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NCM 112 RLE Quiz - Group 2

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse assesses clients at a community health center. Which client is at higher risk for the development of colorectal cancer?

a)

a 37-year-old who drinks eight cups of coffee daily

b)

a 44-year-old with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

c)

a 60-year-old lawyer who works 65 hours per week

d)

a 72-year-old who eats fast food frequently

2.

The nurse teaches a client who is at risk for colon cancer. Which dietary recommendation should the nurse teach this client?

a)

eat low-fiber and low residual foods

b)

white rice and bread are easier to digest

c)

add vegetables such as broccoli and cauliflower to your new diet

d)

foods high in animal fat help to protect the intestinal mucosa

3.

The nurse is assigned to care for a client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The nurse plans care knowing that this disorder is:

a)

a local rash that occurs as a result of allergy

b)

a disease caused by exposure to sunlight

c)

an inflammatory disease of collagen contained in connected tissue

d)

a disease caused by the continuous release of histamine in the body

4.

A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) who has facial rash and alopecia tells the nurse, "I hate the way I look! I never go any place except here to the health clinic." An appropriate nursing diagnosis for the patient is:

a)

activity intolerance related to fatigue and inactivity

b)

impaired skin integrity related to itching and skin sloughing

c)

social isolation related to embarrassment about the effect of SLE

d)

impaired social interaction related to lack of social skills

5.

A client has a pulmonary embolism and is started on oxygen. The student nurse asks why the client's O2Sat has not significantly improved. What response by the nurse is best?

a)

breathing so rapidly interferes with oxygenation

b)

maybe the client has respiratory distress syndrome

c)

the blood clot interferes with perfusion in the lungs

d)

the client needs immediate intubation and mechanical ventilation

6.

A nurse is caring for five clients. For which clients would the nurse assess a high risk for developing a pulmonary embolism (PE)? Select all that apply.

a)

client who had a reaction to contrast dye yesterday

b)

client with a new spinal cord injury on a rotating bed

c)

middle-aged man with an exacerbation of asthma

d)

older client who is 1-day post op hip replacement surgery

e)

young obese client with a fractured femur

7.

Which statements are INCORRECT regarding the anatomy and physiology of the liver?

a)

the liver has 3 lobes and 8 segments

b)

the liver produces bile which is released into small intestine to help digest fats

c)

the liver turns urea, a by-product of protein breakdown, into ammonia

d)

the liver plays an important role in the coagulation process

8.

Which patients below are at risk for developing complications related to a chronic hepatitis infection, such as cirrhosis, liver cancer and liver failure? Select all that apply:

a)

a 55-year-old male with hepatitis A

b)

an infant who contracted hepatitis B at birth

c)

a 32-year-old female with hepatitis C who reports using IV drugs

d)

a 50-year-old male with alcoholism and hepatitis d

e)

a 30-year-old who contracted hepatitis E

9.

What are the criteria for diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis? Select all that apply.

a)

simultaneous symmetric swelling of joints

b)

soft-tissue swelling of at least three joints

c)

subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules

d)

swelling of at least one wrist joint

e)

morning stiffness in joints

10.

Which statement is TRUE regarding rheumatoid arthritis?

a)

It is localized disease

b)

Its prevalence is affected by climate

c)

It affects men three times more than women

d)

The majority of the patients test positive

11.

Which of the following signs and symptoms is NOT expected with Diabetes Insipidus?

a)

polyuria

b)

polydipsia

c)

polyphagia

d)

extreme thirst

12.

Diabetes insipidus, Diabetes mellitus (DM) and SIADH share which of the following assessment manifestations?

a)

polyuria

b)

edema

c)

vomiting and abdominal cramping

d)

polydipsia

e)

polyuria and polydipsia

13.

Which of the following is a common cause of diarrhea

a)

contaminated food or water

b)

viral infection

c)

imbalance of good and bad bacteria in the GUT

d)

all of the above

14.

Which of these fluids is best to drink to prevent dehydration due to diarrhea?

a)

fruit juice

b)

broth

c)

water

d)

b and c

15.

Which assessment finding is commonly found in the oliguric phase of the acute kidney injury (AKI)?

a)

hypovolemia

b)

hyperkalemia

c)

hypernatremia

d)

thrombocytopenia

16.

For the patient with AKI, which laboratory result would cause you the greatest concern?

a)

potassium level of 5.9 meq/L

b)

BUN level of 25mg/dL

c)

sodium level of 144meq/L

d)

pH of 7.5

17.

Which of the following factors is believed to cause ulcerative colitis?

a)

acidic diet

b)

altered immunity

c)

chronic constipation

d)

emotional stress

18.

Which of the following associated disorders may a client with ulcerative colitis exhibit?

a)

gallstones

b)

hydronephrosis

c)

nephrolithiasis

d)

toxic megacolon

19.

A client has active TB. Which of the following symptoms will he exhibit?

a)

chest and lower back pain

b)

chills, fever, night sweats and hemoptysis

c)

fever of more than 104 degrees Fahrenheit and nausea

d)

headache and photophobia

20.

Which of the following diagnostic tests is definitive for TB?

a)

chest x-ray

b)

Mantoux test

c)

sputum culture

d)

tuberculin test

21.

The physician’s order reads “Administer 1 g ceftriaxone in 150 ml of normal saline solution in 60 minutes.” What is the flow rate if the drop factor is 15 gtt = 1 ml?

a)

25gtt/min

b)

37gtt/min

c)

50gtt/min

d)

60gtt/min

22.

Scrub nurse Leah which responsibility in the operating room?

a)

positioning the patient

b)

assisting with gowning and gloving

c)

handling surgical instruments to the surgeon

d)

applying surgical drapes

23.

Nurse Eli is correct in collecting a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity testing if he:

a)

let the patient place the specimen in a container and enclose the container in a plastic bag.

b)

let the patient expectorate the sputum while the nurse holds the container.

c)

let the patient expectorate the sputum into a sterile container.

d)

Offers the patient an antiseptic mouthwash just before he expectorate the sputum.

24.

What should a nurse do FIRST when a patient has just received 30 mg of codeine by mouth for pain and five minutes later he vomits?

a)

Call the physician

b)

readminister the medication

c)

Observe the vomitus

d)

do nothing

25.

Nurse Sammy is assessing a postoperative adult patient. Which of the following should she document as subjective data?

a)

Vital signs

b)

Laboratory test result

c)

incision pain

d)

ECG waveforms

26.

Helena, an non- English patient, has had emergency gallbladder surgery. What is the BEST action of in determining patient understanding of wound care during discharge preparation?

a)

Asking frequently if he understands the instruction.

b)

Asking an interpreter to replay the instructions to him

c)

Writing out the instructions and having a family member read them to him

d)

Demonstrating the procedure and let him return demonstrate.

27.

The physician orders Benzathine Pen G 15,000 million units, to be administered IM every month. The vial reads 20,000 million units per 2 ml. The nurse should anticipate giving how much heparin for each dose?

a)

1.0ml

b)

1.25ml

c)

1.5ml

d)

1.75ml

28.

The patient’s temperature is 102 degrees F. What is the equivalent Centigrade temperature?

a)

39 degrees C

b)

47 degrees C

c)

38.9 degrees C

d)

40.1 degrees C

29.

The patient has hypoxia, the physician is most likely to order which laboratory test?

a)

Red blood cell count

b)

Sputum culture

c)

Total hemoglobin

d)

Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis

30.

The nurse will infuse dextrose 5% in water, 1,000 ml over 8 hours. The I.V. tubing delivers 15 drops per milliliter. She should run the I.V. infusion at a rate of:

a)

15 drop per minute

b)

21 drop per minute

c)

32 drop per minute

d)

125 drops per minute

31.

A female patient undergone a exploratory laparotomy. When assessing the patient 10 hours later, the nurse identifies which finding as an early sign of shock?

a)

Restlessness

b)

pale, warm, dry skin

c)

Heart rate of 110 beats/minute

d)

Urine output of 30 ml/hour

32.

Which nursing diagnosis is/are most applicable to a client with fecal incontinence? Select all that apply.

a)

Bowel incontinence

b)

Risk for deficient fluid volume

c)

Disturbed body image

d)

Social isolation

e)

Risk for impaired skin integrity

33.

Pedro, 58 years old, diagnosed with chronic pulmonary disease has a bluish tinge around the lips. The nurse charts which term to most accurately describe the client’s condition?

a)

Hypoxia

b)

Hypoxemia

c)

Dyspnea

d)

cyanosis

34.

Rudy, 57 years old, is admitted to the emergency room with renal calculi and is complaining of moderate to severe flank pain and nausea. His temperature is 100.8 degrees Fahrenheit. The priority nursing goal for Rudy is:

a)

Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance

b)

Control nausea

c)

Manage pain

d)

Prevent urinary tract infection

35.

Nurse Lily teaches a client with coronary artery disease about nutrition. She should emphasize:

a)

Eating three (3) balanced meals a day

b)

Adding complex carbohydrates

c)

Avoiding very heavy meals

d)

Limiting sodium to 7 gms per dayy meals

36.

Nurse Honey is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The client is placed on a cardiac monitor and receives 40 mEq potassium chloride in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in water IV. Which of the following EKG patterns indicates to the nurse that the infusions should be discontinued?

a)

Narrowed QRS complex

b)

Shortened “PR” interval

c)

Tall peaked "T" waves

d)

Prominent “U” waves

37.

Nurse Jean is administering blood to a patient who has a low hemoglobin count. The patient asks how long do red blood cells live in my body? The correct response is:

a)

The life span of RBC is 45 days

b)

The life span of RBC is 60 days

c)

The life span of RBC is 90 days

d)

The life span of RBC is 120 days

38.

Alexia, a 20-year old young adult has been recently admitted to the hospital. According to Erikson, which of the following stages is the adult in?

a)

Trust vs. mistrust

b)

Initiative vs. guilt

c)

Autonomy vs. shame

d)

Intimacy vs. isolation

39.

Nurse Nikki is taking vital signs early in the morning. Which of the following is abnormal?

a)

18-year-old male: 90 BPM, 22 RPM, 100/70 mmHg

b)

23-year-old female: 105 BPM, 22 RPM, 90/60 mmHg

c)

50-year-old male: 80 BPM, 20 RPM, 90/65 mmHg

d)

76-year-old female: 80 BPM, 20 RPM, 90/70 mmHg

40.

When examining a patient with abdominal pain due to suspected appendicitis, the nurse expects localization of pain at:

a)

Any quadrant

b)

RUQ

c)

LUQ

d)

RLQ

e)

LLQ