 - 254

32.

Clase B

a)

1 - 126

b)

128 - 191

c)

192 - 223

d)

224 - 239

e)

240 - 254

33.

Clase A

a)

1 - 126

b)

128 - 191

c)

192 - 223

d)

224 - 239

e)

240 - 254

34.

Based on the topology given, how many subnets are needed?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

6

d)

5

35.

What are the network address and the broadcast address for a host with the IP Address below?


175. 104. 225. 135 / 27

a)

Network Address: 175.104.225.128

b)

Network Address: 175.104.225.0

c)

Broadcast Address: 175.104.225.159

d)

Broadcast Address: 175.104.225.255

36.

What is the default subent mask for the Class C network?

a)

255.255.254.0

b)

255.255.252.0

c)

255.255.255.128

d)

255.255.255.0

37.

Refer to the exhibit.Which route from the PC1 routing table will be used to reach PC2?

a)

Network destination 0.0.0.0

b)

Network destination 127.0.0.1

c)

Network destination 192.168.10.0

d)

Network destination 192.168.10.10

38.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 receives a packet destined for the IP address 192.168.2.10. Out which interface will R1 forward the packet?

a)

FastEthernet0/0

b)

FastEthernet0/1

c)

Serial0/0/0

d)

Serial0/0/1

39.

Which statement describes attenuation?

a)

The loss of wireless signal over excessive distance from the access point.

b)

The distortion of the network signal from fluorescent lighting.

c)

The weakening of the network signal over long cable lengths.

d)

The distortion of the transmitted messages from signals carried in adjacent wires.

40.

Which statement describes throughput?

a)

The measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time.

b)

The measure of the usable data transferred across the media.

c)

The theoretical capacity of a particular medium to carry data.

d)

The total amount of time it takes to get from one device to another.

41.

How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?

a)

252

b)

254

c)

255

d)

256

42.

Which destination IPv4 address does a DHCPv4 client use to send the initial DHCP Discover packet when the client is looking for a DHCP server?

a)

127.0.0.1

b)

224.0.0.1

c)

255.255.255.255

d)

the IP address of the default gateway

43.

Which of the following command(s) restricts the user exec access to a Cisco IOS device through a console cable?

a)

Line vty 0 15


password Letmein


login

b)

Line con 0


password Letmein


login

c)

Enable secret password Letmein

d)

Enable private-password Letmein

44.

Which of the following host name is valid on Cisco IOS devices?

a)

Floor(15)

b)

HO Floor 17

c)

RM-3-Switch-2A4

d)

Branch2!

45.

____________ is how many bits are actually transferred between two computers in a given time.

a)

Bandwidth

b)

Thoroughput

c)

Throughput

d)

Banwidth

46.

154: A Media Access Control (MAC) address identifies a/an:

a)

UPnP device.

b)

Local broadcast domain.

c)

Network interface card (NIC).

d)

Local area network (LAN).

47.

You need to subnet a 192.168.10.0 network using a class C network. What will be the subnet mask?

a)

255.0.0.0

b)

255.255.0.0

c)

255.255.255.0

d)

255.255.255.255

48.

You need to set up 750 computers on the same network. Which IP class is the best option?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

49.

You need to connect a network adapter to a switch. You need the connection to be able to send and receive data at the same time. What type of connection should you use?

a)

Half duplex

b)

Gigabit

c)

Full duplex

d)

Simplex

50.

Which method of reliable network construction is used to assign priority of audio and video communications to allow uninterrupted service over a network?

a)

Fault Tolerance

b)

Scalability

c)

Quality of Service (QoS)

d)

Security

51.

Which term describes the state of a network when the demand on the network resources exceeds the available capacity?

a)

Optimization

b)

Congestion

c)

Synchronization

d)

Convergence

52.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses a console connection to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

a)

letmein

b)

secretin

c)

lineconin

d)

linevtyin

53.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

a)

he entire command, configure terminal, must be used.

b)

The administrator is already in global configuration mode.

c)

The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.

d)

The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.

54.

What type of network is used in the diagram?

a)

LAN

b)

client/server

c)

peer to peer

d)

PAN

55.

Identify the image shown

a)

Router

b)

Hub

c)

Switch

56.

192.168.10.3 is an example of..

a)

Subnet mask

b)

IP address

c)

Gateway

57.

Identify the image shown above..

a)

Switch

b)

Network Cable

c)

Network Interface Card

d)

Hub

58.
A switch is a device that joins all the devices of a network together.
a)
True
b)
False
59.
A router is a device that performs the same tasks as a hub.
a)
True
b)
False
60.
A server provides a service to one or may clients to share files, folder or printers.
a)
True
b)
False
61.

…….. Is used to Resolve Domain Name to IP

a)

DHCP

b)

DNS

c)

NAT

62.
What is the highlighted item? 
a)
CMOS battery
b)
cpu
c)
RAM chip
d)
northbridge
63.
This circled item on the motherboard allows for the addition of adapter cards. 
a)
Northbridge
b)
Expansion slots
c)
Southbridge
d)
RAM slots
64.
What is circled on the motherboard image? 
a)
I/O connectors
b)
cpu
c)
BIOS/UEFI chip
d)
RAM slots
65.
What component is circled on the motherboard? 
a)
RAM slots 
b)
Expansion slots
c)
CPU
d)
Chipset
66.

a)

USB port

b)

Lan Port

c)

Sound port

d)

HDMI port

67.

What type of power connector can supply power to a PATA drive, optical drive, and SCSI drive?

a)

A SATA connector

b)

A Molex connector

c)

A Berg connector

d)

An ATX connector

e)

A Connect 4

68.

Which type of DVI cable provides you with the most versatility?

a)

DVI-HD

b)

DVI-I

c)

DVI-A

d)

DVI-D

69.

Used to connect monitors. It has 15 pins and it is a female port.

(a)  

70.
Identify
a)
Video expansion
b)
Memory
c)
CPU
71.
Identify
a)
RAM
b)
ROM
c)
Sound Card
d)
Expansion Slots
72.
Identify
a)
SATA
b)
DIMM
c)
Chipset
d)
Memory
73.
What type of power connector is this?
a)
SATA
b)
4 pin AUX
c)
Molex
d)
Berg
74.
What type of power connector is this?
a)
SATA
b)
20 pin AUX
c)
Molex
d)
Berg
75.
What type of power connector is this?
a)
SATA
b)
SCSI
c)
Molex
d)
Berg
76.

What are the FOUR main functions of the computer?

a)

Input, Process, Output, Recording

b)

Input, Output, Displaying, Remembering

c)

Input, Process, Output, Store

d)

None of the above

77.
BIOS
a)
Batch file Integrated Operating System
b)
Batch Integrated Operating System
c)
Basic Input/Output System
d)
Batch Input/Output System
78.

Firmware Means

a)

ROM BIOS Instructions

b)

Instructions written in assembly language

c)

permanent instruction stored on ROM

d)

permanent instructions written of Flash drive

79.
Which of these is not a network protocol?
a)
HTTP
b)
POP3
c)
Ethernet
d)
HDMI
80.

You want a device to hold files for several users to access on a network. What type of device do you need?

a)

Server

b)

Workstation

c)

File console

d)

Tablet

81.
What does the abbreviation Hz refer to in a computer hardware context
a)
The number of times a hard drive spins every second at maximum speed
b)
The number of pixels a video card can process every second
c)
The number of memory sectors a computer can write to in a second
d)
The number of clock cycles a computer processing unit has in a second. 
82.
How does a Megabit compare to a Megabyte
a)
A byte is 8 bits, so a Megabyte is 8 times larger than a Megabit.
b)
A byte is 4 bits, so a Megabyte a 4 times larger than a Megabit.
c)
A byte is 16 bits, so a Megabyte is 16 times larger than a Megabit.
d)
A term byte is a more technical name for a bit, so a Megabyte is the same as a Megabit. 
83.

You have connected a printer to a computer via a USB port. What is the next step?

a)

Install the printer driver

b)

Print a test page

c)

Unpause the print queue

d)

Configure printing preferences

84.
What type of connector does Cat5e cable have on each end? 
a)
RS-232
b)
RJ-11
c)
RJ-14
d)
RJ-45
85.

What is hexadecimal also known as?

a)

Numbers with six decimals

b)

Base 6

c)

Binary

d)

Base 16

86.

Bonus:

What is Mr. Miller's middle name

4 lines
87.

Bonus 2:

How many kids does Mr. Miller have?

Bonus 3:

What are his kids names?

4 lines
88.

PC1 sends an ARP broadcast frame. Which PC will receive the ARP broadcast frame?

a)

PC2

b)

PC3

c)

PC4

d)

PC5

e)

PC6

89.

Which is true of VLAN 1? (Choose all that apply.)

a)

All switch ports are assigned to VLAN 1 by default

b)

The native VLAN is VLAN 1 by default

c)

The management VLAN is VLAN 1 by default

d)

VLAN 1 cannot be renamed or deleted

90.

VLANs can improve security by isolating sensitive data from the rest of the network.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Which switchport mode allows traffic from all VLANs to travel across a link between switches?

a)

trunk

b)

access

c)

local

d)

serial

92.

What is the default SVI on a Cisco switch?

a)

VLAN999

b)

VLAN100

c)

VLAN1

d)

VLAN99

93.

Which command is used to remove only VLAN 20 from a switch?

a)

delete vlan.dat

b)

delete flash:vlan.dat

c)

no vlan 20

d)

no switchport access vlan 20

94.

Refer to the exhibit. In what switch mode should port G0/1 be assigned if Cisco best practices are being used?

a)


access

b)


trunk

c)


native

d)


auto

95.

Which command displays the encapsulation type, the voice VLAN ID, and the access mode VLAN for the Fa0/1 interface?

a)

show vlan brief

b)


show interfaces Fa0/1 switchport

c)


show mac address-table interface Fa0/1

d)


show interfaces trunk

96.

Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are displayed?

a)

1

b)

4

c)

8

d)

16

97.

Refer to the exhibit. A switch was configured as shown. A ping to the default gateway was issued, but the ping was not successful. Other switches in the same network can ping this gateway. What is a possible reason for this?

a)

The VLAN IP address and the default gateway IP address are not in the same network.

b)

The local DNS server is not functioning correctly.

c)

The ip default-gateway command has to be issued in the VLAN interface configuration mode.

d)

The default gateway address must be 192.168.10.1.

e)

The no shutdown command was not issued for vlan 1

98.

Which command is used to specify a subinterface for VLAN 10 on a router ?

a)

vlan 10

b)

encapsulation dot1q 10

c)

interface f0/0.20

d)

no shutdown

99.

What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be created on a switch?

a)

256

b)

1024

c)

8192

d)

4096

100.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring inter-VLAN routing on a network. For now, only one VLAN is being used, but more will be added soon. What is the missing parameter that is shown as the highlighted question mark in the graphic?

a)

It identifies the native VLAN number

b)

It identifies the type of encapsulation that is used

c)

It identifies the VLAN number

d)

It identifies the subinterface

101.

If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is considered when electing the root bridge?

a)

lowest IP address

b)

lowest MAC address

c)

highest IP address

d)

highest MAC address

102.

What is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?

a)

Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as

switches become congested.

b)

New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is

unable to be processed.

c)

CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting

frames.

d)

ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting

host.

103.

What value determines the root bridge when all switches connected by trunk links have default STP configurations?

a)

MAC address

b)

VLAN ID

c)

extended system ID

d)

bridge priority

104.

What does link aggregation mean?

a)

Combining multiple network links into a single logical channel

b)

Separating a single network link into multiple channels

c)

Increasing the speed of a single network link

d)

Decreasing the speed of a network link.

105.

Fill in the blank: From the host end, link aggregation can also be called ______.

a)

A) Port aggregation

b)

B) NIC teaming

c)

C) EtherChannel

d)

D) Bonding

106.

What is the maximum length of a standard Ethernet frame, excluding the preamble?

a)

1,518 bytes

b)

1,500 bytes

c)

9,216 bytes

d)

1,000 bytes

107.

A jumbo frame supports a data payload of up to ______ bytes.

a)

1,518

b)

1,500

c)

9,216

d)

9,018

108.

What is the primary purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

a)

To increase network speed

b)

To organize bridges or switches into a hierarchy and block loops

c)

To provide internet access

d)

To encrypt data

109.

What is Power over Ethernet (PoE) used for?

a)

Supplying electrical power over data cables

b)

Transmitting data wirelessly

c)

Enhancing video quality

d)

Increasing internet speed

110.

What command can be used on a Windows PC to see the IP configuration of that computer?

a)

ipconfig

b)

ping

c)

show ip interface

d)

show interfaces

111.
What command can be used on a Windows PC to see the IP configuration of that computer?
a)
ping
b)
show interfaces
c)
show ip interface brief
d)
ipconfig
112.

Company policy requires using the most secure method to safeguard access to the privileged exec and configuration mode on the routers. The privileged exec password is trustknow1. Which of the following router commands achieves the goal of providing the highest level of security?

a)

secret password trustknow1

b)

enable password trustknow1

c)

service password-encryption

d)

enable secret trustknow1

113.

Which command is used to encrypt all

passwords in a router configuration file?

a)

Router_A (config) # enable secret <password>

b)

Router_A (config) # service password-encryption

c)

Router_A (config) # enable password <password>

d)

Router_A (config) # encrypt password

114.

What will be the response from the router after the command, "router(config)# hostname portsmouth" is entered?

a)

portsmouth#

b)

portsmouth(config)#

c)

router(config-host)#

d)

invalid input detected

115.

What will be the prompt after executing the following command?


Switch(config)# line console 0

a)

Correct answer is missing

b)

(config-line)#

c)

Switch(config)#

d)

Switch(line-config)#

e)

Switch(config-line)#

116.
A switch connects
a)
end devices to end devices
b)
networks to networks
c)
screens to keyboards
d)
end devices to the Internet
117.
The netmask (e.g. /24) represents
a)
the number of IP addresses in a subnet
b)
the number of MAC addresses on a PC
c)
an end device’s IP address
d)
the IP address of the gateway
118.
Each side of a router is
a)
a different network
b)
the same network
c)
in the same IP subnet range
d)
connected to a single end device
119.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses a console connection to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

a)

letmein

b)

secretin

c)

lineconin

d)

linevtyin

120.

A technician configures a switch with these commands:


SwitchA(config)# interface vlan 1

SwitchA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

SwitchA(config-if)# no shutdown

a)

telnet

b)

SVI

c)

password encryption

d)

physical switchport access

121.

To what subnet does the IP address 10.1.100.50 belong if a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 is used?

a)

10.1.100.0

b)

10.1.100.32

c)

10.0.0.0

d)

10.1.0.0

122.

Refer to the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the viewable output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.)

a)

Two physical interfaces have been configured.

b)

The switch can be remotely managed

c)

One device is attached to a physical interface

d)

Passwords have been configured on the switch.

e)

The default SVI has been changed

123.

Refer to the exhibit. A switch was configured as shown. A ping to the default gateway was issued, but the ping was not successful. Other switches in the same network can ping this gateway. What is a possible reason for this?

a)

The VLAN IP address and the default gateway IP address are not in the same network.

b)

The local DNS server is not functioning correctly.

c)

The ip default-gateway command has to be issued in the VLAN interface configuration mode.

d)

The default gateway address must be 192.168.10.1.

e)

The no shutdown command was not issued for vlan 1

124.

Which two protocols operate at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

a)

tcp

b)

http

c)

ftp

d)

udp

125.

Which network service automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on the network?

Group of answer choices

a)

DHCP

b)

Telnet

c)

Traceroute

d)

DNS

126.

Which device is used to segment a network?

a)

Hub

b)

Switch

c)

Repeater

d)

All of the above

127.

What is the primary function of a bridge?

a)

Breaks up collision domains

b)

Allows a NIC or other networking device to connect to a different type of media than it was designed for

c)

Allows mobile users to connect to a wired network wirelessly

d)

None of the above

128.
Which device is more intelligent when sending data packets?
a)
Switch
b)
Hub
129.
Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure
a)
HTTPS
b)
POP3
c)
SMTP
d)
IMAP
130.
Which one is an intermediary device?
a)
Bus
b)
Switch
c)
Desktop Computer
d)
Ethernet Cable
131.

Modern networks primarily use three types...What type uses Electrical pulses...

a)

Copper

b)

Fiber

c)

Wireless

132.

Modern networks primarily use three types...What type uses Light pulses...

a)

Copper

b)

Wireless

c)

Fiber

133.
Mbps is known as...
a)
Megabits per second
b)
Megabytes per second
c)
Gigabits per second
134.
The actual arrangements of cables and nodes on a network is called ___________
a)
Geographical Topology
b)
Network Topology
c)
Logical Topology
d)
Physical topology
135.

Which type of network topology identifies all of the networks belonging to an organization?

a)

System topology

b)

Virtual topology

c)

Physical topology

d)

Logical topology

136.
Every NIC ( network interface card) has a MAC and IP address.
a)
True
b)
False
137.

Which of the following network security requirements is used to protect data from being accessed and read by unauthorized users?

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Availability

c)

Integrity

d)

Redundency

138.

Which term describes the state of a network when the demand on the network resources exceeds the available capacity?

a)

Optimization

b)

Congestion

c)

Synchronization

d)

Convergence

139.

Which method of reliable network construction ensures that as more users and applications increase on a network that performance is not compromised?

a)

Fault Tolerance

b)

Scalability

c)

Security

d)

Quality of Service (QoS)

140.

IP is implemented at which OSI model layer?

a)

transport

b)

session

c)

data link

d)

network

e)

logical link control

141.

What does OSI stand for?

a)

International Standards Organization

b)

Open Systems Interconnect

c)

Operating Standard Information

d)

Operating System Interconnection

e)

Open Systems Interface

142.
This IP address has 4 part. 
Each part contains 8 bit of numbers
Each part is separated by periods
The description above refers to _______
a)
IPv4
b)
IPv6
c)
Internet
d)
Extranet
143.

127.0.0.1 - 127.255.255.255 is the range that is known and the loopback address and is reserved for testing yhr computers interface.

a)

True

b)

False

144.

What is the class B default subnet mask.

a)

255.0.0.0

b)

225.255.255.0

c)

255.255.0.0

d)

225.225.0.0

145.

The class C default subnet mask is 255.255.255.0

a)

True

b)

False

146.

Which of these is a MAC address?

a)

242.94.12.48

b)

242.F2.5A.16

c)

2001:0db8:0000:0000:0000:ff00:0042:8329

d)

A3:45:F6:E2:9A:12

147.

IP stands for __________.

a)

Internet Protocol

b)

Identification Protocol

c)

Internet Address

d)

Internet Person

148.

How many bits are in an ipv4 address?

a)

16

b)

32

c)

64

d)

128

149.

How many classes of IP addresses are there?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

150.

What is the most frequently used communications protocol?

a)

IPv4

b)

IPv6

c)

IPv8

d)

IPv10

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